ch 23 patho – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
Constitutional delay of puberty seldom requires treatment, unless the delay is causing psychosocial problems
answer
true
question
Weight loss aggravates symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome, whereas weight gain may ameliorate the symptoms
answer
False, weight gain aggravates, weight loss ameliorate
question
A low-fat, vegetarian diet helps relieve symptoms of premenstrual syndrome
answer
true
question
The acidic nature of vaginal secretions during the reproductive years provides protection against a variety of sexually transmitted pathogens
answer
true
question
Prevention of constipation and treatment of chronic cough may help prevent uterine prolapse
answer
true
question
In a woman with endometriosis, endometrial tissue that responds to hormonal changes of the menstrual cycle may be found in the lungs
answer
true
question
With early diagnosis and treatment of cervical cancer, prognosis is excellent
answer
true
question
Taking oral contraceptives increases the risk for ovarian and endometrial cancers.
answer
false
question
The risk of testicular cancer is 35 to 50 times greater for men with cryptorchidism than for the general male population
answer
true
question
Most epithelial ovarian cancers arise from a single cell and involve the loss of tumor suppressor genes and activation of oncogenes
answer
true
question
1. In 95% of cases of delayed puberty the problem is caused by: a. disruption in the hypothalamus. b. disruption of the pituitary. c. deficit in estrogen or testosterone. d. physiological hormonal delays
answer
physiological hormonal delays
question
2. The first sign of puberty in girls is: a. thelarche. b. growth of pubic hair. c. menstruation. d. vaginal discharge
answer
thelarche
question
3. The first sign of puberty in boys is: a. thickening of the scrotal skin. b. growth of pubic hair. c. enlargement of the testes. d. change in voice.
answer
enlargement of the testes.
question
4. _____ precocious puberty causes the child to develop some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex. a. Mixed b. Incomplete c. Isosexual d. Homosexual
answer
Mixed
question
5. Dysmenorrhea is caused by the release of the chemical mediator: a. leukotrienes. b. prostaglandins. c. bradykinin. d. C-reactive protein.
answer
prostaglandins
question
6. Considering the pathophysiology of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment II? a. Ovary b. Anterior pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Vagina
answer
Ovary
question
7. Considering the pathophysiology of primary amenorrhea, what anatomic structure is involved in compartment IV? a. Vagina b. Hypothalamus c. Ovary d. Anterior pituitary
answer
Hypothalamus
question
8. The most common cause of cycle irregularities is a result of: a. disorders within the endometrium. b. obstruction of the fallopian tubes. c. pregnancy. d. failure to ovulate.
answer
failure to ovulate.
question
9. The clinical manifestations of a woman include the following: irregular or heavy bleeding, passage of large clots, and depletion of iron stores. This person is experiencing: a. premenstrual syndrome. b. dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB). c. polycystic ovary syndrome. d. primary dysmenorrhea.
answer
dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB)
question
10. DUB secondary to ovarian dysfunction is abnormal uterine bleeding resulting from: a. endometriosis. b. progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess. c. sexually transmitted infections. d. congenital abnormalities in the uterine structure.
answer
progesterone deficiency or relative estrogen excess.
question
11. The pathogenesis of polycystic ovarian syndrome is described as: a. a decrease in leptin levels that reduces the hypothalamic pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone, which reduces the number of follicles that mature. b. a disorder in the anterior pituitary that increases the follicle-stimulating hormone, which reduces the luteinizing hormone released. c. excessive androgens that affect follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis, enabling follicles, which normally disintegrate to survive. d. testosterone that stimulates androgen secretion by the ovarian stroma and reduces sex hormone-binding globulin indirectly.
