CMA Chapter Review Questions – Flashcards
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The following word best describes a medical assistant who works effectively as a team member in the medical office.
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Accountable.
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Accreditation is defined as?
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A process in which recognition is granted to an education program.
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The following organization declared medical assisting an allied health profession.
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U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare.
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The following orgainization offers the Registered Medical Assistant credential.
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AMT (Association of Medical Technologists)
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The CMA and RMA examinations cover all of the following sistinct areas of knowledge:
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Calculations for preparing medications, HIPAA, Medical records, and Behavioral science.
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The following organization publishes the journal Professional Meical Assistants.
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AAMA
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The following professional attribute indicates the ability to understand someone else's situation.
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Empathy
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The goal of the 1996 AAMA Role Delineation Study was to?
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Revise and update the standards used for the accreditation of medical assisting programs.
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The initials CMA listed after a medical assistant's name indicate?
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Credentials
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After you become a certified medical assistant, how often is recertification required?
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Every 5 years
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The following term refers to legal, mental, and moral responsibility.
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Accountability
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The following is allowed as long as the medical assisting credential remains current?
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Endorsement
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The following behavior might be dsiplayed by a medical assistant who is behaving unprofessionally.
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Using a term of endearment when talking to a patient
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The following term describes behaving courteously, conscientiously, and in a generally businesslike manner?
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Professionalism
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A prefix is?
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A word structure at the beginning of a term that modifies the root
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The following suffix means "inflammation"
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-itis
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The abbreviation for the word "diagnosis" is?
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Dx
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The following prefix is matched correctly with the meaning.
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peri/around
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The prefix ab- means?
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Away from
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The combining form is the ?
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Word root with the combining vowel attached (written with a separating vertical slash).
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The following suffix means "lack of strength."
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-asthenia
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The following word is misspelled: Homostasis; how should it be spelled?
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Homeostasis
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When the combining form cyan / o is used, it means that?
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The object is blue
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The combining form oste / o means?
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Bone
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The following abbreviation means everyday.
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q.d.
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The prefix intra means?
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Within
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The abbreviation stat means
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Immediately
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The suffix -stasis means?
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Control
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The suffix -pathy means?
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Disease
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The combining form refers to the brain as?
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encephal / o
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The combining form audi / o means?
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Hearing
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The prefix epi- means?
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Upon
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Nephr / o and ren / o both refer to the?
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Kidney
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The suffix -gravida refers to?
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A pregnancy
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The prefix peri- means?
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Surrounding
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The pneumo portion of the word pneumoconiosis represents the following word part?
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Combining form
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The following contains the central meaning of a word.
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Root and Combining form
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The abbreviation q.o.d., as used in prescriptions, means?
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Every other day
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The prefix retro- means?
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Behind
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The hypo portion of the word hypolipemia represents the following word part.
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Prefix
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The following word Homerous is misspelled, how is it correctly spelled?
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Humerus
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Vacsine is misspelled, how do you correctly spell it?
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Vacine
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The following prefix means "bad", difficult, painful.
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dys-
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The suffix -kinesia means?
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Movement
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The combining form cheil / o means?
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Lip
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The prefix rube- means?
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Red
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The following word is misspelled Neruon. What is the corret spelling?
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Neuron
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The prefix milli- means?
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One-thousandth
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The following suffix means "beginning, origin, production."
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-genic and -genetic
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The suffix -scope means an instrument for?
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Viewing
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The combining form xer / o refers to something?
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Dry
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The combining form ot / o means?
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Ear
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The plural of diverticulum is?
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Diverticula
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The plural of calculus is?
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Calculi
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The first period of menstrual bleeding is called?
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Menarche
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The energy that is necessary to keep the body functioning at a minimal level is know as?
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Basal metabolism
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The portion of the brain that coordinates skeletal muscle activity is the?
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Cerebellum
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The strands of DNA in the nucleus are called?
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Chromatin
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The part of the nervous system that governs conscious activities is the?
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Somatic
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A translucent band that is present in thick skin is called?
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Stratum lucidum
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Which endocrine gland releases glucagon?
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Pancreas
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Which artery carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?
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Pulmonary
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The part of the eye responsible for peripheral vision is the?
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Rod
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The hypothalamus releases?
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Inhibiting hormones
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The abdomen is divided into how many regions?
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9
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The muscle that flexes the foot is the?
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Gastrocnemius
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The universal donor blood group is?
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Type O
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The organs of the respiratory system includes all of the following?
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Larynx, pharynx, trachea, and bronchi
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A fold of loose skin that covers the penis is the ?
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Prepuce
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An expandable organ that stores urine is the ?
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Urinary bladder
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The longest part of the digestive system is the ?
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Small intestine
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The following tissue is not connective tissue.
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Nervous tissue
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Which bone in the neck is U-shaped?
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Hyoid bone
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Substances that are not chemically combined and that can be separated by physical means are?
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Mixtures
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The following are neurotransmitters:
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Histamine, dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine
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What term means "cell eating"?
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Phagocytosis
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Name three major functions of the skin?
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Sensory reception, protection, and synthesis of vitamin D
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Skeletal muscles need all of the following factors to contract:
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Actin, myosin, ATP (adenosine triphosphate), and calcium
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Name three glandular modes of secretion?
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Merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine
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Name three of the body planes?
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Frontal, sagittal, and transverse
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The first cervical vertebra is the?
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Atlas
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Name four muscle tissues?
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Striated, visceral, skeletal, and smooth
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The production of heat needed to utilize food is called?
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Thermogenesis
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Pulmonary arteries do what?
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Transfer low-oxygenated blood away from the heart
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The three bones in the middle ear that amplify vibrations are called?
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Auditory ossicles
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The part of the brain responsible for visual recognition is?
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Occipital lobe
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Which of the following is a type of hormone? Chyme, globulin, bile, secretin, or agglutinin?
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Secretin
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The thalamus does what?
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Acts as a relay station for sensory impulses
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Bitter taste receptors are located on what part of the tongue?
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Back
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The white and outermost layer of the eye is called the?
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Sclera
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The hormone epinephrine is produced by the?
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Adrenal medulla
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Secretion of hormones is regulated by?
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Other hormones, neurotransmitters, and negative feedback system
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All of the following are characteristics of the endocrine system:
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Its response is slow and prolonged when compared with that of the nervous system, endocrine glands are ductless and release hormones into the bloodstream, it controls many body functions, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and sexual characteristics, and the endocrine system produces hormones that affect activities such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction.
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Type A blood has?
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A antigen on the red blood cells and B antibodies in plasma
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The sympathetic action of the pupil of the eye is?
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Dilation
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A synapse is?
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The juction between two neurons
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Name the following term describing an area of ossification of bone?
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Epiphyseal
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Chronic glomerulonephritis and renal failure may both result in?
