CJC_Final Exam Review – Flashcards

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Which of the following terms means procedural fairness?
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Due process
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Which of the following terms is defined as the principle of fairness or the ideal of moral equity?
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Justice
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Public-order advocates support the interests of society over individual rights.
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True
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Criminology is the scientific study of the causes and prevention of crime and the rehabilitation and punishment of offenders
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True
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In the mid-1980s, the sale and use of illicit drugs was at an all-time low.
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False
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The crime epidemic of 1850-1880 was related to social upheaval caused by large- scale immigration and the Civil War.
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True
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The first ten amendments of the United States Constitution are collectively known as the Bill of Rights.
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True
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When an offender receives a _____ sentence, they serve one sentence after another is completed.
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consecutive
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Civil justice concerns itself with fairness in relationships among citizens, government agencies, and businesses in private matters.
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True
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The ultimate goal of the justice system is to establish balance between _____.
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crime control and due process
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The dual goals of crime control and due process are often assumed to be opposing goals.
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True
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Which model assumes that the system's subcomponents work together harmoniously to achieve the social product we call justice?
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consensus model
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Which stage of the criminal justice process involves taking pictures and fingerprints of the suspect?
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Booking
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Which model emphasizes individual rights?
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due-process model
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Which of the following advocates would support the protection of personal freedoms and civil rights?
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individual-rights advocates
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The preliminary hearing is used to decide whether _____.
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there are reasonable grounds to believe the defendant committed the crime
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Individual-rights advocates primarily seek to protect personal freedoms and civil rights within the society, and especially within the criminal justice process.
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True
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The due process clause of the United States Constitution is specifically stated in which amendment?
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Fifth
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The adjudication period involves a variety of sentences that can be imposed on a defendant.
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False
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Contemporary multiculturalism and social diversity draw attention to racial, ethnic, subcultural, generational, faith, economic, and gender lines.
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True
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The ________ is based on crimes reported to police.
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Uniform Crime Reports
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Each of the following are UCR/NIBRS property crime offenses, EXCEPT ________.
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robbery
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The weapons used most often to commit murder are ________.
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firearms
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An example of a violent crime is _____.
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robbery
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All of the following crimes are UCR/NIBRS Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________.
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drug use
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Most hate crimes are motivated by _____.
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racial hatred
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Which is not a type of larceny?
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armed robbery
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Clearances are based primarily on ________.
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arrests
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One of the crimes the National Crime Victimization Survey includes information about is _____.
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robbery
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An incident-based reporting system that collects detailed data on every single crime occurrence is called a ________.
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NIBRS
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All of the following are Part I offenses, EXCEPT ________.
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fraud
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A criminal offense committed against a person, property, or society that is motivated, in whole or in part, by the offender's bias against a race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, or ethnicity/national origin is called ________.
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hate crime
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What type of terrorism, according to the 1996 RAND report, is distinguished by how terrorist groups organize and by how they use high technology?
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cyberterrorism
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A murderer who kills at two or more locations with almost no time break between murders is a ________.
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spree killer
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Which of the following agencies is responsible for compiling the NCVS?
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Bureau of Justice Statistics (BJS)
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Each of the following offenses falls under the category of larceny, EXCEPT ________.
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robbery
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UCR/NIBRS terminology may differ from ________ definitions of crime.
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statutory
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The killing of four or more victims at one location within one event is termed _____.
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mass murder
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The _____ is based on victims' reports rather than on police reports.
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National Crime Victimization Survey
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Any willful or malicious burning or attempt to burn, with or without intent to defraud, a dwelling house, public building, motor vehicle or aircraft, personal property of another, and so on is termed as ________.
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arson
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What is the most common form of larceny?
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stealing motor vehicle parts
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Which major crime is most frequently reported to the police according to the UCR/NIBRS?
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larceny-theft
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Which of the following data sources asks respondents to reveal an illegal activity in which they have been involved?
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offender self-reports
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The weapons most often used to commit murder are _____.
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firearms
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Which of the following would not be categorized as a felony?