answer
excessive androgens that affect follicular decline by suppressing apoptosis, enabling follicles, which normally disintegrate to survive
question
12. The leading cause of infertility is: a. pelvic inflammatory disease. b. endometriosis. c. salpingitis. d. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
answer
polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
question
13. Considering the mediating factors of PMS, which drug is used to treat it? a. NSAIDs b. Estrogens c. SSRIs d. Progestins
answer
SSRIs
question
14. Which description of the pathogenesis of PID is false? a. It develops when pathogenic microbes ascend from an infected cervix along the endometrial tissue to infect the uterus and adnexa. b. It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity. c. It spreads by way of lymphatics with parametrial dissemination of infection into the pelvis. d. It develops by the adherence of sexually transmitted bacteria to sperm that travel through the genital tract.
answer
It develops from virally infected endometrial cells that move through the fallopian tubes and empty into the pelvic cavity.
question
15. On assessment a nurse identifies a woman's uterus protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen. The nurse documents this finding as a Grade _____ uterine prolapse. a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
answer
2
question
16. _____ is the descent of the bladder and the anterior vaginal wall into the vaginal wall. a. Rectocele b. Vaginocele c. Cystocele d. Enterocele
answer
Cystocele
question
17. A _____ cyst develops when an ovarian follicle is stimulated, but no dominant follicle develops and completes the maturity process. a. follicular b. corpus luteal c. corpus albicans d. benign ovarian
answer
benign ovarian
question
18. _____ are benign uterine tumors that develop from smooth muscle cells in the myometrium and are commonly called uterine fibroids. a. Endometrial polyps b. Myometrial polyps c. Leiomyomas d. Myometriomas
answer
Leiomyomas
question
19. The size of benign uterine tumors is thought to be due to the influence of which hormone? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Luteinizing hormone d. Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
answer
a. Progesterone b. Estrogen
question
20. What is a theory of causation for endometriosis? a. Obstruction within the fallopian tubes prevents the endometrial tissue from adhering to the lining of the uterus. b. Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c. Inflammation of the endometrial tissue develops after recurrent sexually transmitted diseases. d. Endometrial tissue lies dormant in the uterus until the ovaries produce sufficient hormone to stimulate its growth.
answer
Endometrial tissue passes through the fallopian tubes and into the peritoneal cavity and remains responsive to hormones. c.
question
21. The common clinical manifestations of endometriosis include: a. back and flank pain. b. infertility and dysmenorrhea. c. dysuria and absent menstrual flow. d. painless, vaginal bleeding between menstrual periods.
answer
infertility and dysmenorrhea.
question
22. Which virus is a necessary precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial carcinoma (CIN) and cervical cancer? a. Human papillomavirus (HPV) b. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) c. Herpes simplex II virus (HSV) d. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
answer
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
question
23. What description is given when all or most of the cervical epithelium shows cellular features of carcinoma, but underlying tissue is not affected? a. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) b. Cervical dysplasia c. Cervical carcinoma in situ d. Invasive carcinoma of the cervix
answer
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)
question
24. What process occurs when columnar epithelium is replaced by squamous epithelium in the transformation zone? a. Dysplasia b. Aplasia c. Metaplasia d. Epithelplasia
answer
Metaplasia
question
25. Which of the following factors increases the risk for ovarian cancer after the age of 40? a. Use of fertility drugs b. Oral contraceptive use c. Multiple pregnancies d. Prolonged lactation
answer
Use of fertility drug
question
26. Infertility is defined as inability to conceive after _____ months of unprotected intercourse. a. 6 b. 12 c. 18 d. 24
answer
12
question
27. _____ is a condition in which the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis. a. Paraphimosis b. Priapism c. Prephimosis d. Phimosis
answer
Phimosis
question
28. _____ is a fibrotic condition that causes lateral curvature of the penis during erection, which is associated with a local vasculitis-like inflammatory reaction and decreased tissue oxygenation. a. Phimosis b. Lateral phimosis c. Lateral paraphimosis d. Peyronie disease
answer
Peyronie disease
question
29. _____ is inflammation of the glans penis. a. Glanitis b. Balanitis c. Priapism d. Hydrocelitis
answer
Balanitis
question
Cryptorchidism can be defined as: a normal developmental state of the testes. b. an abnormal state in which there is overdevelopment of the testes. c. the lack of scrotum. d. testicular maldescent
answer
testicular maldescent
question
31. _____ is the most common infectious cause of orchitis and usually affects postpubertal males. a. Herpes b. Escherichia coli c. Mumps d. Cytomegalovirus
answer
Mumps
question
32. Which cancer is a germ cell tumor arising from the male gamete? a. Penile b. Testicular c. Prostate d. Epididymal
answer
Testicular
question
33. Which are clinical manifestations of testicular cancer? a. Firm, nontender testicular mass b. Painful, mobile, firm testicular mass c. Painful fluid-filled testicular mass d. Soft, nontender testicular mass
answer
Firm, nontender testicular mass
question
34. How does the epididymis become infected? a. The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vas deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder. b. The pathogenic microorganisms are attached to sperm that travel through the genital tract. c. The pathogenic microorganisms from the tunica vaginalis are transported to the epididymis
answer
The pathogenic microorganisms ascend the vas deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder.
