question

Define athletic trainer (Who are they working with? etc)

answer

Athletic Training is practiced by athletic trainers, health care professionals who collaborate with physicians to optimize activity and participation of patients and clients.

question

Define the 6 athletic trainer's roles and responsibilities?

answer

1. Prevention of athletic injuries 2. Clinical evaluation and diagnosis 3. Immediate care of injuries 4. Treatment, rehabilitation and reconditioning of athletic injuries 5. Health care administration 6. Professional responsibilities

question

What organization should entry-level athletic training program be accredited by?

answer

NATA (Nat. Ath. Training Association) President—Marge Albohm First meeting took place in Kansas city in 1950, officially formed the NATA Home—Dallas TX > 32,000members 10 districts We are district 4 (GLATA)

question

What does CAATE stands for?

answer

...

question

How many CEUs are required to correct per 3-year cycle?

answer

75 per 3 year cycle -Staggered by last name Current CPR for the Professional Rescuer & First Aid certification

question

Who has the highest responsibility in medical chain of command in AT setting?

answer

The Head Physician

question

Who has the highest responsibility in financial chain of command in collage AT setting?

answer

Athletic Director

question

Describe the purpose of preparticipation physical exam?

answer

Provide... An objective, sport-specific musculoskeletal exam A reproducible record for comparison in the future Baseline data for sport-specific conditioning Obtain... Negative information that alters participation options Positive information to decrease injury potential and increase performance

question

What do HIPAA and FERPA regulate/protect?

answer

HIPAA Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act How allied health personnel can share the patient's private health information with others Guarantees that patients have access to their medical records FERPA Family Education Rights and Privacy Act Protects the privacy of student educational records Gives parents certain rights with respect to their children's educational records School must have written permission to release any information

question

What does SOAP stand for?

answer

Subjective What the patient tells the athletic trainer Objective Range of motion, strength level, etc... Assessment AT's professional opinion about the injury Plan for treatment How the injury will be managed Short-term and long-term goal

question

Definitions of Liability, negligence

answer

The state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person The failure to use ordinary or reasonable care

question

What are Torts?

answer

Legal wrongs committed against the person or property of another Nonfeasance (act of omission) When an individual fails to perform a legal duty Malfeasance (act of commission) When an individual commits an act that is not legally his perform Misfeasance When an individual improperly does something he or she has the legal right to do

question

What does state that neither the government nor any individual who is employed by the government can be held liable for negligence

answer

Sovereign immunity States neither the government nor any individual who is employed by the government can be held liable for negligence

question

List 4 ways of how to reduce the risk of litigation for athletic trainers

answer

Good personal relationships Specific policies and guidelines Written job description Develop, review annually, and follow EAP Be familiar with the health status of the individual Record keeping Understand and work under your limitation Communication with team physician Purchase professional liability insurance Use common sense in making decision

question

List macronutrients and micronutrients

answer

Carbohydrates Fats Proteins Vitamins Minerals Water

question

What is the recommended calories intake ratio of Carbohydrate, Fat, and Protein?

answer

Carbohydrate—55-60 percent (1100kcal, 275g) Fat—25-30 percent (500kcal, 55g) Protein—15-20 percent (400kcal, 100g)

question

What are the calories/gram of Carbohydrate, fat and protein?

answer

Carb:4 calories/g Fat: 9 calories/g Protein:4 calories/g

question

Which vitamins are fat-soluble?

answer

A D E K stored in the body: risk of vitamin poisoning

question

Define Female Athlete Triad?

answer

Eating Disorder Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual bleeding) Osteoporosis Can be fatal Bone density lost may not ever be regained Osteoporosis can be diagnosed through a bone scan

question

Describe the relationship of humidity and evaporation?

answer

A normal person can sweat off about 1 quart (0.94L) of water per hour for about 2 hours Athlete could lose 5L of water during a practice/competition Relative humidity and heat loss through evaporation 65% — severely impaired 75% —virtually stops More humidity, Less evaporation

question

How do you manage heat cramp?

answer

Extremely painful muscle spasms Occurs because of some imbalance btw water and electrolytes (esp. sodium) Immediate treatment Ingestion of large quantities of fluids Mild prolonged stretching with ice massage May be prevented by adequate replacement of Electrolytes or ions (sodium, chloride, potassium..) Fluids

question

How do you manage heat exhaustion

answer

A more moderate form of heat illness Results from dehydration With mild hyperthermia (a rectal temp. <104F/40℃) Measuring rectal temp. is critical to differentiate heat stroke and heat exhaustion S&S Pale skin, profuse sweating Fast and weak pulse Stomach cramps with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea Headache, dizziness with loss of coordination mmediate Treatment Immediately removed from play Remove excess clothing/equipment Lie down with legs elevated Cooling efforts at shaded or air-conditioned area until rectal temp. has <101F(38.3℃) Rehydration Monitor HR, BP, and core temp. If rapid improvement is not observed →emergency facility

question

What is Heat Stroke how is it managed?