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Uremia
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What is the definition of encephalitis?
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Inflammation of the brain
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What is the name of the condition caused by hypersecrtion of growth hormone before puberty?
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Gigantism
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Name the sexually transmitted disease that is sometimes called the "Silent STD"?
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Chlamydial infection
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Which cancer site is the leading cause of cancer death in males?
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Lung
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Chronic dilation and distention of the bronchial walls is called?
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Bronchiectasis
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Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum from the abdominal cavity is called?
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Cryptochidism
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What condition may result in a lack of melanin pigment in the body?
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Albinism
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Acute glomerulonephritis is marked by what symptoms?
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Edema, hematuria, protein in the urine, and blood in the urine
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The most common cyanotic cardiac defect is?
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Tetralogy of Fallot
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Which is the most common disease or condition of the urinary system?
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Pyelonephritis
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Diabetes insipidus results from the lack or deficiency of what?
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Antidiuretic hormone
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Diverticulosis occurs particularly in the?
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Colon
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Vitiligo is a condition that affects which of the body systems?
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Integumentary
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What is the causative factor for pernicious anemia?
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Folic acid deficiency
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The failure of bone marrow to produce erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets is called?
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Aplastic anemia
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Tetanus is commonly called?
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Lockjaw
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What are obvious signs of Parkinson's disease?
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Tremor, rigidity, and slowness of movement
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What fracture of the bone is most common in children?
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Greenstick
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What are symptoms of nephrotic syndrome?
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Hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia, proteinuria, and hypertension
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The absence of the onset of menstruation at puberty is called?
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Amenorrhea
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Undescended testes may become the potential site of?
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Cancer
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Name the term that means "inflammation of the tening membrane of the heart"?
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Endocarditis
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A prolapse of one section of the intestine into the lumen of another segment, causing intestinal blockage, is called?
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Intussusception
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Episodic vasospasm of the small cutaneous arteries, usually located in the finger, is known as?
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Raynaud's disease
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The most common type of anemia in the U.S. is?
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Iron-deficiency
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What is a fungal infection of the skin that forms a ringlike pattern?
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Tinex
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Which cells can release histamine and heparin?
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Mast cells
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The most common causative organism of meningitis in adults is?
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Neisseria meningitidis
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Trisomy 21 is also called
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Down syndrome
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Thrombophlebitis occurs most commonly in the?
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Lower legs
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The sudden onset of a diseas marked by intensity is described as?
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Acute
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A patient with Addison's disease should be examind by which type of specialist?
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Endocrinologist
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Serum sickness is what type of hypersensitivity?
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III
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An area of dead cells due to lack of oxygen is called?
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Infarction
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The condition in which one of the sex chromosomes is missing is called?
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Turner's syndrome
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A cancer of the epithelial cells is called?
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Carcinoma
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Athlete's foot is otherwise known as?
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Tinea pedis
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The biggest risk factor for invasive cervical cancer is?
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Lack of regular cervical Pap smears
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What organsism commonly causes toxic shock syndrome?
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Staphylococcus aureus
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An organism that obtains its mutrients from dead organic matter is called?
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Saprophyte
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Which microorganism is a grape-like cluster?
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Staphylococci
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Which of these organsisms requires a vector? Clhlamydia, Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, Saprophyte, or Diplococcus?
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Rickettsia
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Bacteria that are permanent and beneficial residents in the human body are called?
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Normal flora
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The smallest organsisms are called?
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Viruses
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Aseptic hand washing techniques include all of the following?
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Removing all jewelry, using a nailbrush to scrub under the nails and cuticles, using liquid soap, and scrubbing vigorously
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If a virus has a bacterial host, it is called?
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A bacteriophage
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IMicrobes that can grow either with or without oxygen are called?
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Facultative anaerobes
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Hydrogen peroxide is an example of a ?
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Antiseptic
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Any close relationship that exists between two different species is known as?
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Symbiosis
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Which factors may influence the cycle involved in the spread of infectious disease?
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Means of transmission, susceptible host, means of entrance, and means of exit
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The degree to which an organism is pathogenic is known as?
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Virulence
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A substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria is said to be?
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Bacteriostatic
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What is the Gram staining procedure?
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The stain used is crstal violet, it differentiates between gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, some bacteria lose the stain by decolorization
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Sterilization is?
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A technique for destroying microorganisms
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Biohazardous waste containers are?
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Color-coded or labeled, leakproof, puncture resistant, and can contain blood and other body fluids
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Disinfection is?
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The process of removing or killing pathogens
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Spiral-shaped bacteria are called?
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Spirilla
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Streptococci appear in?
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Chains of cocci
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The bacterium Escherichia coli can cause?
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Urinary infections
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A carrier of causative organisms that can transmit diseases to noninfected individuals is called a?
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Vector
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Viruses are?
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Simpler than prokaryotes
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This word is misspelled, Myecobacteria. What is the correct spelling of this word?
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Mycobacteria
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A medical assistant needs to wash his or her hands?
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Before seeing each patient, after handling waste, after using gloves, and before leaving for the day
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In obesity, body weight exceeds normal by at least what percent?
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20%
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What nutrients are the body's primary source of energy?
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Carbohydrates
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Phosphorus is essential for the metabolism of all of the following?
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Calcium, glucose, protein and bone
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One gram of carbohydrate yields?
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4 kilocalories
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Botulism is?
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A form of food poisoning often caused by poorly canned foods
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What is referred to as "good cholesterol"?
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HDL (high-density lipoprotein)
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How many amino acids are essential to include in a person's diet because they cannot be produced by the adult human body?
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9
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Olive oil is an example of what?
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Monounsaturated fat
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Potassium deficiency may cause all of the following?
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Bradycardia, hypertension, bone fragility, and impaired growth
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The best source of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is?
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Fruits
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Zinc deficiency may result in all of the following?
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Dwarfism, delayed growth, hypogonadism, and anemia
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A deficiency of what vitamin may result in pernicious anemia?
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Vitamin B
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Weight gain during pregnancy is recommended to be anywhere between ?
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24 and 35 pounds
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Calcium defciency may result in all of the following disorders?
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Tetany, rickets, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis
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Excessive amounts of fluoride in drinking water may cause discoloration of the ?
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Teeth
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What is the most deadly of all food poisonings?
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Botulism
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Water intoxication may result this condition?
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Swelling of brain cells
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A bland diet is often prescribed in the treatment of all of the following?
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Ulcerative colitis, gastritis, gallbladder disease, and peptic ulcer
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According to the food pyramid, people should eat the most servings of which category of food group?
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Bread, cereal, rice, and pasta group
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Iodine deficiency may cause ?
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Cretinism (congenital myxedema)
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Vitamin B9 is also known as?
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Folic acid
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Vitamin D deficiency can cause?