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simple assault
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Which of the following violations is not a misdemeanor?
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robbery
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Which of the following is considered as "law on the books?"
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statutory
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The principle of recognizing previous decisions as precedents to guide future deliberations is called _____.
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stare decisis
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Most crimes have three elements. They are ______, _________, and _______.
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the concurrence of act and intent, actus reus, mens rea
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Our legal system generally does not recognize which of the following broad categories of defenses?
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pleadings
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Which of the following refers to a traditional body of unwritten legal precedents created from everyday social customs, rules, and practices?
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common law
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_____ is the philosophy of law.
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Jurisprudence
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This is a verdict equivalent to a finding of guilty that establishes the defendant, although mentally ill, was in sufficient possession of his or her facilities to be morally blameworthy for his or her acts.
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guilty but mentally ill
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What term expresses the belief that a society must be governed by established principles to maintain order?
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rule of law
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Which of the following types of law is based on the assumption that acts injure not just individuals but society as a whole?
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criminal law
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How many levels or types of mens rea can be distinguished?
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four
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An alibi defense is best supported by _____.
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witnesses and documentation
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Which of the following is a justification defense?
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self-defense
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Which of the following elements of crime means guilty mind?
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mens rea
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Roles within police agencies generally fall into one of two categories: _____ operations.
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line or staff
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Which of the following is not a major level of law enforcement?
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district
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According to the 2001 Status of Women in Policing Survey, about what percentage of U.S. law enforcement officers is female?
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12.7%
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Which policing strategy reorganizes conventional patrol strategies into integrated and versatile police teams assigned to a fixed district?
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team policing
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Attempts to police the early Western frontier can be characterized as _____.
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vigilantism
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_____ uses research into everyday policing procedures to evaluate current policing practices and guide future policing decisions.
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evidence-based policing
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Which of the following is typically not a function of a sheriff's department?
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appoint a local coroner
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Alice Stebbins Wells is considered _____.
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the first police woman in the world
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Which agency would not be encompassed by the term local police?
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state police
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Semipermanent assignment of officers to particular neighborhoods is called _____.
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team policing
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The Kansas City Preventative Patrol Experiment established that _____.
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preventative patrol does not affect citizen fear of crime
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Which law enforcement official is responsible for serving court papers, maintaining security within courtrooms, and running the county jail?
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sheriff
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Which strategy is designed to increase the productivity of patrol officers through the application of scientific analysis and evaluation of patrol techniques?
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directed patrol
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Preventative patrol, routine incident response, emergency response, criminal investigations, problem solving, and support services _____ strategies.
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operational
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What is considered the backbone of police work?
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patrol
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_____ is the use of best available research on the outcomes of police work to implement guidelines and evaluate agencies, units, and officers.
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Evidence-based policing
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The FBI employs about _____ special agents.
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13,500
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The operational strategy known as _____ seeks to reduce chronic offending in the community.
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problem solving
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The nation's largest law enforcement agency is in _____.
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New York
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Which state created the first modern state police agency?
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Pennsylvania
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To lawfully seize evidence _____, officers must have a legal right to be in the viewing area and must have cause to believe that the evidence is somehow associated with criminal activity.
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in plain view
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A writ of certiorari _____.
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allows appellate courts to review the record of a lower court case
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The courts have supported drug testing of police officers based on _____ that drug abuse is occurring.
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a reasonable suspicion
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Which of the following is not a justification for emergency warrantless searches?
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danger to property
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Concerning informants, which of the following is part of the test established in Aguilar v. Texas?
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There is reasonable belief that the informant is reliable.
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To elicit a confession, police departments cannot hire professionals skilled in the art of psychological manipulation because of the decision in the case of _____.
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Leyra v. Denno
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In Illinois v. Gates the Court held that _____ exists when "there is a fair probability that contraband or evidence of a crime will be found in a particular place."
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probable cause
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Historically, officers were allowed to use deadly force to prevent the escape of a suspected felon. This was known as the _____.
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Fleeing Felon Rule
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Unreasonable searches and seizures are prohibited by the _____.
