Comprehensive Test Review – Flashcards
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How does the U.S Army Combat Readiness/Safety Center support the Army?
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The USACRC supports our Army by collecting, analyzing and communicating actionable information to assist leaders, Soldiers, families and civilians in preserving/protecting our Army's combat resources.
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What are the three pillars of the Army Safe Model?
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Leaders Soldiers/peers Families/Community
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What are some of the tools available to the Soldiers/Leaders?
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Peer to Peer Range and Weapons Safety Toolbox Accident Risk Assessments BOSS Safety Factor GRAT Family Engagement Kit TRiPS
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What are the benefits of Knowledge Management?
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Effectively prevents organizational "stovepipe" Facilitates horizontal communication Reduces decision-making time
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Authorization to access RMIS data is limited within the DoD for what primary purpose?
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Accident prevention purposes only
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What is the primary intent for RMIS?
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Accident prevention
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In what ways can RMIS be used to help prevent accidents?
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Data can be used during briefings, training, meetings, etc.
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When Army standards conflict with legal standards, such as the OSH Act, or provide a lower degree of protection, which standard will be followed?
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The more stringent legal standard will apply.
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Under what circumstances can a commander waive the requirements of AR 385-10?
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Commanders may not waive any requirement of AR 385-10; the request must be sent to the proponent of the regulation, which is the Director of the Army Staff.
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Once appointed as an ADSO how long does the ADSO have to complete the ADSC?
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Additional duty safety personnel on active duty are required to complete the ADSC within 30 days of appointment. Non-active duty guard and reserve personnel are afforded 90 days to complete the course.
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When placed on orders, how many months remaining in a unit must an ADSO have?
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12 months
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Name at least two of the five safety sub-functional areas?
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Safety program management Inspections/assessments Investigation/reporting Promotion/awareness Hazard analysis and countermeasures
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13. How does ATP 5-19 define the term hazard?
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condition with the potential to cause injury or illness to people; damage to equipment or property; or mission degradation.
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Describe the process of assessing hazards.
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Assess the probability of encountering the hazard Estimate the severity of an encounter Determine the level of risk using the standard risk assessment matrix
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What are the three categories of RM controls?
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Physical, educational, and elimination/avoidance.
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What is the term for risk remaining after controls have been selected?
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Residual risk
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When may the overall risk for a mission be higher than the risk level of any given hazard?
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When the commander or manager determines that a number of hazards, in combination, present a greater risk.
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Why do commanders integrate RM into war fighting functions?
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Minimize human error, material failure, and adverse environmental effects.
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Name three reasons it is necessary to supervise the RM process, particularly the implementation of controls.
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Ensures subordinates understand how, when, and where controls are implemented; detects complacency, deviation from standards, or violations of risk controls; ensures controls are implemented, monitored and remain in place; and enables situational awareness to identify, assess and control new hazards.
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What are the guiding principles of RM?
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Integrate RM into all missions & operations Make risk decisions at the appropriate level Accept no unnecessary risk; weigh risk versus gain Apply RM cyclically and continuously Do not be risk averse - manage risk and complete the mission
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Describe the primary premise of RM
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It does not matter where or how a loss occurs, the result is the same - decreased combat power or mission effectiveness RM is concerned with managing the risks associated with all hazards (accident and tactical risks) on- and off-duty
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Name two reasons it is important to evaluate the RM process.
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Any two of the following: to ensure the RM process supported the mission; to ensure that hazards were accurately assessed; to ensure compliance with RM guiding principles; and to ensure effective implementation, execution, and communication of RM controls.
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What are the three E's of safety?
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Engineering, education, enforcement
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What can cause stress?
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Any situation or thought that makes a person feel frustrated, angry, nervous, or anxious
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25. What are three components of attitude?
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Cognitive, affective, and behavioral
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26. What is a responsibility of the safety officer when communicating a safety message across generations?
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Make every effort to communicate through the receiver's preferred methods
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Who has the ultimate responsibility for preserving human and materiel resources?
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Commander
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What can a good Unit Safety Program do?