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Rickets and osteomalacia
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How many glasses of water a day should people drink on average?
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6 to 8
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Vitamin C does what?
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Helps heal wounds and protect against infections
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A condition caused by an overdose of vitamins is?
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Hypervitaminosis
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Liable means?
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Accountable under law
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A partnership is?
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An association in which two or more individuals practice together and each assumes liability
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The power and authority given to a court to hear a case and to make a judgment is called?
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Jurisdiction
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A physician is required to report all of the following?
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Births, deaths, abuse, and communicable diseases
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A crime punishable by a fine or imprisonment for less than one year is known as a?
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Misdemeanor
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Professional negligence is also called?
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Malpractice
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What are the Ds of negligence?
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Dereliction, damages, duty, and direct cause
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In which case can a minor's medical records be released?
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A parent with legal custody has signed the release form
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In order to protect the confidentiality and privacy of patients, medical assistants should not?
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Discuss confidential matters such as test results and finances over the telephone, leave messages with someone other than the patient about test results or finances, release medical records without the signed consent of the patient or legal guardian
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A contract is?
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A voluntary agreement, made for a consideration, involves a specific promise made, and involves two or more parties
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Consent is unnecessary in?
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emergency situations
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The transplant of animal tissue into a human is known as?
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A heterograft
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Name the stages of grief indentified by Kubler-Ross?
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Depression, isolation, bargaining, and anger
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The age of majority in most jurisdictions is?
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18 years
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It is permissible to release private and confidential information about a patient when?
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The patient has signed a release form
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Good Samaritan laws?
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Encourage physicians to render emergency first aid, exist in all 50 states, protect physicians against liability for negligence in certain circumstances, and deal with the treatment of accident victims
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Res ipa loquitur is a Latin phrase that refers to?
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Something that is common knowledge or that speaks for itself
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What are parts of the Patient's Bill of Rights?
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Privacy, confidentiality, refusing treatment, and expecting continuity of care
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What means "let the higher-up answer"?
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Respondeat superior
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What is the most important item for medical assistants to keep in mind during their daily work routine in medical offices?
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Confidentiality
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When is it permissible to release information from a patient's records?
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When a court requests it by means of a subpoena
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Under what circumstances is it permissible to release information from a patient's records?
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When the patient signs a release
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The fact that an individual is a patient of the practice is?
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Confidential information
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In cases of malpractice involving res ipsa loquitur, the?
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Physician has the burden of proving his or her innocence
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The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act includes the provision that?
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Physicians who accept organs and tissue in good faith, relying on apparently valid documents, are protected from lawsuits, the time of death must be determined by a physician, any person over 18 years of age may give all or any part of his or her body up after death for research or transplantation
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What is the most widely used filing system for medical practices?
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Subject
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In appointment scheduling, the matrix indicates?
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Time not available to schedule patients
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Financial information should?
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Not be included in the patient's medical records
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What term means the act of articulating and speaking clearly?
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Enunciation
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A chronological file used as a reminder is called a?
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Tickler file
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The screening and sorting of emergency situations is called?
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Emergency triage
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Scheduling patients so that two come in at the beginning of each hour and the others are scheduled every 10 to 20 minutes is called?
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Modified wave scheduling
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Account statements for a medical practice should be sent as?
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First-Class Mail
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Patients who want to talk about abnormal test results should speak with which of the following medical personnel?
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Physicians
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What is the most secure service offered by the U.S. Postal Service?
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Registered Mail
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If a patient calls about insurance coverage, the call should be handled by?
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The medical assistant
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What should be included in the patient's medical records?
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Physical examination results, correspondence with and about the patient, diagnosis and treatment plans, and informed consent forms
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Office policy manuals contain what types of information?
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Regulations for personal apperance
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SOAP pertains to?
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Patient records
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According to the Internal Revenue Service, financial records need to be retained for how long?
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10 years
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According to U.S. Postal guidelines, what is the correct state abbreviation for an envelope addressed to Key West?
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FL (Florida)
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It is important to leave time to complete forms for patiens who are?
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New
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Which one of these is a correct complimentary closing? Yours Truly, Very Best, Best regards, Yours Sincerely, or Sincerely:?
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Best regards,
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Which mail is available 7 days per week?
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Express Mail
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When an incoming call is received, the telephone should be answered?
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By the second or third ring
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If the patient calls in to report that he or she is doing well after surgery, the medical assistant should?
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Handle the call and make note of the patient's report in his or her medical records
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An appointment book is considered?
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A legal document
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The physician should handle calls from patients about what?
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Unsatisfactory progress
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The words SPECIAL HANDLING should appear where on an envelope?
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Below the postage
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Which introductory form provides demographic data about patients?
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Patient information form
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The receptionist who is responsible for opening the medical office must arrive how long before office hours begin?
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15 to 20 minutes
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What action should a medical assistant take if a caller wants to talk to a physician but refuses to identify himself or herself?
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Ask the person to write a letter to the physician and mark it Personal
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Certified mail is used to send what?
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Documents, contracts, and bank books
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A medical assistant should do all of these when answering the telephone?
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Identify the caller, ask "how may I help you?", hold the phone's mouthpiece an inch away from the mouth, and use words appropriate to the situation, but avoid using technical terms
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What is the most effective way to educate new patients about office policies?
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Distribute patient information booklets
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Through the U.S. Postal Service, a package of books that weighs 90 pounds can be ?
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Cannot be sent because it exceeds weight limits
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Medical assistants should take all of these actions when opening mail?
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Annotate mail with comment in the margin, date all opened mail, transmit letters to the physician with the most important ones on the top, and check for enclosures
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Standard letterhead is?
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Used in general business correspondence
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The subject line of a letter appears?
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Two lines below the salutation
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In th matrix scheduling system, medical assistants should block off?
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Physician's lunch hours, visits with drug company representatives, and time for performing hospital rounds
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The abbreviation NP stands for?
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New patient
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Scheduling two or more patients in the same slot is known as?
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Double booking
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What is a type of tickler file?
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Subject
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When dealing with a seriously ill patient, you should?
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Avoid empty promises
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Pulciations and journals are usually sent as?
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Periodicals
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The proofreaders' mark # represents what?
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Add a space
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A scheduling method in which patients sign in and are seen on a first-come first-served basis is known as what?
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Open booking
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Name the parts of a communication cycle?
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Message, sender, receiver, and feedback
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Name ways to communicate with a patient who has a hearing impairment.
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Minimizing background noise and disturbances, speaking slowly, sitting close and facing the patien, and using body language
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Name the term that describes the verbal and nonverbal evidence that a message was recieved and understood?
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Feedback
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Good communication techniques include?
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Demonstrating respect
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Rapport involves?
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a positive and harmonious relationship
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Nonverbal communication is also known as?
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Body language
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Positive communication includes?
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Encouraging patients to ask questions
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Negative communication includes all of the following?