answer

A serious, life-threatening emergency Most severe form of heat illness Can occur suddenly and without warning Characterized by CNS abnormalities Unconsciousness, altered consciousness, seizures, confusion, emotional instability, decreased mental acuity Rectal temp. >104F (40℃) Body's cooling system is not working Potential tissue damage including brain by body temp. Cool down first and transported second (if adequate resource is available) Whole-body cooling lower rectal temp. to 101F Immerse the athlete in a cold water bath (35-58F) Call rescue squad

question

How many days does acclimatization need?

answer

...

question

SAID principle

answer

Specific Adaptation to Imposed Demands Directly related to the principle of overload When the body is subjected to stresses and overloads of varying intensities, it will gradually adapt over time to overcome whatever demands are placed on it

question

What are Agonist muscles?

answer

The muscle that contracts to produce a movement

question

What are antagonist muscles?

answer

The muscle being stretched in response to contraction of the agonist muscle

question

How do muscle spindle and golgi tendon organs protect muscle?

answer

A sensory receptors within the belly of the muscle When a muscle is stretched, the muscle spindles are also stretched Causes the muscle to reflexively contract A proprioceptive sensory receptor Located at the insertion of skeletal muscle fibers into the tendons of skeletal muscle Affected by changes in muscle length and tension Cause reflex relaxation The impulses from the GTO have the ability to override the impulses coming from the muscle spindles (after >6 seconds of stretch)

question

Define muscular strength and endurance?

answer

Muscular strength The maximum force that can be applied by a muscle during a single maximum contraction Muscular endurance The ability to perform repetitive muscular contractions against some resistance

question

Define power

answer

Power P(power)=W(work)/T(time) When force is generated quickly

question

Define isometric, concentric, and eccentric contraction

answer

Isometric The muscle contracts to increase tension but no change in the length of the muscle Concentric The muscle shortens in length as a contraction is developed to overcome/move some resistance Eccentric The resistance is grater than the muscular force being produced and muscle lengthens while continuing to contract

question

Fast twitch vs Slow twitch muscle. Which is type I/type II?

answer

Fast-twitch (type II) Capable of producing quick, forceful contractions Tendency to fatigue more rapidly IIa—Moderately resistant to fatigue IIb—"True" fast-twitch fiber, fatigue rapidly sprinter Slow-twitch (type I) Resistant to fatigue Greater time is required to generate force distance runner

question

What determine level of muscular strength?

answer

Size of the muscle Determined by number and diameter The number is inherited characteristic The size is changed by training Hypertrophy—Enlargement of a muscle Atrophy—Decrease of a muscle Improved neuromuscular efficiency Getting more motor units to fire—stronger contraction Biomechanical factor Length-tension relationship

question

What are four considerations for endurance training?

answer

Isometric Exercise Contracts the muscle statically without changing its length Isometric contraction Isotonic Exercise Shortens and lengthens the muscle through a complete range of motion Concentric & Eccentric contraction Isokinetic Exercise Resistance is given at a fixed velocity of movement with accommodating resistance Concentric contraction

question

What organization established the standard for football helmet in NCAA?

answer

NOCSAE National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment Established voluntary testing standards in an effort to reduce head injuries Established for football helmets, baseball/softball helmets, lacrosse helmets/facemasks NOCSAE helmet standard Not a warranty Indicates that helmet met requirements of performance tests when manufactured/re-conditioned Helmets should undergo regular recertification and reconditioning Will allow equipment to meet necessary standards for multiple seasons

question

How mouth guards protect athletes?

answer

Protect teeth Minimize lip lacerations, Absorb shock of chin blows Prevent concussions?

question

Describe the function of foot orthotics?

answer

Device for correcting biomechanical problems that exist in foot that can cause injury Plastic, thermoplastic, rubber, sorbothane, leather support or ready-made products Can also be customized by physician, podiatrist, athletic trainer or physical therapist More expensive

question

What are the 3 types of muscles in human body?

answer

Smooth Involuntary, non striated Cardiac Involuntary, striated Striated (skeletal muscles) Under control of the somatic nervous system

question

How do you differentiate Grade I to Grade III strain/sprain? What are the characteristics of each degree of strain/sprain?