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Fourth Amendment
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Chimel v. California established _____.
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that officers can search the person arrested and the area under that person's "immediate control" incident to an arrest
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The information gathering activity of police officers that involves the direct questioning of suspects.
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interrogation
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A legal principle that excludes any evidence obtained as a result of an illegal search or seizure is known as___________.
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fruit of the poisoned tree doctrine
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In _____, the U.S. Supreme Court stated that considerations of public safety can override and negate the need for rights advisement prior to limited questioning.
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New York v. Quarles
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Whether the crime involves attacks against computer systems or the information they contain or more traditional offenses like murder, money laundering, trafficking, or fraud, _____ evidence is increasingly important.
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electronic
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What division of a police department investigates charges that officers are guilty of wrong doing?
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internal affairs
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How many regional intermediate appellate courts are there in the federal system?
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12
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The U.S. Supreme Court case United States v. Bagley compels the prosecution to disclose any evidence that the _____ requests.
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defense
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Which work group member has the responsibility of demonstrating to a jury that a defendant is guilty beyond a reasonable doubt?
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the prosecutor
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The U.S. Supreme Court case Gideon v. Wainwright established the right to counsel for indigent defendants in _____ felony court proceedings.
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state
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The power of a court to evaluate actions and decisions made by other agencies of government is _____.
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the power of judicial review
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Case-flow analysis, juror management, and budget management are all duties typical of a _____.
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local court administrator
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An arraignment, a bail hearing, and a trial for a felony offense are all conducted at which tier of a state court system?
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trial court of general jurisdiction
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Who is responsible for summoning members of the public for jury duty and subpoenaing witnesses for the prosecution and the defense?
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the clerk of court
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There is (are) _____ district court(s) in the federal court system.
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94
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Courts that have the authority to review a decision made by a lower court are said to have _____.
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appellate jurisdiction
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On appeal, when a trial court of general jurisdiction offers a new trial instead of a review of the lower court's decision, it is giving a _____.
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trial de novo
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In which court would a felony trial be held in the federal court system?
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District Court
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Which statement is false regarding the role of the judge in the courtroom work group?
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The judge is responsible for presenting the state's case against the defendant.
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Who keeps order in the courtroom and announces the judge's entry to the courtroom?
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the bailiff
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McNabb v. U.S. formally established that a defendant being held in custody has a right to appear in court before a magistrate _____.
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without unnecessary delay
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In 2005 the U.S. Supreme Court in the case of Roper v. Simmons held that anyone who committed their crime when younger than 18 could not be sentenced _____.
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to death
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What type of plea is most similar to a guilty plea?
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nolo contendere
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About what percentage of state-level criminal defendants are released pending the outcome of their case?
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62
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Which of the following is one of the more rational sentencing goals?
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deterrence
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The 1996 Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act focuses on _____.
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federal appeals by death row inmates
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When a defendant "stands mute" at her arraignment, she is considered to have entered a _____.
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not-guilty plea
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Americans are less likely to support the death penalty _____.
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if they believe innocent people have been put to death
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A sentence of 8 to 25 years is an example of a( n ) _____.
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indeterminate sentence
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Pretrial publicity about a case creates problems for the justice system because _____.
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it becomes difficult to find jurors who have not already formed an opinion about the case
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Weapons, tire tracks, and fingerprints are what type of evidence?
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real evidence
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Which sentencing goal is closely associated with the phrase "an eye for an eye?"
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retribution
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Which of the following is an argument in favor of indeterminate sentencing?
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Judicial discretion allows judges to tailor the sentence to the defendant.
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Bail serves two purposes. One is to help ensure the reappearance of the accused at trial. The other is _____.
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to prevent people who have not been convicted from suffering imprisonment unnecessarily
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Under the 2005 U.S. Supreme Court cases of U.S. v. Booker and U.S. v. Fanfan the Federal sentencing guidelines can no longer be considered _____.
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mandatory
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Separating offenders from the community furthers which sentencing goal?
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incapacitance
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Which sentencing goal stressed vengeance?