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Mumbling, speaking sharply, rushing through explanations, and showing boredom
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The three types of listening are evaluative, active, and ?
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Passive
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When in the medical office, anxious patients may exhibit?
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White-coat syndrome
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With an angry patient, you should always?
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Remain calm
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Which types of materials should you use when dealing with visually-impaired patients?
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Large print
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For mentally disabled patients, you should?
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Remain calm if they become confused
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Elderly patients should?
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Be addressed as "Mr." or "Mrs." unless they tell you otherwise
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Open-ended questions should?
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Be asked of all patients
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When communicating with very young patients, you should?
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Explain any procedure in very simple terms
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Patients with AIDS often?
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Feel depressed, angry, and guilty
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When greeting patients, a medical assistant should?
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Make eye contact
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Which defense mechanism is defined as putting unpleasant events, feelings, or thoughts out of one's mind?
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Repression
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The goal of a medical assistant to treat patients and their families fairl is achieved by?
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Therapeutic communication
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One of the greatest barriers to communication is?
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Stress
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The 5 Cs of communication include?
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Cohesiveness
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When dealing with a seriously ill patient, you should?
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Avoid empty promises
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What provides storage of electronic data?
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Hard drive, zip drive, CD-ROM drive, and floppy disk drive
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What is a type of temporary memory?
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Random-access memory
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The central processing unit (CPU) is a type of?
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Microprocessor
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Name pointing devices that manipulate the cursor on the monitor screen?
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Mouse, trackball, touch pad, and tab key
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What is the device called that transfers information from one computer to another by the use of telephone lines?
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Modem
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What is used for backing up computer files?
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Zip drive
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What type of printer offers the highest quality of output?
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Laser
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Spreadsheets are most commonly used for which tasks?
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Accounting and billing
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A symbol appearing on the monitor that shows where the next character to be typed will appear is called a?
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Cursor
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Name the device that is able to interpret printed text, illustrations, or photos and put them into a format that can be used by the computer?
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Scanner
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What legislation protects the confidentiality of patient information that is stored or transmitted electronically?
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HIPAA
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The process of removing data that is outdated or no longer needed from a disk or disk drive is?
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Purging
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Windows is a type of?
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Operating system
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Name the device that helps to protect a computer system's delicate circuits from damange?
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Surge protector
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Name the computer technologies that is likely to become further advanced?
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Telemedicine, software, speech recognition technology, and hardware
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What is a collection of related files that serve as a foundation for retrieving information?
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Database
question
Any individually identifiable health information that is transmitted or maintained by electronic or other media is known as?
answer
PHI
question
What is often called the "brains" of the computer?
answer
Central Processing Unit (CPU)
question
A list of all employees and their earnings, deductions, and other information is called?
answer
Payroll register
question
A payer's own check that is guaranteed by the bank is called a ?
answer
Certified check
question
Recording financial transactions in a book-keeping or accounting system is called?
answer
Posting
question
Paper towels are considered?
answer
Expendable items
question
Amounts charged with suppliers or creditors that remain unpaid are referred to as?
answer
Accounts payable
question
A collection ratio is?
answer
The total collections divided by net charges
question
The portion of salary held back from payroll checks for the purpose of paying government taxes is known as?
answer
Withholding
question
What may be used by a payer as a third-party check?
answer
Payroll check
question
A billing statement should include?
answer
The patient's name and address, services rendered on each date, and balance due to the patient
question
What due dates are for Employer's Quarterly Federal Tax Return on?
answer
January 31, April 30, July 31, and October 31
question
Aging accounts receiveable is?
answer
A tool to show the status of each account
question
A piece of paper describing a purchase and the amount due is known as a?
answer
Invoice
question
Evaluation of collection is based on?
answer
The collection ratio and the accounts receivable ratio
question
Regarding state unemployment tax who is required to pay?
answer
A few states require both employees and employers to make a payment
question
The accounts receivable ratio shows?
answer
How fast outstanding accounts are being paid
question
What is the trial balance?
answer
A way of checking the accuracy of accounts
question
Cash amounts that are paid out are called?
answer
Disbursements
question
a vendor's invoice should be kept on file for at least how long?
answer
10 years
question
The reviewing of financial data to verify accuracy and completeness is called?
answer
Auditing
question
What does debit mean?
answer
Charge
question
When new supplies are received, you should?
answer
Place them in back of the supply area
question
A bank draft is a check drawn by a bank on?
answer
Its funds in another bank
question
The credit policies of a medical facility should?
answer
Include a specification of when the practice requires payment and should be in writing
question
Petty cash may be used?
answer
For paying minor incidental expenses such as public transportation
question
What type of check is frequently used for payroll because it itemizes the purposes for the check and deductions?
answer
Voucher check
question
An amount that constitutes an addition to revenue is called?
answer
Credit
question
A disadvantage of single-entry bookkeeping is that it?
answer
Makes errors hard to spot
question
What are typical purchasing procedures in a medical office?
answer
An authorized person should be in charge of purchasing, receipts of goods should be recorded, high-quality goods should be ordered at the lowest prices, and shipments should be checked against packing slips
question
What is an apropriate collection technique?
answer
Sending a payment reminder in the form of a statement or letter when the account is 30 days past due
question
The calculation that results from adding deposits in transit and subtracting outstanding checks from the bank balance at the end of the month is the ?
answer
Adjusted bank balance
question
The range of fees charged by most physicians in a community is called the?
answer
Customary fee
question
If a child is covered by both her parents' insurance and the total medical charges come to $365, $280 of which is covered by the primary insurance, how are the rest of the charges handled?
answer
A claim is submitted to secondary insurance for $85
question
What is an example of fraud?
answer
Altering a patient's chart to increase the amount reimbursed
question
A participating provider in a managed healthcare program must write off?
answer
Disallowed charges
question
Which Medicare programs covers hospital charges?
answer
Part A
question
If Medicare sends a check for payment to the medical office, the physician is considered what kind of party?
answer
Participating
question
Assume that John Smith got an X-ray through Dr. Jones, a participating provider in Mr. Smith's HMO. The allowed charge for such an X-ray is $75, but Dr. Jone's usual fee is $100. John Smith's copayment due for each office visit is $15. How much can Dr. Jones collect from Mr. Smith?
answer
$15
question
If a person is covered under both Medicare and Medicaid, to which program should the claim be sent first?
answer
Medicare
question
The amount due from the ppatient for covered services from a participating provider is the difference between?
answer
The allowed charge and the patient's deductible and/or coinsurance
question
What type of medical insurance is designedj to offset medical expenses resulting from prolonged injury or illness?
answer
Major medical
question
Name a third-party health plan that is funded by the federal government?
answer
TRICARE
question
What does Blue Cross and Blue Shield offer to patients?
