ch 10,11,12 mis – Flashcards
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According to Brooks' Law, adding more people to a system development project will ________. A) lower the total project cost B) speed up the project C) delay the project's completion D) require less coordination
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C
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Adding more people to a delayed systems development project will further delay the project because ________. A) it is more difficult to schedule tasks B) training new people slows down team members C) it is more difficult to analyze the system requirements D) it is more difficult to budget project costs
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B
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The correct sequence for the five phases in the systems development life cycle (SDLC) process is ________. A) requirements analysis; system definition; system maintenance component design; implementation B) system definition; requirements analysis; component design; implementation; system maintenance C) requirements analysis; component design; system definition; implementation; system maintenance D) system definition; component design; requirements analysis; implementation; system maintenance
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B
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The project plan is made in the ________ phase of the systems development life cycle. A) requirements analysis B) system definition C) component design D) implementation
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B
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The systems development life cycle (SDLC) process begins with the ________ phase. A) requirements analysis B) system definition C) component design D) project planning
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B
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The first step in the systems definition phase of the SDLC is to ________. A) plan the project B) conduct a feasibility study C) define the goals and scope D) form the project team
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C
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Once we have defined the project's goals and scope, the next step is to ________. A) plan the project B) assess feasibility C) determine requirements D) form the project team
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B
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What are the four dimensions of feasibility? A) planning, process, technical, and budgetary feasibility B) operational, strategic, technical, and tactical feasibility C) cost, schedule, technical, and organizational feasibility D) schedule, process, technical, and competitive feasibility
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C
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An element of ________ feasibility concerns whether the new system fits with legal requirements. A) cost B) schedule C) technical D) organizational
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D
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Does the company have a management policy that prohibits releasing customer data? Such a question is critical to understanding ________ feasibility. A) cost B) schedule C) technical D) organizational
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D
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________ feasibility refers to whether existing technology is likely to be able to meet the needs of the new system. A) Cost B) Schedule C) Technical D) Organizational
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C
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________ are IS professionals who understand both business and technology. A) Software engineers B) Database administrators C) Project managers D) Systems analyst
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D
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During the requirements definition stage, the team will be heavy with ________. A) systems analysts B) programmers C) testers D) database designers
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A
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Identify the most important phase in the systems development process. A) determining requirements B) component design C) implementation D) system maintenance
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A
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The primary purpose of the ________ phase of the SDLC approach is to determine and document the specific features and functions of the new system. A) system definition B) component design C) requirements analysis D) system maintenance
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C
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The easiest and cheapest time to alter the information system is in the ________ phase. A) component design B) requirements analysis C) implementation D) system definition
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B
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The development team determines the job descriptions and functions of people who will use the new system in the ________ phase of the SDLC. A) system definition B) component design C) requirements analysis D) implementation
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B
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Hardware specification is done in the ________ phase of the SDLC. A) system definition B) component design C) requirements analysis D) implementation
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B
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Procedures for normal, backup, and failure recovery operations are developed in the ________ phase of the SDLC. A) system definition B) component design C) system maintenance D) implementation
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B
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Tasks in the ________ phase of the SDLC are to build, test, and convert the users to the new system. A) system definition B) component design C) system maintenance D) implementation
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D
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A(n) ________ consists of sequences of actions that users will take when using the new system. A) activity log B) quality assurance program C) test plan D) project plan
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C
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The last stage of testing is the ________ test, where future system users try out the new system. A) commercial B) acceptance C) beta D) alpha
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C
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In a ________ installation, the new system runs alongside the old one until it has been tested and is fully operational. A) pilot B) phased C) parallel D) plunge