answer

Strain: stretch, tear, or rip in the muscle, fascia, or tendons By an abnormal muscular contraction or overstretch Grade1—some muscle fibers are stretched/torn Movement is painful, but full ROM Grade2—a number of muscle fibers are torn Active contraction cause extreme pain A divot can be felt Possible swelling and discoloration Grade3—a complete rapture of a muscle Significant impairment or total loss of movement Sprain: Grade I—some stretching and separation of the lig. fibers Grade II—some tearing and separation of the lig. fibers Grade III—total tearing of the ligament

question

Define and describe DOMS

answer

Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness 24-72 hrs after exercise

question

What is the difference between tendonitis and tenosynovitis?

answer

Tendinitis Diffuse tenderness because of repeated microtrauma and degenerative changes Swelling and pain i.e. Achilles tendinitis Inflammation of the synovial sheath surrounding a tendon Acute state Articular crepitus & diffuse swelling Chronic state Locally thickened with pain Articular crepitus during movement

question

Define referred pain?

answer

pain away from the injury site

question

List and describe 3 phases of healing process

answer

Inflammatory Response Phase Redness (Rubor) Tenderness and Pain (Dolar) Increased temperature (Calor) Loss of Function (Functio laesa) Fibroblastic Repair Phase Scar forms within first few hours starts, takes 4-6 weeks (Fibroplasia) S/S of the injury start to dissipate Formation of a granulation tissue A reddish granular mass of connective tissue Consists of Fibroblasts (cell that produces collagen) Collagen Capillaries Formation of extracellular matrix Long term process (up to several years) Realignment and remodeling of the collagen fibers Aggressive active ROM and strengthening exercises should be incorporated Over time have increase in strength and tensile strength of the scar tissue Scar tissue is rarely as strong as the original tissue May require several years to complete Maturation-Remodeling Phase

question

Describe wolff's law

answer

Bone and soft tissue will respond to the physical demands placed on them Causing them to remodel/realign along lines of tensile force It is critical that injured structures be exposed to progressively increasing load throughout the rehabilitative process

question

Define the function of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

answer

Osteoclasts absorb bone and make room for new bone to grow into it...osteoblasts create new bone.

question

Define avascular necrosis

answer

Avascular necrosis With poor blood supply, fractured bone will die and union/healing will not take place

question

What is the prime concern in emergency situation?

answer

The prime concern is maintaining CV & CNS function

question

What are the 5 life-threatening situations?

answer

ABC (airway, breathing, circulation) obstruction need CPR Severe bleeding Shock

question

How do you control hemorrhage? 3 way to control

answer

Direct pressure Over a sterile gauze, applied firmly against the resistance of a bone 2. Elevation Reduces hydrostatic blood pressure & facilitates venous and lymphatic drainage 3. Pressure points When direct pressure combined with elevation fails to slow hemorrhage The brachial artery (in the upper limb) The femoral artery (in the lower limb)

question

How do you deal with unconscious athlete? (prone/spine, breathing/non breathing)

answer

Spine and not breathing ABC should be established immediately Spine and breathing nothing until he/she regain consciousness Prone and not breathing (the worst case) he/she should be logrolled carefully to spine position and ABC should be established Prone and breathing nothing until he/she regains consciousness →logrolled onto a spine board for CPR

question

List the primary vital signs

answer

pulse, respiration, blood pressure

question

What does RICE stands for?

answer

R—rest Without rest, the healing process never takes place Minor injury—72 hours before rehabilitation program is begun I—ice ↓pain, muscle guarding ↓ metabolism & local demands for O2—↓ hypoxia Vasoconstriction→controlling hemorrhage & edema C—compression ↓hemorrhage and hematoma formation In some cases, most important E—elevation Eliminate the effects of gravity on blood pooling in the extremities

question

What are the 3 body planes?

answer

Sagittal Plane Coronal (Frontal) Plane Transverse Plane

question

What does HOPS stand for?

answer

History Observation Palpation Special tests

question

What device do you use for measuring joint range?

answer

Goniometric

question

Define Kubeler-Ross's 5 stages of reactions to injury?

answer

Denial Anger Bargaining Depression Acceptance

question

Define Distress/Eustress?

answer

Negative (Distress) ↑muscle tension↓flexibility ↓ attentional focus Positive (Eustress)

question

List 3 of physical response to stress (Flight-or-fight response)

answer

Pupils dilate Hearing becomes more acute Muscles become more responsive ↑BP, HR, Respiratory rate

question

What would cause over-training?

answer

Occurs because of an imbalance between a physical load placed on an athlete and his/her coping capacity Physiological and psychological factors Can lead to staleness→Burnout

question

List 4 of S&S of burnout

answer

Can be detrimental to an athlete's general health Frequent headaches Gastrointestinal disturbances Sleeplessness Chronic fatigue Feeling of depersonalization Reduced sense of accomplishment Depressed mood

question

Describe an example of Attent Diversion and Altering the pain sensation

answer

...