answer
Prepaid health services and a fee-for-service reimbursement plan
question
What is capitation?
answer
Fixed payment made for each enrolled patient rather than reimbursement based on the type and number of services provided
question
Providers are required by law to file what for all eligible Medicare patients?
answer
CMS-1500
question
If a nonparticipating provider's charge for a service is $65 and the allowed charge is $50, the amount due from the patient is?
answer
$15
question
The most common insurance claim form is the?
answer
CMS-1500
question
If a policy holder of an 80:20 plan had foot surgery that cost $3,600, how much of this bill is the subscriber responsible to pay?
answer
$720
question
An authorization to the insurance company to make payments directly to the physician is called?
answer
Assignment of benefits
question
The primary difference between an HMO and a PPO is that?
answer
An HMO locks patients into receiving services from providers with whom it has contracts whereas a PPO allows patients to choose among providers in return for higher deductibles and copayments
question
TRICARE is a healthcare benefit program for ?
answer
The Coast Guard, The National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, The Navy, and the families of uniformed personnel
question
Fee-for-service reimbursement is?
answer
Retroactive payment made after services are provided
question
A patient's medical fees come to a total of $600 from a participating provider, and the EOB lists the following information: Charges $78, Not Eligible for Payment $15, Allowed Charge $63, Applied to Deductible $7, Coinsurance $5, Amount Due From Carrier $51. What amount is the patient required to pay?
answer
$7
question
In the point-of-service option?
answer
Plan members can see out-of-network providers for additional fees
question
In the group network model?
answer
The HMO has capitation contracts with provider groups
question
What is an example of fraud?
answer
Altering a patient's chart to increase the amount reimbursed
question
Because coding information is revised annually, medical assistants responsible for coding should?
answer
Attend at least one ICD-9 and one CPT class every 2 years
question
How many digits are assigned to the primary code in the CPT coding system?
answer
5
question
What section of the CPT book refers to Evaluation and Management?
answer
99201-99499
question
According to the CPT, when a healthcare clain for the removal of a melanoma iscoded, the code should be listed under what body system?
answer
Integumentary
question
The ICD-9-CM codes for classifying the causes of injuries, poisonings, or adverse drug reations are?
answer
E codes
question
The Medicare Level II codes are included in what?
answer
HCPCS
question
What diagnositic coding system is used to code morbidity?
answer
ICD-9-CM
question
ICD-9-CM codes are revised, expanded, and refined annually to ensure?
answer
Specifity of disease
question
What is indicated by a triangle placed before a CPT code?
answer
A code description has been changed or modified
question
What coding system is used by Medicare providers to report supplies and injections?
answer
HCPCS
question
When using ICD-9 codes, what will occur when the fourth and fifth digits are omitted?
answer
Claim denials
question
Which ICD-9 code indicates the cause of an accident?
answer
E811.0
question
Changing a code to one you know the insurance company will pay for is called?
answer
Coding for coverage
question
What is the most important factor in coding?
answer
Accuracy of codes
question
What coding system is used to document the procedure for suturing a laceration?
answer
Current Procedural Terminology (CPT)
question
A two-digit modifier attached to the five-digit CPT code indicates?
answer
A service or procedure has been altered
question
Potentially infectious body fluids include?
answer
Blood, Vaginal secretions, Cerbrospinal fluid, and Semen
question
What are the color codes for hazard warning labels?
answer
Blue for health hazards, White for radioactivity hazards, and Red for flammability
question
How long is Hepatitis B virus capable of surviving in a dried state on environmental surfaces?
answer
1 week
question
Clean technique is another term for?
answer
Medical asepsis
question
Instruments that penetrate a patient's skin should be?
answer
Sterilized
question
Instruments that come in contact only with a patient's mucous membranes should be?
answer
Disinfected
question
Instruments that touch only healthy, intact skin should be?
answer
Sanitized
question
The vaccine against hepatitis B provides immunity for at least?
answer
7 years
question
A syndrome resulting from HIV infection that generally involves chronic systemic symptoms but lacks an opportunistic infection or Kaposi's sarcoma is known as?
answer
AIDS-related complex (ARC)
question
What is the only readily available method to detect evidence of HIV infection?
answer
Serological tests
question
Which organ system is most commonly involved in AIDS?
answer
Lungs
question
Kaposi's sarcoma is a malignancy of the?
answer
Skin and lymph nodes
question
Anything that poses a risk to the human body or a living organism is called a?
answer
Biohazard
question
What is a possible means of transmission of HIV?
answer
Blood
question
OSHA standards require what in writing?
answer
A written schedule for cleaning
question
Treating all human blood as if it were infectious is known as?
answer
Universal Precautions
question
Hand washing is necessary when?
answer
Before using gloves, before leaving for the day, after performing a procedure, and after using gloves
question
After you have rinsed your hands by using the aseptic hand washing method, what step should you take next?
answer
Dry your hands with clean paper towels and turn off faucets by using a clean paper towel
question
What is personal protective equipment (PPE)?
answer
Gloves, a lab coat, a surgical coat, and a face shield
question
To dispose of a contaminated needle,?
answer
Drop it into the nearest biohazardous waste container for SHARPs
question
Surgical scrub involves washing?
answer
Hands and forearms
question
The autoclave does what?
answer
Forces the temperature jof steam above the boiling point of water in order to sterilize equipment
question
Standard Precautions are?
answer
Used mainly in hospitals
question
Medical asepsis is defined as?
answer
Destruction of organisms before they enter the body
question
What liquid is used in an autoclave to sterilize instruments and supplies?
answer
Distilled water
question
What are the six C's of charting?
answer
Client's words, Clarity, Completeness, Conciseness, Chronological order, and Confidentiality
question
A small surgical clam for grasping blood vessels is called?
answer
Hemostatic forceps
question
What suture size is the thickest?
answer
0-0
question
The position in which the patient is lying flat on the back is known as?
answer
Supine
question
Needle holders are also called?
answer
Suture forceps
question
What position is used for vaginal and perineal are examination?
answer
Fowler's
question
What position requires the examination table to be raised in the middle with both ends pointing down?
answer
Proctological
question
Surgical procedures that require less than 1 day to perform, with no overnight stay for the patient, are called?
answer
Outpatient surgery
question
Color blindness is more common in ?
answer
Males
question
Minor cauterization procedures are performed in the medical office by these means?
answer
Lasers, hot instruments, electric currents, and caustic agents
question
The best and most accepted method of sterilization is?
answer
Moist heat sterilization
question
A tonometer is used to detect?
answer
Glaucoma
question
The time needed for dry heat sterilization is?
answer
90 minutes to 3 hours
question
The shelf life of a sterile package is?
answer
4 weeks
question
What are the responsibilites of the medical assistant in the physical preparation of the patient?