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C
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A ________ installation is the riskiest because the old system is turned off and the new system is turned on. A) pilot B) phased C) parallel D) plunge
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D
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If a company installs and tests only a portion of the new system, then repeatedly installs and tests portions of the new system until it is complete, this known as a ________ installation. A) pilot B) phased C) parallel D) plunge
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B
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Plunge installation is sometimes called ________ installation. A) direct B) loop C) serial D) operational
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A
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Once the system has passed integrated testing, the organization installs the new system. Which term is used to refer to this activity? A) post-beta stage B) system conversion C) quality audit D) system control
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B
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Tracking both failures and requests for enhancements occurs in the ________ phase of the SDLC. A) implementation B) maintenance C) requirements analysis D) component design
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B
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Creating the database and testing the data occurs in the ________ phase of the SDLC. A) implementation B) maintenance C) requirements analysis D) component design
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A
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Which of the following is done in the maintenance phase of the SDLC? A) training B) fixing failures C) obtaining requirements D) routine maintenance
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B
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Software vendors often bundle large bunches of fixes for low-priority problems into groups called ________. A) technical fixes B) patches C) service packs D) enterprise packs
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C
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With regard to the software component, software developers group fixes for high-priority failures into ________ that can be applied to all copies of a given product. A) a beta version B) a patch C) service packs D) trial packs
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B
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The main problem of the SDLC approach to systems development is the ________ nature of the process. A) fluid B) sporadic C) waterfall D) cyclical
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C
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Which of the following is not one of the reasons for the problems with SDLC? A) lack of implementation training for users B) waterfall nature of the SDLC C) difficulty of documenting requirements in a usable way D) approximation errors in budgeting and scheduling
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A
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Spending too much time with documenting requirements of the problem leads to ________. A) blind spots B) errors of omission C) analysis paralysis D) information overload
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C
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In order to address the problems facing development forecasting, development methodologies other than the SDLC have emerged for developing systems through a series of small, manageable chunks. Which of the following is not one of them? A) rapid application development B) integrated development C) extreme programming D) object-oriented development
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B
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a large-scale systems development project? A) lax security B) limited budget C) short development interval D) IT personnel with diverse backgrounds
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D
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a small-scale systems development project? A) Security is important and managed. B) complex requirements C) operations support by users D) long development interval
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C
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In considering the trade-offs for systems development processes, what could cause diseconomies of scale? A) adding more people B) reducing budgetary allocations C) revising requirements D) lack of operational support by users
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A
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Project decisions are based on the starting plan called ________ that stipulates the tasks to be accomplished, the labor and other resources assigned to those tasks, and the schedule for completion. A) template B) estimate C) baseline D) pre-report
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C
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In a large-scale systems development, documents, designs, prototypes, data models, database designs, working data entry screens, and the like are examples of ________. A) reports B) systems C) components D) deliverables
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D
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Project teams create a(n) ________, which is a hierarchy of the tasks required to complete a project, to reduce the confusion of complex interrelated tasks. A) enterprise task sheet B) work-breakdown structure C) Gantt chart D) scope statement
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B
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A ________ shows the tasks, start and finish dates, and dependencies for the tasks of a project. A) Gantt chart B) work-breakdown structure C) critical path D) function point
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A
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The ________ is the sequence of activities that determines the earliest date by which the project can be completed. A) work-breakdown structure B) Gantt chart C) critical path D) baseline WBS
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C
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In order to tackle the problems with WBS, which of the following is not one of the approaches companies may take? A) They can avoid the major schedule risks and never develop software in-house. B) They can admit the impossibility of systems development scheduling and plan accordingly. C) They can attempt to schedule the development project in spite of all the difficulties. D) They can decide to outsource part of the development to a third-party vendor
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D