question
35. Symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia are a result of: a. infection of the prostate. b. obstruction of the urethra. c. ischemia of the urethra. d. compression of the urethra
answer
compression of the urethra
question
36. Which infection has clinical manifestations of sudden onset of malaise, low back pain, and perineal pain with high fever and chills, dysuria, nocturia, and urinary retention? a. Orchitis b. Balanitis c. Epididymitis d. Bacterial prostatitis
answer
Bacterial prostatitis
question
37. Which dietary factor is not a risk factor for prostate cancer? a. High-fat diet b. High-protein diet c. High-fiber diet d. High-calcium diet
answer
High-fiber diet
question
38. Which of the following is not a cause of galactorrhea? a. Proliferation of the lactiferous ducts of the breast b. Hypothyroidism resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH) c. Excess prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary d. Drugs such as high-dose oral contraceptives and phenothiazines
answer
Hypothyroidism resulting from a decrease in thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
question
39. Which breast disorder is characterized by bilateral nodularity and breast tenderness that waxes and wanes with the menstrual cycle? a. Paget disease b. Fibroadenoma c. Fibrocystic changes d. Lobular carcinoma in situ
answer
Fibrocystic changes
question
40. What are typical findings on breast palpation of a client with fibroadenoma? a. Painful, round, movable, and fluid-filled mass b. Painless, movable, hard, and irregular mass c. Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass d. Painful, nonmovable, irregular, and soft mass
answer
Painless, firm, elastic, and well-circumscribed mass
question
41. Which benign breast tumor affects 50- and 60-year-old women and is characterized by the principal lactiferous ducts becoming dilated and filled with cellular debris? a. Mammary duct ectasia b. Intraductal papilloma c. Phyllodes tumor d. Fibroadenoma
answer
Mammary duct ectasia
question
42. Which cancers are associated with alterations of the BRCA1 gene? a. Endometrial and ovarian b. Endometrial and cervical c. Cervical and breast d. Breast and ovarian
answer
Breast and ovarian
question
43. Which tumor-related gene or protein is an oncogene that transmits a growth signal to the nucleus to stimulate tumor growth? a. Her-2/neu b. Bcl-2 c. TP53 d. C-myc
answer
Her-2/neu
question
44. Which of the following is usually the first clinical manifestation of breast cancer? a. Nipple dimpling b. Nipple discharge c. Enlargement of one breast d. A painless lump
answer
A painless lump
question
seen with HPV infection
answer
penile cancer
question
advanced at the time of diagnosis
answer
male breast cancer
question
most curable cancer
answer
testicular cancer
question
vasectomy increases risk
answer
prostate cancer
question
painless diverticulum of the epididymis located between the head of epididymis and the testis
answer
spermatocele
question
collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis
answer
hyrdocele
question
rotation of a testes, which twists blood vessels of the spermatic cord
answer
testicular torsion
question
abnormal dilation of the vein within the spermatic cord
answer
varicocele