answer
Dressing the patient in a full gown, asking the patient to empty their bladder and bowel, obtaining and recording the patient's weight and height, and obtaining vital signs
question
Autoclave indicator tape changes color (after autoclaving) to?
answer
Black
question
A method of screening auditory acuity by placing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork against the center of the patient's forehead (to evaluate whether hearing is the same in both ears) is known as?
answer
Weber's test
question
The scalpel blade size often used to perform minor surgeries in number?
answer
15
question
The general term for a surgical suture is ?
answer
Ligature
question
You should wear gloves?
answer
If your hands might come in contact with the patient's nonintact skin
question
Surgical hand washing is performed?
answer
For 10 minutes with a strile hand brush
question
What position os used for the examination of the rectum, does the patient lie on the left side with the left leg slightly flexed?
answer
Sims'
question
A drop of potassium hydroxide is added to a wet-mount preparation of vaginal secretions for what reason?
answer
To visualize Candida albicans
question
What insturment is used to drain an abscess?
answer
Scalpel
question
During a surgical procedure, tissue is cauterized in order to accomplish what?
answer
Control of bleeding
question
The normal pulse rate (in beats per minute) for adults is?
answer
60-100
question
Which thermometer is considered the most accurate indicator of body temperature?
answer
Rectal
question
The artery most commonly used for taking a patient''s pulse is?
answer
Radial
question
You've taken a patient's temperature and recorded it as 96.9 F. Later, the physician asks you to convert this measurement to Celsius. What is the patient's temperature in Celsius?
answer
36.1
question
What are considered to be vital signs?
answer
Blood pressure, pulse rate, body temperature, and respiration
question
A patient has an oral temperature of 100.5 F. The medical term for this condition is ?
answer
Pyrexia
question
What respiratory term means "difficulty breathing" ?
answer
Dyspena
question
When temperature is taken rectally, the thermometer should be left in the rectum for how long?
answer
5 minutes
question
The adult normal range of respiration cycles per minute is?
answer
14-20
question
The absence of respiration for periods lasting more than 15 seconds is called?
answer
Apnea
question
Blood pressure readings should routinely be started at age?
answer
5 years
question
What refers to the process of determining the circumference of an infant's head?
answer
Mesuration
question
Which area of the body is the site to detect the popliteal pulse?
answer
Knee
question
What is an instrument used to ampliy sounds?
answer
Stethoscope
question
What is included in a patient's vital signs?
answer
Respiration rate
question
What is measured when obtaining a patient's vital signs?
answer
Blood pressure, respirations, pulse, and temperature
question
Which of the following body temperature is most likely fatal? 93.4 F, 94.5 F, 95.2 F, 101.5 F, or 103.8 F.
answer
103.8 F
question
An infant's pulse is most accurately measured at what site?
answer
Over the apex of the heart
question
In a normal adult, what is the ratio of respiration to pulse rate?
answer
1:4
question
Which of the arteries is most commonly used to monitor lower limb circulation?
answer
Dorsalis pedis
question
Which method of obtaining body temperature in not appropriate for a patient with dyspena?
answer
Oral
question
Which pulse is measured when a medical assistant palpates the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line?
answer
Apical
question
The study of natural drugs is called?
answer
Pharmacognosy
question
The formula that explains the composition of the drug is known as this?
answer
Chemical name
question
Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical use are classified in?
answer
Schedule 1
question
Which route in involved in administering a drug by placing it under the patient's tongue and leaving it there until it is dissolved?
answer
Sublingual route
question
The combined effect of two drugs that is less than the effect of either drug taken alone is called?
answer
Antagonism
question
Which part of a prescription contains the patient's name, address, date, and the symbol Rx?
answer
Superscription
question
Which of the following is NOT a bacteriostatic antibiotic? Sulfonamide, Tetracycline, Penicillin, Chloramphenicol, or Clindmycin?
answer
Penicillin
question
What is a main use of rifampin?
answer
Treatment of Chlamydia
question
Which of the following is a sedative: Phenothiazine, Barbiturate, Monoamine oxidase inhibitor, Lithium, or Levodopa?
answer
Bartiurate
question
Which of the following is NOT an adrenergic drug: Epinephrine, Isoproterenol, Dopamine, Norepinephrine, or Neostigmine?
answer
Neostigmine
question
Estrogen is often prescribed to treat?
answer
Gyneocomastia
question
Cytomel is a type of?
answer
Thyroid agent
question
Codeine is an example of what kind of drug?
answer
Narcotic analgesic
question
A chemical substance that interferes with the development of bacterial organisms is ?
answer
Antibiotic
question
Cefazolin is a type of?
answer
Cephalosporin
question
A controlled drug inventory must be completed every?
answer
2 years
question
A solution of water, sugar, and a drug is called?
answer
Syrup
question
The amount of time required for 50% of a drug to be eliminated from the body is called?
answer
Half-life
question
A drug that induces birth defects in known as ?
answer
Teratogen
question
In th Physicians' Desk Reference, the index of brand names and generic names for drugs is found in which section?
answer
Pink
question
Amantadine is classified as?
answer
Antiviral
question
A medical assistant might be required to collect information about a patient's?
answer
Alcohol and recreational drug use, herbal medicines, and allergies
question
Heroin is an example of a drug from which schedule?
answer
Schedule 1
question
Pentobarbital is a type of?
answer
Barbiturate
question
What drug is prescribed for the treatment of manic episodes?
answer
Lithium
question
Drugs that increase urine secretion are?
answer
Diuretics
question
Epinephrine is a?
answer
Adrenergic
question
Fluoxetine is a type of?
answer
Antidepressant
question
Depakene is a type of?
answer
Antiepileptic
question
Butenafine is prescribed to treat?
answer
Athlete's foot
question
Lidocaine is a type of?
answer
Antiarrhythmic
question
Cromolyn is used to treat?
answer
Asthma
question
Furosemide is prescribed for?
answer
Congestive heart failure, Nephrotic syndrome,and Hypercalcemia
question
The main body part involved in the metabolism of drugs is the ?
answer
Liver
question
A substance that is released from an injured cell is called?
answer
Histamine
question
What is a mechanism involved in healing ulcers?
answer
Reduction of gastric acidity an enhancement of mucosal defenses
question
The combined contraceptive pill contains?
answer
Estrogen and Progesterone
question
What drug type is used to reduce cholesterol?
answer
Hypolipidemic
question
Which medication is used to treat a patient with hypertension?
answer
Amlodipine (Norvase)
question
Which class of drugs is most appropriate for a patient with a persistent cough?
answer
Antitussives
question
What is a common route for the administration of parenteral medications?
answer
Injection
question
A prefilled syringe is also known as a?
answer
Cartridge
question
Which muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections in an infant?
answer
Vastus lateralis
question
What is the most appropriate needle gauge for a subcutaneous injection?