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retribution
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The federal Speedy Trial Act allows for the dismissal of charges when the prosecution does not seek indictment within _____ days of arrest, or when a trial does not begin within 70 days after indictment.
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30
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What is the earliest known rationale for punishment?
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retribution
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The bail decision is made at what stage of the court process?
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first appearance
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The majority of offenders housed in federal institutions have been convicted of _____.
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drug offenses
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A product of inmate labor produced under the state-use system would include _____.
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license plates
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Rhodes v. Chapman held that overcrowding in prisons is not by itself _____.
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cruel and unusual punishment
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Federal Prison Industries, responsible for prison labor opportunities in the federal prison system, is also called _____.
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UNICOR
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The _____ is a control mechanism used by correctional administrators at regular intervals throughout the day.
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count
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Historically, _____ was the most widely used type of physical punishment.
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flogging
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What early correctional leader developed a system of marks through which prisoners could earn credits to buy their freedom?
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Captain Alexander Maconochie
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_____ capacity refers to the inmate population the institution was originally built to handle.
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Design
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Who created the Irish system of imprisonment?
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Sir Walter Crofton
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A significant factor that contributes to variation in incarceration rates between states is each state's _____.
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violent crime rate
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A state or federal confinement facility that has custodial authority over adults sentenced to confinement is known as________.
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prison
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The expression "an eye for an eye" is an example of lex talionis, the _____.
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law of retaliation
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In the Federal Bureau of Prisons, medium security institutions are called _____.
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federal correctional institutions
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What type of inmate labor system allows private businesses to pay to use inmate labor?
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contract system
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During the early decades of the twentieth century, there was opposition to prison industries primarily because they _____.
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threatened the jobs of workers
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Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve time in a local jail before a period of supervised probation?
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split sentence
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Bob is sentenced to probation. The conditions of his probation include: maintain employment, possess no firearms, obey all laws, and meet with his probation officer biweekly. These are _____ conditions that apply to all probationers in the jurisdiction where he was sentenced.
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general
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Parole is a correctional strategy with the primary purpose of _____.
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returning offenders gradually to productive lives
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Morrissey v. Brewer provides procedural safeguards to parolees at _____ hearings.
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revocation
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The _____ model of prison culture suggests that inmates bring values, roles, and behavior patterns from the outside world.
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importation
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Which type of sentence requires that offenders serve weekends in jail and receive probation supervision during the week?
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mixed sentence
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Which of the following statements about probation is false?
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Convicted murderers and rapists cannot be sentenced to probation.
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Prison language is also called _____.
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prison argot
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Discretionary parole is granted by _____.
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a parole board
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The socialization of inmates into the prison subculture is called _____.
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prisonization
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Who makes the release decision when an offender is sentenced to shock parole?
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the parole board
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Which of the following sentences is a prisoner reentry strategy?
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parole
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Researchers have described one type of prisoner who takes advantage of the positive experiences the prison has to offer as _____.
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an opportunist
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Probation is ordered by the _____.
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court
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Which of the following is not an advantage of using probation instead of imprisonment?
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increased risk to the community
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Ex Parte Crouse, built around the doctrine of parens patriae, clarified the power states had _____.
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in committing children to institutions
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_____ indicates that the juvenile court is the only court with statutory authority to deal with children for specific infractions.
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Exclusive jurisdiction
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In juvenile court, a petition is similar to a _____ in adult court.
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criminal complaint
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Which of the following categories of children "violate laws written only for children?"
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status offenders
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McKeiver v. Pennsylvania held that juveniles do not have the constitutional right to _____.
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a jury trial
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Children who are abandoned in violation of the law are considered _____.
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dependent children
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If a juvenile is charged with a status offense, what is the lowest evidentiary standard that can be used by the judge to support the finding?
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preponderance of the evidence
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Breed v. Jones severely restricted the conditions under which transfers from _____ may occur.
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juvenile to adult court
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What category of children in the juvenile justice system includes children who are mistreated emotionally?
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abused children
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What term is applied to juvenile actions or conduct in violation of criminal law?
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delinquency
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