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What is a function point? A) a chart that shows tasks, dates, and dependencies in a project schedule B) a feature or function of the new program C) a hierarchy of the tasks required to complete a project D) the sequence of activities that determines the earliest date by which the project can be completed
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A
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Which of the following is not true of function points? A) Function points show the planned tasks, dependencies, durations, and resource assignments. B) Function points are used to determine the number of lines of code. C) Updating a customer record is an example of a function point. D) Function point techniques estimate schedules only for software components
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A
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Function points as an estimating technique for project management only work with ________. A) building databases B) training users C) building software components D) implementing systems
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C
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The term ________ refers to a set of management policies, practices, and tools that developers use to maintain control over the project's resources. A) critical path B) function point C) work-breakdown structure D) configuration control
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D
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________ is the process by which users agree to one set of requirements, then add a bit more, then add a bit more, until, over time, they have described a completely new project. A) Diseconomies of scale B) Requirements creep C) Software bloat D) Critical path analysis
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B
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Which of the following is not considered malicious human activity? A) hacking B) intentional destruction of data C) terrorism D) poorly written programs
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D
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The ________ pretends to be a legitimate company and sends an email requesting confidential data, such as account numbers, Social Security numbers, account passwords, and so forth. A) hawker B) phisher C) spoofer D) sniffer
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B
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________ is a technique for intercepting computer communications. A) Spoofing B) Phishing C) Sniffing D) Pretexting
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C
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________ is when someone deceives by pretending to be someone else. A) Hacking B) Baiting C) Sniffing D) Pretexting
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D
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Email spoofing is a synonym for ________. A) spoofing B) phishing C) pretexting D) sniffing
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B
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________ take computers with wireless connections through an area and search for unprotected wireless networks and then monitor and intercept wireless traffic at will. A) Drive-by sniffers B) Drive-by spoofers C) Pretexters D) Drive-by phishers
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A
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Which of the following is an example of a sniffing technique? A) IP spoofing B) Adblocker C) Cache D) Adware
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D
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________ occurs when a person gains unauthorized access to a computer system. A) Pretexting B) Phishing C) Hacking D) Spoofing
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C
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Which of the following could most likely be the result of hacking? A) unexplained reduction in account balance B) certain Web sites being blocked from viewing due to security reasons C) mysterious increase in the amount spam received in your inbox D) pop-up ads appearing frequently
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A
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Which of the following usually happens in a malicious denial-of-service attack? A) A hacker monitors and intercepts wireless traffic at will. B) A hacker floods a Web server with millions of bogus service requests. C) A hacker uses unauthorized programs to invade a computer system and replace legitimate programs. D) A phisher pretends to be a legitimate company and sends an email requesting confidential data
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B
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Which of the following presents the largest risk for infrastructure loss? A) thefts B) terror attacks C) natural disasters D) human mistakes
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C
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which of the following is a critical security function of senior-management involvement? A) safeguarding computer hardware and software B) planning response to security incidents C) establishing the security policy D) managing the security program on a real-time basis
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C
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Which of the following is a critical security function of senior-management involvement? A) implementing disaster-recovery safeguards B) protecting the organizational network from sneak attacks C) training junior employees about the security policy D) managing risk by balancing the costs and benefits of the security program
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D
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Which of the following is an example of a technical safeguard? A) backup and recovery B) encryption C) procedure design D) compliance
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B
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Which of the following is an example of a human safeguard? A) procedure design B) firewalls C) malware protection D) application design
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A
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Which of the following is an example of a data safeguard? A) administration B) assessment C) compliance D) physical security
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D
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Customers do not want to have their retinas scanned before they can place an order. Which element of computer security described in the NIST Handbook is discussed here? A) System owners have computer security responsibilities outside their own organizations. B) Computer security is an integral element of sound management. C) Computer security should be periodically reassessed. D) Computer security is constrained by societal factors.