answer
25
question
Which injection method should be chosen for medications that are irritating or may cause discoloration of the skin?
answer
Z-track
question
Medication applied in patch fo is called?
answer
Transdermal
question
The needle gauges usually used for intavenous injections are?
answer
20-21
question
What is the most appropriate angel of injection to ensure accurate results of a Mantoux test?
answer
15 degrees
question
A drug combined with an oil base, resulting in a semisolid preparation is an?
answer
Ointment
question
The doctor has ordered a dose of medicine to be 300mg, but the medicine is available only in 50mg tablets. What is the correct dosage?
answer
6 tablets
question
The doctor has ordered 120mg of a drug that comes only in 30mg tablets. How many tablets constitute a dose?
answer
4 tablets
question
The metric system employs a uniform scale based on powers of?
answer
10
question
A physician orders ranitidine (Zantac) 300mg. If the drug is available in 150mg tablets, how many tablets should be given to the patient?
answer
2 tablets
question
Which drug administration route is the most appropriate for a patient who has nausea and vomiting?
answer
Rectal
question
A physician prescribes 10mL of a liquid suspension for a pediatric patient. How many tespoons should the patient's parents administer?
answer
2
question
The most commonly used size of insulin syringe is the ?
answer
100 unit
question
The angle of insertion for intradermal injections is?
answer
15 degrees
question
What needle gauge is used for the Mantoux test?
answer
26-27
question
The physician asks you to convert 30 grains of medication into the metric system. What is the accurate converstion?
answer
2 grams
question
The last vaccination for rabies must be shceduled no later than how long after the frist vaccination?
answer
Four weeks
question
The medical term meaning transmission of ECG signals via radio waves is?
answer
Telemetry
question
On an ECG tracing, an indication of absence of electrical charge or activity represents?
answer
Baseline
question
A beat arising from a focus outside the heart is known as?
answer
Ectopic beat
question
What is the epicardium?
answer
Outermost layer of the heart
question
The sudden rush of blood pushed into the ventricles as a result of artrial contraction is known as?
answer
Atrial kick
question
The U wave represents?
answer
Repolarization
question
Which type of lead is lead lll?
answer
Bipolar limb lead
question
What is represented by the Q-T interval?
answer
One ventricular contraction and recovery (repolarization)
question
Leads aVR, AVL, and aVF are?
answer
Limb leads and Agumented leads
question
Successful depolarization of the atria or ventricles by an artificial pacemaker is called?
answer
Capture
question
What are causes of artifacts?
answer
Talking, outside interference, poor conduction, and improper handling of a tracing
question
Augmented leads are also called?
answer
Unipolar leads
question
The QRS complex represents?
answer
Contraction of the ventricles
question
The coronary sinus empties into the?
answer
Right atrium
question
The medical term meaning a falling or drooping of the heart is?
answer
Cardioptosis
question
What is the measurement of the atrial rate on the ECG tracing?
answer
The P waves
question
Lead II is a?
answer
Bipolar limb lead
question
The heart's conduction system is measured by what?
answer
Exercise electrocardiography
question
Which of the patient's limbs serves as an electrical ground?
answer
Right leg
question
Depolarization of fast cells is dependent on which electrolyte?
answer
Sodium
question
What device delivers a small amount of electrical energy to cause myocardial depolarization?
answer
Electronic pacemaker
question
A measurement of the actual dose of radiation is called?
answer
Rad
question
An image produced on film by a sweeping beam of radiation is known as?
answer
Scan
question
The study of the gallbladder by X-ray with an oral contrast medium is called?
answer
Cholecystography
question
Radiation therapy for deeper tumors done on an outpatient basis is known as?
answer
Teletherapy
question
The best temperature for film storage is between?
answer
60 and 70 degrees Farenheit
question
Film artifacts are?
answer
Areas that interfere with the diagnositcvalue of the radiograph
question
The frequency of electromagnetic radiation is measured in?
answer
Hertz
question
Excretory urography is also know as?
answer
Intravenous pyelography
question
A type of diagnostic radiology that uses high-frequency sound waves is?
answer
Ultrasound
question
Positions that are neither parallel nor perpendicular to the body are called?
answer
Oblique
question
The front-to-back position in radiology is known as?
answer
Anteroposterior
question
The process in which an atom may gain or lose electrons is called?
answer
Ionization
question
What are true statements in regard to radiosensitivity?
answer
Mature cells are the least radiosensitive, immature tissues are the most radiosensitive, cells that are rapidly growing are the most radiosensitive, and nonspeialized cells are the most radiosensitive
question
Before a mammogram, a woman should?
answer
Avoid wearing deodorandt
question
In preparing patients for such tests as barium enemas and CT scans, the medical assistant should?
answer
Ask them whether they are allergic to constrast media, iodine, or shellfish
question
Safety precautions are necessary because?
answer
Radiation exposure is cumulative
question
Xeroradiography is used primarily for?
answer
Mammography
question
The branch of medicine that is also a key component of rehabilitation is?
answer
Physiatry
question
The degree to which a joint is able to move is know as?
answer
Range of motion
question
Lateral deviation in the normal vertical curve of the spine is called?
answer
Scoliosis
question
What is a paralysis of the lower portion of the body?
answer
Paraplegia
question
What is the most appropriate initial treatment of a contusion?
answer
Application of ice packs
question
In thermotherapy, what temperature can cause burning?
answer
116 degrees Farenheit
question
How long does diathermy usually last?
answer
15 to 30 minutes
question
Cryotherpay is used for what purposes?
answer
To lower body temperature, reduce swelling, reduce bleeding, and reduce pus formation
question
Muscular weakness of one side of the body is called?
answer
Hemiparesis
question
Patients instructed on how to use crutches should be told to?
answer
Move crutches no more than 6 inches at a time
question
Physical therapists are allied health professionals who have completed at least?
answer
A 4-year baccalaureate training program
question
Movement allowed by joints to decrease the angle between two adjoining bones is called?
answer
Flexion
question
Correction of a fracture, dislocation, or hernia is called?
answer
Reduction
question
Electromyography is the process of electrically recording muscle?
answer
Action potentials
question
Diathermy is useful in treating all of the following conditions?
answer
Tendonitis, muscular disorders, arthritis, and bursitis
question
How far from the area being treated should a heat lamp be placed?
answer
2 to 4 feet
question
Which heat therapy uses radio waves to provid heat deep in the body?
answer
Shortwave diathermy
question
A way of assessing the patient's walking behavior is called?
answer
Gait testing
question
When using a chemical hot pack in heat therapy, you should?
answer
Knead the pad and then cover it with cloth before placing it on the patient
question
How high should the top of a cane be?
answer
Level with the top of the femur
question
What percentage of the body is involved in a burn that covers one arm and the head of an adult?
answer
18%
question
The Good Samaritan law explicitly allows medical assistants to?