question

What is the difference between neurosis and psychosis

answer

Neurosis: Unpleasant mental symptom in individual with intact reality testing Symptoms include anxiousness, depression or obsession with solid base of reality Psychosis Disturbance in which there is disintegration in personality and loss of contact with reality Characterized by delusions and hallucinations

question

List three types of direct transmission of infectious diseases

answer

Contact between body surfaces Touching, sexual intercourse Droplet spread Inhalation of contaminated air droplets from someone who sneezes in close proximity Fecal-oral spread Feces on the host's hands are brought into contact with the new host's mouth

question

List three types of indirect transmission of infectious diseases

answer

Water, food, towels, clothing, and eating utensils By vectors (living things) Insects, birds, or animals Airborne transmission Sharing air with infected people

question

How the likelihood of transmitting the disease changes through five stages of infection?

answer

Incubation stage From the time a pathogen enters the body until it multiplies to the point where S&S of a disease begin to appear Prodromal stage A variety of S&S may briefly develop Acute stage The disease reaches its greatest development The likelihood of transmitting the disease to others is highest Decline stage The first signs of recovery appear Recovery stage Apparent recovery from the invading pathogen The patient is susceptible to other pathogen

question

What are the two lines of immune system?

answer

Mechanical defense Separate the internal body from the external environment Skin, mucous membranes, nasal hairs Cellular system Macrophage Activate T-cells T-cells Assist the macrophages in destroying the antigen (microorganisms, foreign proteins, abnormal cells) B-cells Capable of producing antibodies —neutralize antigens

question

What is in the vaccination?

answer

a milder form of the virus

question

What is the single most important practice for preventing spread of infectious diseases?

answer

Hand Washing

question

Antibiotics are only useful in treating infections that caused by...?

answer

Viruses

question

List three major blood borne pathogens

answer

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) Hepatitis C virus (HCV) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

question

What is the most prevalent blood borne pathogen among HBV, HCV, and HIV?

answer

Hep C

question

What are S&S of HBV, HCV, and HIV infection?

answer

HBV: Flu-like symptoms Fatigue, weakness, nausea, abdominal pain, headache, fever, dark urine, possibly jaundice May exhibit no S&S Disease may be unknowingly transmitted to others May test positive for the HBV antigen within 2-6 weeks after the symptoms develop 85% of those infected recover within six to eight weeks HCV:80% of those infected with HCV have no S&S May be jaundice, mild abdominal pain (especially.upper RQ), loss of appetite, nausea, fatigue, muscle or joint pain, dark urine HIV:Fatigue, weight loss, night sweat, fever, muscle/joint pain, painful or swollen glands

question

Among HBV, HCV, and HIV, vaccination is only available for?

answer

HBV

question

How many doses of the vaccination required to get 97% immunity against HBV?

answer

Three dose over a six-month period

question

HIV and AIDS are an acronym of?

answer

Human Immunodeficiency Virus Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

question

List 3 of the personal protective equipments

answer

Disposable Gloves Gown or lab coat Face-mask/eye protection Respiratory assistive devices

question

OSHA is an acronym of [ ] and what do they do?

answer

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) In 1991, established standards for an employer to follow that govern occupational exposure to blood borne pathogens Has mandated that training programs for dealing with bloodborne pathogens be repeated each year to provide the most current information

question

What do you need to do if you had a major exposure to blood?

answer

Confidential medical evaluation that includes: documentation of exposure identification of source individual blood test counseling evaluation of reported illness

question

What are the three classifications of therapeutic modalities?

answer

Electromagnetic—energy travels at 300 million meters /sec in vacuum Cryotherapy Thermotherapy Electrical stimulating currents Diathermy and lasers Acoustic—relies on molecular collisions for energy transfer Ultrasound Mechanical—mechanical stretch, compress, and manipulation Massage Traction Intermittent compression

question

After less than 20 minutes of cryotherapy, how does the body react?