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D
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A security policy covering personal use of computers at work would be an example of a ________. A) data policy B) issue-specific policy C) system-specific policy D) personnel policy
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B
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An example of a system-specific security policy would be ________. A) limiting personal use of its computer systems B) deciding what customer data from the order-entry system will be shared with other organization C) a general statement of the organization's security program D) inspection of personal email for compliance
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B
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Which element of the security policy specifies how the organization will ensure enforcement of security programs and policies? A) general statement of the security program B) issue-specific policy C) network policy D) system-specific policy
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A
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________ refers to things we do not know that we do not know. A) Risk B) Uncertainty C) Assessment D) Vulnerability
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B
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________ refers to threats and consequences that we know about. A) Risk B) Uncertainty C) Hedge D) Indemnity
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A
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________ is the likelihood of an adverse occurrence. A) Uncertainty B) Assessment C) Vulnerability D) Risk
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D
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Which of the following is covered by the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999? A) financial information stored by the SEC B) records maintained by the U.S. government C) consumer financial data stored by financial institutions D) health data created by doctors and other health-care providers
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C
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Which of the following was passed to give individuals the right to access their own health data created by doctors and other health-care providers? A) Privacy Act of 1974 B) Sarbanes-Oxley Bill C) HIPAA D) Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act
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C
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The Privacy Act of 1974 provides protection for individuals against ________. A) records held by private companies B) records held by the U.S. government C) records held by banks and other financial institutions D) records held by medical organizations
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B
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________ is defined as any action device, procedure, technique, or other measure that reduces a system's vulnerability to a threat. A) Antivirus software B) Firewall C) Safeguard D) Biometric protection
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C
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Which of the following is the first step in risk management? A) create perfect hedges to mitigate the risks B) reduce the likelihood of a threat C) evaluate the results of the risk management process D) assess what the threats are
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D
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No safeguard is ironclad; there is always a ________ that the safeguard will not protect the assets in all circumstances. A) residual risk B) diversifiable risk C) portfolio risk D) process risk
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A
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Which factor of risk assessment refers to the probability that a given asset will be compromised by a given threat, despite the safeguards? A) likelihood B) uncertainty C) consequence D) vulnerability
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A
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Which of the following is an example of of an intangible consequence? A) dip in sales because the supplies were not replenished B) loss of customer goodwill due to an outage C) reduced production because of plant maintenance D) financial loss reported due to high input costs
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B
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A weakness in a security system is known as a system ________. A) uncertainty B) residue C) vulnerability D) condition
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C
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________ is the "bottom line" of risk assessment. A) Residual risk B) Probable loss C) Vulnerability D) Likelihood
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B
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To obtain a measure of probable loss, companies ________. A) multiply likelihood by the probability of the occurrence B) multiply the vulnerability by the probability of the occurrence C) multiply likelihood by the cost of the consequences D) multiply residual risk by the likelihood of the occurrence
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C
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A(n) ________ card has a microchip on it that holds the data. A) ATM B) smart C) credit D) debit
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B
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Which of the following is used for biometric authentication? A) smart cards B) facial features C) passwords D) chromosome data
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B
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Users often resist biometric identification because they feel it is ________. A) expensive B) hard to use C) too technical D) invasive
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D
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A system called ________ authenticates users without sending their passwords across the computer network. A) Kerberos B) WPA C) Chimera D) DUN
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A
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The IEEE 802.11 Committee, the group that develops and maintains wireless standards, first developed a wireless security standard called ________. A) Wireless Fidelity B) Wi-Fi Protected Access C) Wired Equivalent Privacy D) Wireless Security Instruction Se
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C
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Which of the following is used to eliminate spoofing? A) HTML B) SSL/TSL C) SSL D) Digital certificates
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D
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________ encryption uses the same key for both parties. A) Symmetric B) Asymmetric C) SSL D) TLS
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A
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Which of the following observations concerning Secure Socket Layer (SSL) is true? A) It uses only asymmetric encryption. B) Most Internet applications, including HTTP, FTP, and email programs, can use it. C) It works between Levels 2 and 3 of the TCP-OSI architecture. D) It was originally developed by Microsoft
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B
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________ is a later version of SSL, with more problems fixed. A) Transport Layer Security B) Advanced Socket Layer C) Digital signatures D) Asymmetric Socket Layer
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A
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You are doing an online fund transfer through the Web site of a reputed bank. Which of the following displayed in your browser's address bar will let you know that the bank is using the SSL protocol? A) http:// B) www3 C) https:// D) .com