answer
Administer first aid within the scope of their competence
question
In emergency childbirth, at what point should the umbilical cord be tied and cut?
answer
When the infant starts breathing
question
To treat frostbite, a medical assistant can?
answer
Place warm clothing and blankets around the affected area
question
What are symptoms of heat-stroke?
answer
The pulse is rapid, the skin is hot and dry, and the patient feels weak
question
When treating a second-degree burn, a medical assistant should?
answer
Immerse the burned area in cold water
question
When Bill Williams scraped his skin, he most likely got a?
answer
Abrasion
question
Irreversible brain damage can be caused by tissue anoxia lasting?
answer
More than 6 minutes
question
What is a correct way to treat a snakebite?
answer
Immobilize the bitten area and wash it with soap and water
question
If a patient is bleeding from the lower arm and direct pressure and elevation do not stop the bleeding, where should pressure be applied?
answer
Brachial artery
question
One possible cause of stroke is?
answer
Occlusion in the brain by a thrombus
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White, waxy, or grayish yellow skin that also feels crusty and softness in tissue beneath the skin could indicate?
answer
Frostbite
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What is a possible treatment of syncope?
answer
Having the patient lower their head between the legs, laying the patient flat on the patient's back with the feet slightly elevated,and loosening tight clothing and applying a cold cloth to the patient's face
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The Heimlich maneuver is used for?
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Choking
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Anaphylactic shock occurs following?
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Allergic reaction
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What should NOT be done by a patient with a concussion?
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Take aspirin
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The most severe and major complication for burn victims is?
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Infection
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What should NOT be done when a patient complains of abdominal pain?
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Apply heat to the patient's abdomen
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Closed wounds are called?
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Bruises or contusions
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When administering CPR, how many compressions should you do?
answer
60 in 1 minute
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According to Good Samaritan laws,
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Emergency care is permitted when it is within the scope of competence of the person administering
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Chest pain might indicate?
answer
Myocardial infarction and Cocaine use
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When you suspect neck injury, what action should you take to open the patient's airway before administering rescue breathing?
answer
Put your fingers behind the jawbone just below the ear and push the jaw forward
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Treat hypoglycemia by?
answer
Administering glucose
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What is the best location to check the pulse of a 48-year-old male who is unconscious and not breathing?
answer
At the carotid artery of the neck
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An adult is in sudden cardia arrest. What is the victims best chance of survival?
answer
Immediate CPR and defibrillation within no more than 3 to 5 minutes
question
Describe the best way to deliver rescue breaths with a pocket mask, but without additional oxygen?
answer
Provide approximately the same volume as you would with mouth-to-mouth ventilation (with a volume sufficient to make the chest rise), and deliver the breaths over 2 seconds
question
You are babysitting you infant nephew. You are alone and find the infant unresponsive. What is the best course of action?
answer
Begin the ABCs of CPR and then phone 911 after 1 minute of rescue support
question
A 26-year-old woman has swallowed an overdose of prescribed sleeping pills. She is now unresponsive. When you open her airway, you find that she is gasping for breath and is not breathing normally at all. Using a pocket mask, you provide 2 rescue breaths and check for signs of circulation, including her pulse, which is rapid but weak. What should you do next?
answer
Provide rescue breathing at a rate of one breath every 5 seconds
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Best describe the problems that are most commonly present in children or infants whose condition deteriorates to cardiac arrest?
answer
Most cardiac arrests in children are preceded by severe airway and breathing problems, or shock
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You are providing rescue breathing to an unresponsive, nonbreathing child who shows signs of circulation. How often should you provide rescue breaths for this child?
answer
Once every 3 seconds (20 breaths per minute)
question
You are alone, providing CPR for a 3-year-old child. Best describe the correct technique you should follow in performing chest compressions on this child?
answer
Use the heel of one hand
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What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations for child or infant CPR?
answer
5 to 1
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What is an appropriate site for capillary blood collection?
answer
Heel and earlobe
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Which cells play a vital role in internal respiration?
answer
Erythrocytes
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What is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on a patient's arm?
answer
1 minute
question
Dysuria is?
answer
Painful or difficult urination
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Which device might be used to collect blood from fragile veins?
answer
A butterfly needle
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A blue stopper indicates that a collection tube ?
answer
Contains sodium citrate
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To test for substances that are sporadically released into urine, a physician might order which type of urine specimen?
answer
24-hour
question
To follow Universal Precautions in phlebotomy, you should?
answer
Wash your hands and wear examination gloves
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A medical assistant or a phlebotomist should NOT attempt to obtain blood from any patient more than?
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Two times
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If a urinalysis cannot be performed within 30 minutes after collection, the urine specimen must be stored?
answer
In a refrigerator
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Specific gravity may be measured by all of these methods?
answer
Dipstick, Urinometer, Refractometer, and Reagent strip
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The quality control log?
answer
Shows when the testing equipment was last calibrated
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Which stain is specific to blood?
answer
Wright's
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The color code for an evacuation tube that does NOT contain an additive is?
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Red
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A creatine kinase test is done to help diagnose which condition?
answer
Muscular dystrophies and heart disease
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Describe a centrifuge?
answer
Machine used to separate particles
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An erythrocyte sedimentation rate test might be used to?
answer
Determine sickle cell anemia or inflammation and infection
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How should the patient's arm be positioned when drawing blood in phlebotomy?
answer
Slightly downward
question
What is used in direct examination of a specimen?
answer
Wet mount
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The venipuncture site most commonly used on adults is the ?
answer
Median cubital vein
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After preparing a KOH mount,?
answer
Let the specimen sit at room temperature
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Before inoculating a culture plate, you should?
answer
Label it on the bottom, agar side
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The first step in preparing a culture plate is to?
answer
Label it
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Albumin found in urine might indicate?
answer
Renal disease, heart failure, hypertension, and fever
question
Urine that is too acidic could indicate?
answer
Gout
question
If a drop of blood does not form after capillary puncture, what should be done?
answer
Apply steady pressure
question
What causes would give plasma or serum a milky appearance?
answer
Hyperlipdemia
question
What is used in preparing a blood smear slide?
answer
Spreader slide
question
Sensitivity testing is used to determine?
answer
A pathogen's susceptibility to antibiotics
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A diaper rash on a pediatric patient may indicate?
answer
Renal dysfunction
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The amylase test is used for disorders related to the ?
answer
Pancreas
question
A physician may order a stool culture if he or she suspects?
answer
Cancer, protozoal infection, bacterial infection, and colitis
question
Fasting specimens are preferred for which test?
answer
Triglycerides
question
The anticoagulant EDTA is most appropriate for a blood specimen that has been collected for?
answer
Complete blood counts
question
The anticoagulant EDTA is most appropriate for a blood specimen that has been collected for?
answer
Complete blood counts