answer

When cold at temp. of < 50F (10C) applied to skin... For < 20 minutes → Vasoconstriction of the arterioles and venules in the area For 20-30 minutes →An intermittent period of vasodilation (4-6 minutes) Hunting response After 20-30 minutes of cold application, an intermittent supply of warm blood to cold exposed extremities, leading to a slight temperature increase The tissue temperature does not return to pre-application levels Reaction against tissue damage from too much cold exposure

question

List 3 of the possible adverse reactions to cold

answer

Some individuals are allergic to cold and react with hives, joint pain, and swelling Raynaud's phenomenon is a condition that causes vasospasm of digital arteries lasting for minutes to hours, which could lead to tissue death. Causes are unknown Icing through a towel or an elastic bandage limits the reduction in temperature, which could influence the effectiveness of the treatment Frostbite has been know to occur in subfreezing temperatures of 26.6 to 24.8F (-3 to -4C)

question

Describe the procedure of cryokinetics exercise

answer

Combines cryotherapy with exercise Numb the injured part at the point of analgesia and then work toward achieving normal ROM 15-20 minutes of cryotherapy (if numbness is not perceived within 20 minutes, AT should proceed with exercise regardless) Numbness will last for 3-5 minutes Exercise are performed during the periods of numbness (have to be pain free and progressive in intensity) Reapply cryotherapy Repeat five times

question

How hot is the hydrocollator?

answer

Immersed in thermostatically controlled hot water at temperature of 160-170°F (71.1 to 76.7°C)

question

85. How many layers of toweling are required for an application of hydrocollator pack?

answer

Six layer of toweling should be used between the packs and the skin

question

What are the effect and limitation of thermotherapy with hydrocollator packs?

answer

The deeper tissues, including the musculature are not significantly heated

question

What are the three types of electrotherapeutic current?

answer

Biphasic (AC) The direction of current flow reverses itself once during each cycle Used for pain modulation or muscle contraction Monophasic (DC) Flows in one direction only from the positive to negative pole Most used electrical stimulators in AT setting Pulsatile Contains 3 or more pulses grouped together Used in interferential and Russian currents

question

Gate control theory is used for?

answer

Electric stimulation of sensory nerves will evoke the gate control mechanism Pain message are carried along Aδ and C fiber afferents Sensory information are carried along Aα and Aß fiber afferents Sensory information overrides/inhibits the pain information— "closing the gate" to transmission of pain information to 2nd order neurons Pain information is not transmitted and never reaches sensory centers in the brain

question

90. List 5 application of electrical stimulation (a muscle contraction can be used for?)

answer

Muscle pumping Muscle strengthening Retardation of atrophy Muscle reeducation Iontophoresis The introduction of ions into the body tissues by means of a direct electrical current An active pad with a solution containing the ions is positioned as close as possible to the involved tissue Positively charged ions are transported into the tissue from the positive pole and vise versa

question

What are the two effects of a therapeutic ultrasound therapy unit?

answer

...Piezoelectric effect When an alternating electrical current is passed through certain crystal, the crystal will expand and contract or vibrate, which produce s ultrasound Frequency At 1 MHz, the energy reach deeper tissue at depth s of 3 to 5 cm At 3 MHz, the energy is absorbed in the more superficial tissues (1 to 2 cm) Intensity Determined by the amount of energy delivered to the applicator Ranges from 0.1 to 1.5W/cm2

question

Why do we need to use coupling medium to use ultra sound?

answer

Cannot travel through air Need a coupling medium, such as water or ultrasound gel

question

Ultra sound with lower frequency can be applied for [deep/superficial] tissue

answer

...

question

What does the duty cycle of ultra sound unit mean?

answer

The percentage of time that ultrasound is being generated

question

When do you use continuous/pulsed ultrasound? How do you decide which US to use?

answer

Continuous ultrasound The sound intensity remains constant throughout the treatment The ultrasound energy is being produced 100% of the time Commonly used to produce thermal effect + non-thermal effect Pulsed ultrasound The out put is periodically interrupted and no ultrasound energy is produced during the off period Used for non-thermal effect without thermal effect, which may be associated with soft-tissue healing

question

How should you move the transducer of ultrasound unit? (i.e. how fast?)

answer

Moving the transducer Should be moved slowly at approx. 1½ inches (4cm) per seconds Too fast—ineffective Too slow—create "hot spot" , could result in burning Can be in a circular pattern or a stroking pattern

question

List 3 contraindications of ultrasound therapy

answer

Should not be applied to highly fluid areas Eyes, ears, testes, brain, spinal cord, and heart Pain is the best indicators of over dosage Do not apply to an anesthetized areas Great care must be taken in areas that have reduced circulation Acute injury should not be treated with thermal ultrasound Epiphyseal areas in children should have only minimum ultrasound exposure Pregnancy Infection, Malignancy (tumor) Total joint replacements

question

List 3 contraindications of massage therapy

answer

Reflexive effect Effect on pain—gate control theory, release of endogenous opiads Effect on circulation—vasodilation of lymphatic and small capillaries Effect on metabolism—increased dispersion of waste products Mechanical effect Effect on skin—stretches and breaks down the fibrous tissue Effect on muscle—increase blood flow to skeletal muscle Psychological responses "hands-on" effect helps athletes feel as if someone is helping them Effleurage Stroking divided into light and deep Can be used as a sedative or to move fluids Petrissage Kneading Involves picking up skin between thumb and forefinger, rolling and twisting in opposite directions Used for deep tissue work Friction Used around joints and in areas where tissue is thin Areas w/ underlying scarring, adhesions, spasms and fascia

question

What are the first two major short-term goals in acute injury rehabilitation?