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C
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________ is a method of mathematically manipulating the message to create a string of bits that characterize the message. A) Spoofing B) Hashing C) TLS D) Pinging
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B
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Because encryption slows processing, most messages are sent over the Internet as ________. A) zipped files B) queries C) plaintext D) code
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C
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Which of the following is a technique used to ensure that plain text messages are received without alteration? A) SSL/TSL B) symmetric encryption C) digital signatures D) asymmetric encryption
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C
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A program that asks a sender to transmit its public key could be fooled. To solve this problem, trusted, independent third-party companies, called ________, supply public keys. A) certificate authorities B) 3Pk firms C) key makers D) key holding companies
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A
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________ is the term used to denote viruses, worms, Trojan horses, spyware, and adware. A) Malware B) Executable C) Payload D) Spam
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A
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A virus is a computer program that replicates itself. The program code that causes unwanted activity is called the ________. A) payload B) matrix C) digest D) string
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A
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A(n) ________ is a type of virus that propagates itself using the Internet or other computer networks. A) worm B) Trojan horse C) spyware D) adware
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A
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________ are viruses that masquerade as useful programs or files. A) Adware B) Firmware C) Trojan horses D) Payloads
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C
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What is a major difference between spyware and adware? A) Adware is benign. B) Adware performs malicious acts. C) Adware is installed with the user's permission. D) Adware does not observe user behavior
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A
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Users should scan their computers with anti-malware programs at least ________. A) once a month B) once a year C) once a day D) once a week
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D
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About 90 percent of all viruses are spread via ________. A) free antivirus utilities B) spreadsheets C) email attachments D) file sharing sites
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C
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The term ________ is a new catch-all term that refers to any type of program not installed and controlled by the computer's owner or manager. A) proxy B) payload C) bot D) string
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C
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Because encryption keys can be lost or destroyed, a copy of the key should stored with a trusted third party. This procedure is called ________. A) control account B) authentication deposit C) encryption herding D) key escrow
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D
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Organizations should protect sensitive data by storing it in ________ form. A) standardized B) encrypted C) compressed D) digital
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B
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Maintaining the DBMS on computers in a locked room is part of the ________. A) backup and recovery procedure B) data encryption procedure C) physical security procedure D) data rights and responsibilities
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C
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As a human safeguard, ________ considerations should be part of the hiring process. A) security B) gender C) age D) weight
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A
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________ a site means to take extraordinary measures to reduce a system's vulnerability. A) Leveling B) Hardening C) Authenticating D) Certifying
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B
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When an employee is terminated, system administrators should receive advance notice so they can ________. A) destroy all records B) plan for new recruitment C) get the employee's computer D) remove accounts and passwords
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D
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The three main systems procedure types are ________. A) normal operation, backup, and recovery B) design, implementation, and control C) planning, organizing, and controlling D) activity control, monitoring, and feedback
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A
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In disaster-preparedness terminology, a ________ is a utility company that can take over another company's processing with no forewarning. A) Web farm B) cold site C) development site D) hot site
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D
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Which of the following observations is true of a cold site? A) It is located in the company's premises.B) It is more expensive to lease than a hot site. C) Customers will have to install and manage systems themselves. D) The total cost is always less than the cost of a hot site
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C
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When an employee notices a virus on his or her machine, the ________ plan should specify what to do. A) disaster recovery B) backup C) incident response D) contingency
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C
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________ is another more common title given to the VP of information services. A) CTO B) CEO C) CIO D) CFO
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C
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The purpose of the ________ group within the IS department is to investigate new IS technologies and determine how the organization can benefit from them. A) operations B) development C) technology D) outsourcing relations
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C
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The CTO often heads the ________ group. A) technology B) operations C) development D) enterprise
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A
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The purpose of the ________ group within the IS department is to manage the computing infrastructure. A) operations B) development C) technology D) outsourcing relations
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A
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The ________ group includes system and network administrators. A) technology B) operations C) development D) outsourcing relations
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B
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The development group in a company's IS department is staffed primarily by programmers, test engineers, technical writers, and other development personnel. Based on this information, which of the following is most likely to be true? A) The company develops programs in-house. B) The company only uses licensed software. C) The company has negotiated comprehensive outsourcing agreements with other companies. D) The company contracts most of its development work out to other companies.
