Chapter 19 Practice Test Questions – Flashcards

What are the major components of the cardiovascular system? red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets veins, arteries, and capillaries lymph, plasma, and hemoglobin blood, heart, and blood vessels

Which of the following is NOT a function of the blood? regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids defense against pathogens transportation of gases, nutrients, hormones, and wastes All of the listed responses are functions of the blood.

he formed elements of the blood consist of __________. antibodies, metalloproteins, and lipoproteins red and white blood cells and platelets albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes

Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma? organic wastes dissolved proteins elastic fibers antibodies

What are the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens? albumins and globulins hormones and enzymes white blood cells and antibodies red blood cells and platelets

To check the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via __________. puncturing the tip of a finger arterial puncture venipuncture Any of the listed responses would be correct.

Blood temperature is roughly _____°C, and the blood pH averages _____. 32°C; 7.0 0°C; 6.8 98°C; 7.8 38°C; 7.4

Which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4? apolipoproteins antibodies albumins fibrinogens

In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma? albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes None of the listed responses is correct.

Circulating mature RBCs lack __________. ribosomes nuclei mitochondria All of the listed responses are correct.

The primary function of a mature red blood cell is which of the following? transport of respiratory gases delivery of enzymes to target tissues defense against toxins and pathogens All of the listed responses are correct.

Which part of the hemoglobin molecule directly interacts with oxygen? the sodium ion the porphyrin globin the iron ion

Coloration of urinary and digestive wastes is the result of the presence of which products from the breakdown of red blood cells? iron carbon dioxide urobilins and stercobilins All of the listed responses are correct.

The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein-iron complexes __________. transferrin and porphyrin ferritin and hemosiderin urobilin and stercobilin biliverdin and bilirubin

During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to __________. biliverdin transferrin urobilin ferritin

What is the primary site of erythropoiesis in the adult? heart kidney liver bone marrow

Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to __________. high urine volumes excessive amounts of radiation low oxygen concentrations extremes of temperature

Agglutinogens are contained (on, in) the __________, whereas the agglutinins are found (on, in) the __________. mitochondria; nucleus of the RBC nucleus of the RBC; mitochondria cell membrane of the RBC; plasma plasma; cell membrane of the RBC

If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating __________ that will attack __________ erythrocytes. anti-A agglutinogens; type A anti-B agglutinins; type B anti-A agglutinins; type A anti-A agglutinins; type B

Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that becomes a tissue macrophage after approximately 24 hours in circulation? lymphocyte basophil eosinophil monocyte neutrophil

Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents such as hydrogen peroxide? neutrophil basophil eosinophil lymphocyte

Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow responsible for __________. engulfing invading bacteria specific immune responses formation of platelets production of scar tissue in an injured area

The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by __________. interleukin-6 thrombopoietin multi-CSF All of the listed responses are correct.

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning T cells and B cells? B and T cells are involved in the specific immune response. B cells and T cells are both types of lymphocytes. T cells complete their maturation process in the thymus. B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.

The process of hemostasis includes five phases. What is the correct order of the phases as they occur after injury? vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) platelet, vascular, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis) coagulation, vascular, platelet, clot destruction (fibrinolysis), clot retraction vascular, coagulation, platelet, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)

Because the concentration of dissolved gases is different between the plasma and the tissue fluid __________. CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and O2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction both O2 and CO2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid None of the listed responses is correct.

If blood comprises 7 percent of the body weight in kilograms, how many liters of blood would there be in an individual who weighs 85 kg? 5.25 5.95 6.25 6.95

How is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood? The liver synthesizes immunoglobulins and protein hormones. The liver serves as a filter for plasma proteins and pathogens. The liver is the primary source of plasma proteins. The proteins synthesized by the liver are filtered out of the blood by the kidneys

When plasma O2 concentrations are falling, the rising plasma CO2 binds to the __________ of the hemoglobin molecule. heme alpha and beta chains porphyrin None of the listed responses is correct.

Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the __________. small and large intestine tears skin kidney

Signs of iron deficiency anemia include __________. increase in hematocrit, decrease in hemoglobin, and decrease in O2-carrying capacity increase in hematocrit, hemoglobin, and O2-carrying capacity decrease in hematocrit, hemoglobin content, and O2-carrying capacity decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin, and increase in O2-carrying capacity

On average, 1 microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes. 25 million 1013 5.2 million 260 million

The process in which packed RBCs that were previously removed are reintroduced before an athletic event is called __________. a cross-reaction EPO doping blood doping None of the listed responses is correct.

Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in __________. ribosomes mitochondria the nucleus Mature red blood cells cannot synthesize proteins

if agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the result? The patient becomes comatose. No agglutination occurs. A cross-reaction occurs. The patient dies.

What is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body? hemocytoblast myeloblast megakaryocyte None of the listed responses is correct.

Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature __________. leukocytes erythrocytes platelets lymphocytes

In which pregnancy is an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis? first pregnancy second or later pregnancies all pregnancies no pregnancy

In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child, why are there usually NO symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis? The immune system of first child develops faster than that of the second or later children. Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth. Antibodies from the mother's blood cannot cross over to the child. None of the listed responses is correct..

Which of the following occurs in hemolytic disease of the newborn? The newborn's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and cause the newborn's RBCs to degenerate. The mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells. The mother's agglutinogens destroy her own RBCs, causing deoxygenation of the newborn. All of the listed responses are correct.

The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during __________. an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection tissue degeneration or cellular deterioration an injury to a tissue or a bacterial infection All of the listed responses are correct.

A typical microliter of blood contains __________ leukocytes. 1000-2000 3000-5000 5000-10,000 10,000-12,000

Under "normal" conditions, neutrophils comprise __________ of the circulatory white blood cells. 10-20 percent 20-40 percent 50-70 percent 85-95 percent

Which of the following is a notable feature of leukemia? crescent-shaped erythrocytes absence of certain blood clotting factors excessive numbers of white blood cells yellowing of the eyes and skin

Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT __________. basophils eosinophils neutrophils lymphocytes

Clot destruction involves a process that begins with __________. activation of the proenzyme fibrinogen, which initiates the production of fibrin activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin activation of prothrombin, which initiates the production of thrombin activation of Ca2+ to produce tissue plasmin

The major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to __________. a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system the body becoming insensitive to situations that would necessitate the clotting mechanism an overactive clotting system, which might necessitate thinning of the blood All of the listed responses are correct.

A vitamin B12 deficiency results in the type of anemia known as __________. sickle cell anemia hemorrhagic anemia aplastic anemia pernicious anemia

A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as __________. thalassemia sickle cell anemia leukemia leukopenia

Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells? a change in diet, from deep-fried comfort foods to healthy organic meals increased oxygen concentration in the atmospheric air hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level a decrease in the number of existing white blood cells