answer

...Controlling pain Minimizing initial swelling

question

What is the ultimate long term goal of rehabilitation?

answer

Return the injured athlete to practice/competition as quickly and safely as possible

question

What is the difference between therapeutic exercise and conditioning exercise?

answer

Therapeutic exercises are concerned with restoring normal body function after injury Conditioning exercise are concerned with improving the physical capability of an athlete by a program

question

Which type of muscle is affected by immobilization? (size, number)

answer

The greatest atrophy occurs in the type I (slow T) fibers Type I develop Type II (fast twitch) characteristics Type I fibers diminish in number Can be prevented through isometric contraction or ES

question

List all components of a rehabilitation program (8 components)

answer

Minimizing swelling Controlling pain Restoring full ROM Restoring muscle strength, endurance, and power Reestablishing neuromuscular control Regaining balance Maintaining CV fitness Incorporating functional progressions

question

How can we control initial swelling?

answer

RICE principle should be applied

question

How can we modulate pain?

answer

The AT can modulate acute pain by using the RICE technique immediately after injury Cryotherapy Thermotherapy Electrical stimulating current

question

When would joint mobilization be needed to restore range of motion?

answer

Isometric When a joint is immobilized ↑static strength, ↓amount of atrophy, ↓swelling (muscle pumping action)

question

List 4 types of exercise and characteristics of each exercise

answer

Isometric When a joint is immobilized ↑static strength, ↓amount of atrophy, ↓swelling (muscle pumping action) Isotonic (Progressive resistance) Force is generated while the muscle is changing in length Concentric/Eccentric Eccentric contractions facilitate concentric contraction in plyometric exercise Isokinetic Later phases of a rehabilitation program Fixed speed w/ accommodating resistance Measures of torque, average power, total work, torque/body weight ratio Plyometric Improve the production of muscle force & power Stretch-Shortening cycle by muscle spindle activity Eccentric—Amortization—Concentric

question

What does the central nervous system consist of?

answer

The brain and spinal cord Put together information coming from Muscle Joint receptors Cutaneous, visual, and vestibular input Conducts motor information from the brain to muscles (skeletal, cardiac, smooth muscles)

question

What are the four key elements of reestablishing neuromuscular control?

answer

Proprioceptive & kinesthetic awareness Dynamic stability Preparatory & reactive muscle characteristics Conscious and unconscious functional motor patterns

question

Define proprioception and kinesthesia

answer

Proprioception The ability to determine the position of a joint in space Kinesthesia The ability to detect movement Joint mechanoreceptors Found in ligaments,capsules, menisci, labra, and fat pads Sensitive to Changes in the shape of various joint structures Rate and direction of movement of the joint Muscle mechanoreceptors Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs

question

Joint mechanoreceptors are sensitive to?

answer

Sensitive to Changes in the shape of various joint structures Rate and direction of movement of the joint

question

How should the functional skill exercise be progressed?

answer

Incorporate sport-specific skills Follow a consistent progression Simple→complex, slow→fast, short→longer, Light→heavy Functional testing Cutting, Jumping Figure 8 Changing direction Slowing

question

What is the difference between prescription drug and over the counter drug?

answer

prescription are stronger

question

What are the 4 components of pharmacokinetics?

answer

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, and Excretion of Drugs

question

Define pharmacodynamics?

answer

The actions or the effects of a drug on the body

question

Define bioavailability, efficacy, potency, and drug half-life?

answer

Bioavailability How completely a particular drug is absorbed by the system and available to produce a response Efficacy (effectiveness) The potential maximum therapeutic response that a drug can produce Potency (strength) The dose of the drug that is required to produce a desired therapeutic effect The amount of time required for the plasma drug level to be reduced by ½ Determining how often and in what dosage a drug must be administered to maintain therapeutic levels of concentration

question

Metabolism is mainly taken place at?

answer

Metabolism Biotransformation Transforming a drug into water-soluble compounds so it can be metabolized (excreted) Most of the metabolism takes place in the liver—transform most active drugs into inactive compounds

question

Excretion is taken place at?

answer

Excretion Controlled primarily by the kidney Drugs are filtered through the kidney and are usually excreted in the urine

question

If the athlete is a minor, who is supposed to carry his/her drug when they travel?