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A
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The purpose of the ________ group is to protect data and information assets by establishing data standards and management practices and policies. A) operations B) development C) technology D) data administration
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D
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Because of the movement toward outsourcing, some companies have started a separate group in the IS department for ________. A) development B) e-commerce C) network administration D) outsourcing relations
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D
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One of the responsibilities of a system analyst is ________. A) to work with users to determine system requirements B) to repair computer equipment and networks C) to design and write computer programs D) to write program documentation
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A
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A ________ helps users to solve problems and provides training. A) system analyst B) network administrator C) user support representative D) PQA test engineer
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C
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A computer technician ________. A) designs and writes automated test scripts B) repairs computer equipment and networks C) designs and writes computer programs D) writes program documentation
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B
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Which of the following statements is true regarding IS infrastructure? A) It can be quickly changed to meet changing business requirements. B) It can be easily modified to match changes in the organization's strategy. C) It is not malleable and changing it requires time and resources. D) It can be changed at a minimum cost to the organization
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C
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If you are a senior manager in finance, it is possible that you may be asked to be a member of the ________ in order to help evaluate and prioritize new IS projects from a finance perspective. A) steering committee B) outsourcing relations group C) project management group D) enterprise application group
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A
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Which of the following statements is true regarding the steering committee? A) The IS department determines the membership of the steering committee. B) Members of the executive staff set up the steering committee's schedule and agenda. C) The steering committee consists of senior managers from the IS department. D) The steering committee serves an important communication function between IS and the users
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D
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The structure of the IS ________ must match the structure of the organization. A) department B) planning group C) infrastructure D) data dictionary
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C
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A highly centralized organization needs highly ________ information systems while a decentralized organization requires ________ information systems. A) controlled; centralized B) independent; controlled C) decentralized; controlled D) controlled; autonomous
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D
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To accommodate the variations in users' needs, most IS departments will have a set of three or four different ________ computer configurations. A) exclusive B) proprietary C) standard D) flexible
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C
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Because the IS department essentially functions as a ________ organization, it must have a system to record user problems and monitor their resolution. A) for profit B) service C) product D) volunteer
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B
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In a well-run IS department, when users report problems, ________ are serviced first. A) low-priority items B) straightforward items C) high-priority items D) non-critical items
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C
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In a well-run IS department, user problems are prioritized on the basis of how critical they are to the user's work. If a problem still remains unresolved, ________. A) it is removed from the queue B) it is immediately looked into C) it reenters the queue at a higher priority D) it reenters the queue at a lower priority
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C
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The help-desk function is usually part of the ________ group within the IS department. A) operations B) development C) technology D) outsourcing relations
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A
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In some organizations, individuals and workgroups manage their own applications, with support from the IS department. In this case, the term ________ is interpreted to mean some functional applications and all cross-functional applications. A) legacy systems B) enterprise applications C) computing infrastructure D) information systems
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B
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The IS department has the responsibility for system ________, which means either fixing problems or adapting existing information systems to support new features and functions. A) development B) upgradation C) maintenance D) improvement
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C
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A(n) ________ is one that has outdated technologies and techniques but is still used, despite its age. A) legacy information system B) enterprise application C) information system D) disparate system
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A
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Despite being old and out of date, it is often crucial for IS departments to maintain ________ systems because it may be too expensive to replace them. A) database B) enterprise C) knowledge management D) legacy
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D
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The integration of disparate information systems requires knowledge of many different systems, including legacy systems. As such, many companies ________. A) outsource this work B) conduct this work in-house C) hire consultants to handle this work D) locate external vendors to conduct this work
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B
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Which of the following is a management function of the IS department? A) to align information systems with organizational strategy B) to manage the development staff C) to communicate IS/IT issues to the executive group D) to enforce IS priorities within the IS departmen
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B
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________ work on existing applications. A) Data administrators B) PQA engineers C) Sustaining-application engineers D) New application developers
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C