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Ensure safe and healthful workplaces Help protect valuable assets and resources Provide for public safety Help ensure unit readiness
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What is the ADSO/NCO's primary mission?
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Advise and assist the unit commander in developing and implementing safety policy and composite risk management
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What must be labeled?
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All folders, files and containers used to store official records, including records in electronic form
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One method many safety offices use to promote safety promotion and awareness is the use of
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Bulletin Boards
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ARIMS applies to what file classifications?
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Unclassified to include FOUO; Classified through Secret
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Which are the benefits of maintaining and managing safety records?
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Improves information management Simplifies archival and retrieval Increases standardization
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Which award is for the Soldier who demonstrates "pockets of excellence" or "best practices in safeguarding Army operations or personnel?
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SMA Superior Soldier Safety Award
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At what level can a safety council be consolidated?
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No higher than Battalion/Squadron
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When may the CSC and ESC be combined as one?
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When units have a low density of officer or enlisted personnel
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True/False. Discussing unresolved safety issues, organizational hazards, corrective actions, and action officers/NCOs is one of the functions of a Command Safety Council to conduct a risk management forum.
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True
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How often should safety training meetings be conducted?
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At least monthly for active component and full time reserve component, and quarterly for all others
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What are the three basic error types?
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Skill-based Perceptual Decision
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What are the two basic types of violations?
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Routine Exceptional
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What is an active failure?
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An active failure is an unsafe act that has an immediate adverse effect on the system
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What are the three main categories of Preconditions for Unsafe Acts?
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Environmental Factors Personnel Factors Substandard Conditions of Operators
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True/False. Willful disregard for rules and regulations is the instrumental difference between Unsafe Act Error and Unsafe Act Violation
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True
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Why did the military services adopt system safety?
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To attempt to control cost
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What is the order of precedence in System Safety?
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Design for minimum hazard Incorporate safety devices/features Provide Warning Devices Develop Procedures and Training
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Which of the order of precedence measures can be used to mitigate hazards associated with COTS equipment?
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Incorporate safety devices/features Provide Warning Devices Develop Procedures and Training Any measure except design
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What can FMEA do for us?
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Assess system reliability Determine the effect of a single critical component malfunction and its repair or replacement Complements system safety analyses
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Which regulation covers all major environmental programs within the Army?
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AR 200-1
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True/False. The Installation Commander is required to organize and chair the Environmental Quality Control Committee (EQCC).
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True
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What level of command has to complete Army Readiness Assessment Program (ARAP)?
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Battalion
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How long after receiving the approval of enrollment into ARAP must the organization complete the number or assessments needed to receive a brief of the results?
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30 - 45 days
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What is the purpose of a QDR?
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Report conditions that are the result of below standard workmanship Report materiel faults in design, operations, or manufacture with the purpose of initiating early and effective corrective action or to recommend improvements
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Explain the two categories of a QDR.
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Category I involves deficiencies that will or may affect life or limb of personnel or impair the combat capabilities of the using organization or individual Category II involves deficiencies that do not meet criteria set forth in category I. For all other defective materiel conditions or recommendations for improvement
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What are the reporting requirements for each of the two categories of a QDR?
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a. Category I - notification in 24 hours and submit SF 368 in 48 hours b. Category II - submission of SF 368 in 5 days
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What form is used to report product defects in design, specification, materiel, manufacturing, and workmanship?
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SF 368, Product Quality Deficiency Report
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What is the most urgent type of Product Quality Deficiency Report that must be reported within 24 hours?
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Category I
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Of the safety messages, which one has the highest priority for ground equipment?
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Safety of Use Message
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What are the three Safety of Flight and Safety of Use Messages Categories?
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a. -Emergency b. -Operational c. -Technical
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What document prescribes the technical requirements along with the needed hardware, tools, and personnel for making a change to organizational equipment and is the implementing instrument for a Product Improvement Program?
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Modification Work Order (MWO)
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What are the categories of a Modification Work Order (MWO)?