answer

Make sure that any medication an athlete takes is given to the athletic trainer/coach The athlete's parent should give AT the medication in its original container written permission from the parent prescription notes from the physician

question

NSAID(S) is an acronym of

answer

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug

question

Cortisone shot is used for? And what are the complications of prolonged use of it?

answer

Cortisone is the most common Primarily for chronic inflammation Given orally or by injection Prolonged use of corticosteroids can produce serious complications Musculoskeletal and joint impairment Delayed wound healing Neurological impairment Metabolic impairments Cortisone injected directly into tendons, ligaments and joint spaces can lead to weakness and degeneration

question

Define ergogenic aid

answer

Any method, legal or illegal, used to enhance athletic performance Include Stimulants Human growth hormone Blood doping Diuretics Bata blockers Narcotic analgesics Anabolic steroids

question

What are body's reactions to large amount of caffeine intake?

answer

In larger amounts—￪BP, ￬and￪HR, affects coordination, sleep, mood, behavior , and thinking process

question

What are two effects of anabolic steroids?

answer

Promote nitrogen retention, which leads to protein synthesis in skeletal muscles Result in increased muscle mass and weight, general growth, and bone maturation

question

List 4 adverse effects of anabolic steroids

answer

Male pattern baldness Acne Aggressive behavior Increased cholesterol Reduction in size of testicle Liver tumors Cancer Heart disease Hypertension CNS dysfunction

question

What are the risks of blood reinjection?

answer

Allergic reactions Kidney damage Fever Jaundice Transmitting infectious diseases (Hepatitis B/ HIV) Metabolic shock

question

USADA is an acronym of?

answer

U.S. Anti-Doping Agency - USADA

question

What are the three layers of skin? Describe their functions

answer

Epidermis The outermost layer of the skin Itself is composed of several layers Function Act as a barrier against invading microorganisms, foreign particles, chemicals, and ultraviolet rays Helps contain the body's water and electrolytes Performs heat regulation for conduction, radiation, convection Dermis Beneath the epidermis composed of connective tissue Function Provides mechanical support to the epidermis Contains blood vessels, nerves, sweat glands, hair follicles, sebaceous glands Holds water and electrolytes Subcutis The deepest layer of the skin Contains fat (subcutaneous fat) Function Temperature regulation/insulation Energy storage

question

Define hyperkeratosis and how do you manage it?

answer

Hyperkeratosis Excessive growth of the horny tissue layer of the epidermis Etiology Increases in thickness as response to constant friction and pressure Management Carefully paring it with a callus trimmer or sharp scalpel Apply medication to maintain some tissue elasticity Donut pad to prevent pain Assess foot mechanic problem

question

Management of intact/open blisters

answer

A small pocket of fluid below/within the epidermis Etiology Sharing forces produce a raised area that contains a collection of fluid S&S Feel a hot spot, sharp and burning sensation Pain will be caused by the pressure of the fluid Management Wearing two pair of socks Wearing the correct size shoe Use a friction-reducing material (second skin) Open blister Keep it clean to avoid infection Wash with soap and water, then apply antiseptic and antibiotic ointment Lay the flap of skin back over the treated tissue Apply a sterile, non-adhering dressing and a donut pad Same management as the intact blister The denuded blister (more than ½ are torn) Completely remove the flap of skin using sterile scissors Clean the exposed tissue with soap and water Apply and antiseptic liquid with occlusive dressing Applying the "second skin" ensures healing through the night

question

Management of hard/soft corns

answer

Hard corn (clavus durus) The most serious type of corn Caused by the pressure of improperly fitting shoes and anatomical abnormalities Forms on the tops of hammertoes Local pain Disability with inflammation of soft tissue Surgical removal by a podiatrist if needed Proper shoe fitting is the key of prevention

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Management of any kind of open wound

answer

All open wounds should be cared for immediately Cleansing with soap and water Applying a dressing containing and antiseptic If the wounds to be examined by a physician, no medication should be added to the dressing

question

What is MRSA and how do they transmit? 135. Many MRSA infections can be treated by?