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Developers who work on maintaining existing applications typically have ________ years of experience than those who work on new applications. A) fewer B) a few additional C) several D) many more
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A
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Technical writers develop ________. A) automated testing suites B) computer programs C) product installation instructions D) job descriptions and procedures
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C
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________ is a function that pertains to all of an organization's data assets. A) Data administration B) Database administration C) ERP administration D) Network administration
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A
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A typical larger organization would have ________ data administrator(s) and ________ database administrator(s). A) several; one B) one; several C) one; one D) several; several
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B
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________ are definitions for data items shared across the organization. A) Data standards B) Data dictionaries C) Legacy systems D) Data owner
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A
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Some data standards include the data ________, which is the department within the organization that controls changes to the definition of a data item. A) miner B) creator C) owner D) designer
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C
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Which of the following is an example of a narrow data policy? A) We will not share identifying customer data with another organization. B) We will not share nonidentifying customer data with another organization without the approval of the legal department. C) We will maintain data about past employees for at least seven years after their last day of work. D) Employee data are never to be released to anyone other than the employee without the approval of the human resources department
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C
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Which of the following statements is true regarding data policies? A) They are standard across organizations. B) They are created solely by the data administrator. C) They are dynamic in nature. D) They are usually narrow in scope
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C
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Which of the following statements is true about a data dictionary? A) Obsolete entries are usually retained in the data dictionary. B) The data dictionary contains an entry for each standard data item. C) Data administrators needn't maintain the data dictionary as it automatically updates itself. D) Only large organizations are required to maintain a data dictionary
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B
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A file which contains data definitions is called a ________. A) data standard B) data dictionary C) data plan D) data policy
answer
B
question
Planning for disaster recovery is a function of the ________ group within the IS department. A) data administration B) project management C) enterprise application D) system administration
answer
A
question
One of the management advantages of outsourcing is that the company can ________. A) get remote support B) have greater control over its operations C) gain expertise D) have unattended installations
answer
C
question
From a cost perspective, outsourcing ________. A) does not provide a company with the option of hiring part-time services B) exposes a company to significant financial risk C) allows a company to gain economies of scale D) results in a lower unit cost
answer
C
question
Which of the following statements is true regarding outsourcing? A) There is no guarantee that outsourcing will provide a certain level of quality. B) Outsourcing leads to greater budgetary instability. C) Outsourcing saves direct management time but increases indirect management time. D) Outsourcing involves significant implementation risk
answer
A
question
A company hires a travel agency to look after employee travel arrangements. This is an example of ________. A) licensing B) outsourcing an entire system C) application outsourcing D) outsourcing an entire business function
answer
D
question
Outsourcing companies face a certain loss of control when they hire other organizations to perform certain services. A particular disadvantage related to the loss of control is ________. A) that it places a cap on financial exposure B) that the company's CIO can become superfluous C) that there is no easy way of exiting the outsourcing agreement D) that the vendor's employees have gained significant knowledge of the company
answer
B
question
A major concern with outsourcing is that the company may lose ________ by being forced to reveal proprietary trade secrets. A) market position B) employees C) market value D) intellectual capital
answer
D
question
Because the outsourcing company and the vendor can become so tightly integrated, ________ the agreement can be very costly and risky. A) extending B) initiating C) evaluating D) ending
answer
D
question
As a user, you have a right to ________. A) learn basic computer skills B) a secure computing environment C) apply software patches and fixes D) make hardware modifications
answer
B
question
As a user, you are expected to ________. A) apply software patches and fixes on your own B) install programs that you feel will help you in your job C) follow security and backup procedures D) report even trivial problems
answer
C
question
________ is a form of hardware/software outsourcing in which organizations offer flexible plans for customers to lease hardware and software facilities. A) Cloud computing B) Virtual computing C) Green computing D) Enterprise application integration
answer
A
question
Which of the following statements is not true about cloud computing? A) It allows multiple organizations to utilize the same computing infrastructure. B) It is a form of CPU 43243243cycle inventory consolidation. C) In cloud computing, customers need to pay only for resources used. D) It is yet to be adopted by large organizations
answer
D
question
Cloud computing is feasible because cloud vendors harness the power of ________. A) e-waste management B) outsourcing C) power management D) virtualization
answer
D
question
________ is the process whereby multiple operating systems share the same computer hardware, usually a server. A) Virtualization B) Green computing C) System outsourcing D) Application outsourcing
answer
A
question
_______ is environmentally conscious computing consisting of three major components: power management, virtualization, and e-waste management. A) Application outsourcing B) Cloud computing C) Green computing D) Enterprise application integration
answer
C
question
Computers and related devices that are no longer in use constitute ________. A) e-trash B) legacy systems C) obsolete data standards D) cloud computing
answer
A
question
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the green computing movement? A) It is concerned with the recycling of toxic substances. B) It is concerned with the proper disposal of toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and cobalt. C) It encourages virtualization because it dramatically increases server idle time. D) It seeks to reduce the creation of toxic materials by changing the design of computers
answer
C