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a. -Emergency b. -Urgent c. -Routine
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True/False. Ground Precautionary Action Messages do not require immediate action.
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True
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Each time the supervisor or an employee enters the workplace, they will conduct what type of inspection?
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A visual safety inspection of the workplace - conducting inspections of this type will help integrate safety into the daily routine
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What Form will be posted in all workplaces and be accessible to the employee?
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Department of Defense Safety and Occupational Health Program DD Form 2272
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How long will the installation safety office retain the DA Forms 4755?
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Reports will be retained for 5 years
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Who is responsible for developing and implementing functions as part of the Army Safety Program and the Army Occupational Health Program?
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All Army leaders at each echelon
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When can an Army E5 be an RSO during mortar training activities?
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NEVER, only an RSO for the Marine Corps can be E5 for mortar training activities.
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What weapon systems must the Range OIC be knowledgeable on?
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The OICs will be knowledgeable on the weapon systems for which they are responsible.
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Who is responsible for ensuring the SDZ clear of unauthorized personnel prior to range operations?
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RSO
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Why must the Installation Commander coordinate with the installation PAO prior to firing on a range?
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To ensure warnings are issued at least 24 hours in advance, through the installation PAO, to the public news media before firing operations that may involve possible hazards to the general public
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Which are the goals of the Range Safety Program?
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Enhance safe, realistic live-fire training Protect personnel and property while improving combat readiness Protect civilian and military populations who live and work in the vicinity of live-fire training ranges
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What is the purpose of conducting SRM training?
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Allows Soldiers to quickly and effectively engage targets at ranges less than 50 meters Promotes Soldiers' confidence and knowledge in SRM fundamentals
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What is Phase II of SRM?
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Phase II—Target Discrimination
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During Short Range Marksmanship training/qualification, when is it acceptable to assign one lane-safety coach to multiple lanes?
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NEVER- a lane-safety coach must be assigned to each lane
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What are the fundamentals of SRM?
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Firing stance, weapon ready positions, and movement techniques Aiming technique Point of aim Trigger manipulation
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What two exercises must a Soldier conduct prior to firing live ammunition during Phase 1 on an SRM range?
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Dry-fire exercise and a blank fire exercise
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Who is responsible for range safety certification programs?
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Battalion commander is responsible for range safety certification programs
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Why do we execute CLFX?
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Prepare Soldiers for real-world missions involving vehicle movement Improve the unit combat readiness
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Who is responsible for safety while adding realism to maximize the training benefit for convoy live fire exercise participants?
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Observer Controllers OC's
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How many OCs are required per squad during the convoy live fire exercise?
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OC - two per squad and one in the cab of each task vehicle
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80. Warning signs will be posted _____ far apart around the installation training complex to warn and prohibit entry by unauthorized personnel.
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200 meters
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When two or more requirements apply, which chapter generally takes precedence over the base/fundamental chapters?
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Occupancy chapters
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ccording to NFPA, a building considered occupied when
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is occupied by more than 10 persons
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True/False. In order to meet the rule for exit remoteness in a room without sprinklers, the exits at a minimum must be separated by half the diagonal distance of the room
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True
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When a reference is in brackets, for example [72, 2010], what does it indicate?
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Material has been extracted from another NFPA document or other references
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What does a bullet between two paragraphs indicate?
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That one or more paragraphs have been deleted
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The fundamental requirements of means of egress in accordance with NFPA 101 are:
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Clearly visible or noticeably designated/marked Maintained free and unobstructed At a minimum two means of egress must be provided
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What is a simple definition of "means of egress"?
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The way to, through, and away from the exit
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What is "common path of travel"?
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The portion of exit access that must be traversed before two separate and distinct paths of travel to two exits are available
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The portion of means of egress between the termination of an exit and a public way is called an
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Exit Discharge
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What is the NFPA 101® definition for an exit?
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That portion of means of egress that is separated from all other spaces of a building or structure by construction or equipment as required to provide a protected way of travel to the exit discharge
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What is the required minimum distance between tent stake lines?