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Community Acquired Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus infection Any strain of staphylococcus aureus that is resistant to a large group of antibiotics MRSA strains are not only resistant to the antibiotic called methicillin, but also to many other types of antibiotics Person to person contact Shared towels and soaps Improperly treated whirlpools and equipment Antibiotics is not completely powerless against MRSA Require a much higher dose over a much longer period The use of an alternative antibiotic Many MRSA infections can only be treated with antibiotics that need to be given directly into a vein The course of treatment is often required for several weeks Maintaining good hygiene and avoiding contact with drainage from skin lesions are best method for prevention

question

136. Tinea pedis is [viral/bacterial/fungal] infection, and How is it called in commonly?

answer

Etiology The most common form of superficial fungal infection An itchy, dry, scaling infection of the sole of the foot are caused by T.rubrum Web space infection located between the toes are often caused by T.mentagrophytes Shoes that are enclosed will perspire, encouraging fungal growth S&S An extreme itching on the sole of the feet and web space Appears as a dry, scaling patch or inflammatory Management Topical antifungal Good foot hygiene

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Herpes simples is [viral/bacterial/fungal] infection

answer

A strain of virus that is associated with skin and mucous membrane infection Type 1 & 2—both can be found anywhere on the skin or mucous membrane Highly contagious Usually transmitted through direct contact Recurrent attacks can be triggered by sunlight, emotional disturbances, illness, fatigue Antiviral drugs are used to shorten the course and reduce the recurrence If not carefully managed, can lead to secondary infection Keratoconjunctivitis—an inflammation of cornea and conjunctiva that could lead to loss of vision Not all individuals infected with the virus develop overt symptom Early indication—a tingling or hypersensitivity Local swelling, followed by the appearance of vesicles Feel generally ill with a headache and sore throat, lymph gland swelling, and pain

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142 What are 4 returning criteria for athlete with mono?

answer

An acute infectious vial disease (kissing disease) By the Estein-Barr Virus (A member of the herpes group) 4-6weeks of incubation period S&S Headache, fatigue, loss of appetite, and myalgia Enlarged spleen, jaundice, skin rash, puffy eyelids Complication: ruptured spleen, meningitis, hepatitis, and anemia Management Acetaminophen for headache, fever, and malaise Returning criteria for athletes The spleen is not markedly enlarged or painful (CT scan may be used) Athlete is afebrile (feverless) Liver function tests are normal Pharyngitis and any complication have resolved

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What is asthma? What is going on?

answer

One of the most common respiratory diseases A spasm of the bronchial wall smooth muscles Exact cause of bronchial asthma is not clear Triggered by—viral infection, emotional upset, changes in temperature... Triggered by exercise—exercise-induced asthma (EIA) S&S Difficulty breathing—hyperventilate, dizziness Chest tightness, wheezing, shortness of breath Management Regular exercise program can benefit asthmatics Avoiding cold and dry air Bronchodilator—Albuterol, Salmeterol

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144 How do you manage an athlete with iron deficiency anemia?

answer

Management Eat a proper diet (more red meat/dark poultry) Avoid coffee and tea Take an iron supplement Management Reducing distance or mileage

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What are 2 environmental conditions that increase the risk of sickle cell crisis?

answer

A sickle cell crisis can be brought on by exposure to height altitude or by overheating

question

How does sickle cell trait inherit?

answer

The inheritance of one gene for sickle hemoglobin and one for normal hemoglobin

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Management of Sickle cell collapse

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Medical Emergency Check vital sign Administer high-flow oxygen, 15 lpm with a non-rebreather face mask Cool the athlete if necessary If the athlete is obtunded or as vital signs decline, call 911, attach and AED, start an IV, and get the athlete to the hospital fast Tell the doctors to expect explosive rhabdomyolysis and grave metabolic complication Proactively prepare by having an EAP

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149 What is the difference between type I and type II diabetes?

answer

Type I—insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM) Primarily in individuals under 35 and represent 5-10% of all cases Type II—non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) Commonly associated with obesity Occurs in all age groups

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150 Management of athlete with diabetes mellitus

answer

IDDM may occur suddenly Constant thirst and hunger, weight loss, tiredness and weakness, blurred vision Management Controlling blood glucose levels is essential Balanced diet Daily doses of insulin as needed Regular exercise can increase insulin action

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151 S&S of diabetic coma 152 Define Insulin shock?

answer

If diabetes is not treated properly, the diabetic can develop acidosis Loss of sodium, potassium and ketone bodies through excessive urination produces ketoacidosis, which can lead to coma Hyper/Hypoglycemia S&S Labored breathing or gasping for air Fruity smelling breath(hyperglycemia), Nausea, vomiting, thirst Mental confusion and unconsciousness Management Life-threatening situation Monitoring blood glucose level prior to,during, and after activity Injection of insulin(hyper)/glucagons(hypo) into patient Tingling in the mouth, hands, or other body parts Physical weakness, irritability, and drowsiness Headaches, abdominal pain Normal or shallow respirations Rapid heartbeat

question

153 What are two type of epilepsy and how do you deal with on-going seizure? 153 What are two type of epilepsy and how do you deal with on-going seizure?

answer

Management Restriction on participating in some sports Anticonvulsant medication

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