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There shall be a minimum of 10 ft between stake lines
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True/False. If there is no physical change to the structure, but a change in use or occupancy, a change in code maybe required.
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True
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What publication governs Army driver selection, training, testing, and licensing?
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R 600-55
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What do DoD components model their traffic safety programs after?
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The Highway Safety Program Guidelines
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In accordance with recent DoD studies, what is the age group of service members most likely to be involved in a fatal POV accident?
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18-25
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What are the three most common factors identified during fatal POV accident investigations?
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Speed, alcohol, and indiscipline
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What are leading indicators that a leader can most often use to help identify a "high-risk" driver in his/her unit?
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Gender, age, traffic citations, alcohol involvement
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What are the four risk factors we've just discussed?
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Speed, alcohol, fatigue, medications
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What type(s) of distraction is texting while driving?
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Visual — taking your eyes off the road Manual — taking your hands off the wheel Cognitive — taking your mind off what you're doing
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When operating a motor vehicle on a military installation, who is required to wear occupant protective devices?
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Vehicle operator and all passengers
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What are the last six risk factors we discussed?
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Distractions, aggressive behaviors, not using occupant protective devices, environment, increased vehicle occupancy, weekend and early morning driving
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Who must complete the on-line Army Accident Avoidance Course prior to operating an Army motor vehicle?
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Soldiers, Department of the Army Civilians, and Contractor employees
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Before assignment as a driver of a police vehicle, ambulance, or fire truck, what training is required
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Emergency Vehicle Operator Training
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In accordance with the DoD Traffic Safety Program standard, all military personnel who possess a driver's license and under what age shall be given four hours of driver education?
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26 years old
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What are some controls for improving POV safety?
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Traffic Safety SOP, POV safety briefings, be involved, conduct inspections, etc.
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As a minimum, how many consecutive hours of rest (off duty) during any 24 hour period must drivers be provided?
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Eight hours
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At a minimum, how often are POV inspections required?
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Every 6 months
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How many miles is considered within the "local area"?
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The number determined by the commander
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What are five motorcycle safety requirements?
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Licensing Training Motorcycle vehicle equipment Personal protective equipment (PPE) Inspections
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When must a DoD service member attend an MSF approved rider course?
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Before operating a motorcycle
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Motorcycle helmets must conform to what safety standard?
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Department of Transportation (DOT)
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What is prohibited from wear when jogging/running, bicycling, or skating, skateboarding on or adjacent to roadways or roadway intersections on DoD installations?
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Portable headphones, earphones, ear or other listening devices
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What is 80% of all accidents attributed to?
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Human error
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What are the five sources of human error?
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Individual failure Training failure Leader failure Standards failure Support failure
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What are the three types of driver training?
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Initial academic training Refresher or sustainment training Remedial training
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What helps prepare Soldiers to address and reduce unintended consequences?
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Rehearsals
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Name a hazard associated with Army motor vehicles?
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Rollovers
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When writing the responsibilities of an SOP you should
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write for the position not for the person
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True/False. Summary provides a recap of the main points within an SOP
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True
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What team sport produces the most injuries
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Basketball
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Name at least two actions (controls) a Soldier should take to reduce the risk of injuries while participating in sports?
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Controls may include: wearing proper PPE, do warm-up activities, avoid alcohol consumption
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How can leaders help reduce off-duty injuries or deaths of Soldiers?
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Active involvement
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What water-related activity most often causes permanent disabilities?
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Diving
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Whenever around water, what devices should always be present?
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PFD (Personal Flotation Devices)
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What is the number one category for injuries in the home within the United States?
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Slips, trips and falls
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Name the top three poisons within the home.
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Analgesics, cosmetics, and cleaning substances
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What is the leading cause of home fires within the United States?
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Unattended cooking
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Where can you find Exposure Limits?
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OSHA (PEL) NIOSH (REL) ACGIH (TLV) Military (MEG)
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Which Exposure Limit does the Army follow?
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The Most Stringent
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What are the noise exposure limits according to the DODI?
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85 dBA Action Level and 140 dBA for impact noise
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What color of the combat earplug would you use for weapons fire in a dismounted mode?
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Yellow
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Why do we use inspections and surveys?
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To improve operations and procedures and eliminate/reduce hazards in the workplace
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How often are surveys/inspections required to be conducted?
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Inspect all areas at least annually
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What must be stenciled on shop floor cranes, hoist beams, jack stands, and jacks if less than seven (7) feet above floor level?
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The load rating and date of the next periodic inspection
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What is required to be maintained and updated for a maintenance facility's hazardous chemicals
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A written comprehensive hazardous communication program HAZCOM training MSDSs Hazardous material inventory
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What are your recommendations to help reduce or eliminate hazards within and around a maintenance facility?
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Practice good housekeeping Maintain, implement, and enforce the SOP and other standards Ensure proper PPE is available and used
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True/False. The Unit Motor Maintenance Officer is responsible directly to the Unit Safety Officer for overall safe operation and function of the maintenance section.
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False
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An employer shall develop and implement a monitoring program when noise equals or exceeds an 8-hour time-weighted average of how many decibels?
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85
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What does AR 750-1 consider the cornerstone of the Army Maintenance System?
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PMCS
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If a chemical substance is stored in an unlabeled container, what is it considered to be?
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Hazardous until it can be identified
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Preparing to service a split-ring tire, the mechanic noticed that the tire cage was loosely bolted to the floor. What should the mechanic's next action be?
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Notify the supervisor of the deficiency
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When must pulleys, belts, ventilation fans, etc. be guarded with a metal cover or screen?
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When they are less than seven (7) feet above the floor
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385-10 requires Army motor vehicle to be equipped with properly sized chocks and used except when the vehicle is what?
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A non-tactical vehicle
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Why is it important to know the type of metals being welded in a maintenance facility?
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Some metals produce harmful fumes
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What are the five areas a Safety Officer needs to inspect and/or review for predeployment of a unit?
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Tactical SOP (TACSOP) Annexes for convoy, port, air, etc. Garrison SOP Safety SOP CALL (Center for Army Lessons Learned) Handbook and internet links
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What are some of the areas that need to be addressed during deployment in-brief with unit leaders?
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Unique safety/training requirements Planned and rehearsed safety briefing Targeted training
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During predeployment load-outs, what is vital to the team effort?
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Use proper procedures to lift heavy equipment Consider unique requirements - block bracing Don't put HAZMAT items in the back Don't put items that can spill or leak on top of other items
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Why is it important to have a maintenance and recovery?
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Vehicles won't start Vehicles have flat tires or thrown track
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What are the Standards of Conduct regarding movement?
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No horseplay Stay clear of rail cars while docking/moving No smoking in rail operational area Do not move between or underneath rail cars Vehicles must remain under ground guide control Travel lock and tie down tank turrets & howitzer tubes Sleeping on, in, or around rail cars is prohibited Reflective vests and flashlights required at night
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Who does the coordination with the Railroad company?
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The ITO/DTO (Installation Transportation Officer)
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True/False. The Air load master is ultimately in charge of loading the plane
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True
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How many guides are required at railhead and where is each positioned?
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Three guides per vehicle
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What are two ways of loading equipment on vessels?
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Roll on - Roll off (RORO) Lift on - Lift off (LOLO)
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What must all drivers and TCs have before movement for deployment?
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Ensure all drivers are properly licensed for their assigned vehicle
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What must every driver and passenger use in all vehicles?
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Safety belts
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Name at least three controls to prevent Roll-overs.
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Conduct recon in daylight Use ground guide in limited visibility Reduce speed Watch the shoulder of the road Properly secure loads Rollover drills Driver's Training and NVDs
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List at least two considerations for base design.
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Separate fuel and ammo storage Ensure fuel is not uphill from ammo point or other critical facilities
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If restricted on space, how do you mitigate the hazards?
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Apply force protection requirements and restrictions Use HESCOs and concrete walls
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At What levels are Fire Marshals appointed?
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Each company-level unit Recommended for motor pools, work areas and TOCs
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Where do Fire Marshals receive training?
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Trained by local fire department
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What must exits be to insure safe egress?
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Clearly marked - luminescent signs are best.
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Who must know and understand Pre-Accident/Emergency Action Plans?
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All personnel must know and understand procedures (rehearse when possible)
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What two teams are responsible for water testing and waste disposal procedures?
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Field sanitation team and preventive medicine are responsible for testing
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When are chock blocks required?
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Chock blocks are required on hills, during maintenance, loading and unloading cargo, or when a vehicle is parked and a trailer is attached
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What two regulation cover environmental responsibilities?
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AR 200-1 and FM 3-34.5 address environmental issues
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Who Coordinates between unit & higher/installation HQ's environmental staffs?
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The Environmental Compliance Officer (ECO)
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Name three Helicopter Landing Zone Considerations.
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Aircraft landing/take-off area, day and light considerations Terrain (slopes, ruts, dust) Arrival/departure routes
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What are some known tools and procedures used to help reduce stress and fatigue?
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Use SOP/known standard in field environment Incorporate training breaks and R&R activities Use sleep plans Ensure proper nutrition Employ good communications between leaders and Soldiers
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What are reasons for weapons and ammo handling mishaps?
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Individual Leadership
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Name four causes/reasons for accidental discharges.
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Insufficient training Ineffective supervision Individual failures to include complacency and outright indiscipline
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Who should the safety officer work with to plan a safe Redeployment?
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Unit leadership at all levels
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Why do we need to look out for "get-home-it is?"
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To ensure that Soldiers do not take unnecessary short-cuts
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List four contributing factors to post-deployment accidents.
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Driving differences, long distance driving, alcohol & fatigue, mindsets and bad habits, environmental differences, POV condition, execution of deferred PCS & schools
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What does the mnemonic "SSAF-D" stand for?
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Speed, seatbelts, alcohol/aggressive driving, fatigue, distracters
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Name four potential medical threat categories.
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Infectious, vector borne, animal associated, environmental
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List two of the three home station medical requirements.
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TB skin test, blood sample, required appointments
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What is the first priority at the accident scene?
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Safety of victims/personnel involved
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When the accident scene is declared safe for entry, what responsibility does the local safety representative have?
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Ensure guards remain on duty and keep unauthorized personnel out
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What are ways to mark the accident site?
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Utilize flags, cones, and tape
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Name two types of diagramming.
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Polar and Grid
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Do not remove deceased personnel
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Off-post, coroner has jurisdiction
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When is the DA Form 285 (full report) required?
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All on-duty A-B ground accidents require a full report
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What form is used to report an off-duty class A accident?
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DA Form 285-AB (AGAR)
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Are witness interviews required to be recorded?
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No; but it is recommended
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After completing the report, what should be done with recordings and hand written witness statements?
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This information should be destroyed
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What Information can a Witness Provide?
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Human Factors/Errors Materiel Factors Environmental Factors
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Witness Interviews Summation
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Should be written in the third person
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When does informal data analysis begin?
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When data collection begins
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What is a minority report?
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If differences cannot be resolved, the disagreeing board member(s) will submit a minority report, which is an analysis of their disagreement.
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What written portion of the accident report should directly support the F&Rs?
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The Analysis portion of the Narrative
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Who writes the Analysis?
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Board President
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Digital Photography Advantages
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Immediate results More efficient workflow Lower cost per image Ease of transmitting
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What is the benefit of using JPEG over RAW or TIFF?
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They don't take up as much room on the memory card & are processed faster by the camera
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Are you allowed to edit an image of an accident?
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No
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How do you avoid measurement misperception?
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Place a ruler next to the item to show the actual size of the item
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How do you document your photos?
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Use photo captions
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What should be your first shooting priority?
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Perishable evidence
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How many photos should you take?
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4 perferably 8 from all four sides
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As a safety officer your receive a request for FOUIA information.
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Forward request to CRC
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True/False. Lega investigation will be conducted by safety officer.
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False
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The accident investigation board for safety can access
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CID
