ATC – Flashcard

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question
In what city is the FAA administrators office located?
answer
Washington DC
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According to their location and type, Air Traffic Organization (ATO) air traffic facilities are assigned to one of?
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3 service areas
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Each primary office of the ATO of the FAA is managed by a
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administrator
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the purpose of the air traffic control system in the usa is to? a prevent collisions b organize the flow of air traffic c expedite the flow of air traffic d all of the above are primary purposes
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all of the above
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first priority in the atc system is given to
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separating traffic
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Nonradar separation of aircraft is used by controllers in preference to radar separation when
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an operational advantage will be gained
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The primary navaids for the nations airways in the national airspace system are
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VORs
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which statement is not correct concerning the provision of additional services? Providing aircraft with traffic advisories, weather information, and holding pattern surveillance are all types of additional services providing additional services is optional on the part of the controller additional services are required when the work situation permits Ability to provide additional services may be limited by higher priority duties and controller work load
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additional services are required when the work situation permits
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The automated flight service position that initiates services required in search and rescue situations is the
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Flight Data.NOTAM/Coordinator position
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The facility primarily responsible for conducting pilot briefings and processing IFR flight plans is the
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AFSS
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The control facility that has no direct control authority over IFR or VFR traffic is
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AFSS
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the primary purpose of the traffic management unit is to
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ensure maximum efficiency in the utilization of the of the national airspace system, in order to produce safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic
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Operating the traffic management system is the responsibility of the
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Air Traffic Control System Command center
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Which of the following is not the function of the clearance delivery position in a control tower? Operation communication equipment Compiling statistical data Issuing clearances and ensuring accuracy of readback processing and forwarding flight plan information none of these are functions of the clearance delivery system
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Compiling statistical data
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what position in the control tower initiates control instructions
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Local control position
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Who in the control tower is responsible for initiating coordination and obtaining approval for an aircraft to cross an active runway?
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Ground control
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The facility that provides atc services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the enroute phase of flight is?
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ARTCC
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The en route sector team member in an ARTCC who scans and manages the flight progress strips and who also may accept handoffs via landline communications is the?
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Radar Associate
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which en route sector team member's duties do not include accepting handoffs?
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Radar flight data
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In a terminal radar facility (TRACON), who has direct responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a facility sector
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radar team
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what runway marking is made up of 8 longitudinal white stripes of uniform dimensions that are arranged symmetrically on either side of the runway centerline?
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Threshold
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an unusable portion of runway which appears to be usable to a pilot and which is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a
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blast pad
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the centerline of a taxiway is marked with what kind of line?
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continuous yellow
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taxiway edge lights are
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blue
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a runway alligned on a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated as Runway...?
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36
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if a controller is holding two aircraft at different fixes, with one aircraft at 8000 ft and another at 9000 ft but the holding patter airspaces overlapped each other, would that controller have separation between these two aircraft? If so what kind
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yes, vertical
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at an airport with an operation control tower, an air traffic clearance is required to operate in all areas except
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nonmovement areas
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minimum vertical separation for an IFR flight at or below FL410 is
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2000 ft
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min vertical separation for RVSM aircraft between FL290 and FL410
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1000 ft
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min vertical separation for RVSM aircraft above FL to FL600
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2000 ft
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an en route atc facility providing radar separation between two aircraft at FL270 must provide not less than how many miles separation?
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There is no minimum lateral separation
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radar separation above FL600 requires how many miles of separation between aircraft?
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There is no prescribed minimum lateral separation
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to apply the rule concerning lateral departure divergence a controller must assign headings which diverge by at least how many degrees?
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45
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For terminal facility to provider visual separation between two arriving IFR aircraft what visual conditions between the aircraft and tower must exist?
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both aircraft must be visually observed by the tower
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the minimum vertical separation required below an aircraft which is dumping fuel is
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2000 ft
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in the en route environment, other that visual separation, what can a controller do to place two aircraft with the least distance between them
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use vertical separation
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what phrase is used to relay an ATC clearance to an aircraft through another aircraft?
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ATC clears
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which of these is not a controllers concern when giving holding instructions?
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all of these are a concern
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which of these is a purpose of issuing holding instructions
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all of these are purposes
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T/F when two aircraft are departing from the same runway, the tower controller must ensure that the second aircraft does not begin its takeoff roll until the first aircraft has crossed the departure end of the runway
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False
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An ATC clearance that keeps an aircraft within a specified airspace, a specified ground area, or at a specified point, while awaiting further ATC clearance is a
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holding clearance
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the facility responsible for accepting, classifying and disseminating NOTAMS is
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AFSS
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who is responsible for originating NOTAMS
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FSS
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Who is responsible for validating NOTAM data as well as operating the national NOTAM system?
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NFDC
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Responsibility for supervising the regional collection of disseminations of NOTAMs belongs to
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the service area office
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A NOTAM that is locally disseminated is called a
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NOTAM L
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who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
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Airport manager/operator
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A VFR flight plan is
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recommended
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no person may operate aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless they have file a
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Flight plan and received an ATC clearance
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The upper limit of Class G airspace
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the base of any overlying airspace
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a pilot in command operation in VFR conditions shall not cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in what airspace?
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Class A
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when operating an aircraft at an airport that has an operation control tower, the pilot must have
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two way radio communications with the tower
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a pilot should file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will
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enter a coastal ADIZ
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which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
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name of each occupant
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T/F Special VFR conditions are weather conditions less than basic VFR in Class b, c, d, e surface areas in which some aircraft are permitted flight under Visual flight rules
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True
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which ATC facility has search and rescue responsibility for aircraft on a special VFR flight plan
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The rcc
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which type of radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does not require cooperative equipment in an aircraft?
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primary radar
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what is a radar-based system that uses both ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
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Secondary radar
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what is the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion
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moving target indicator
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which of these features of radar reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation
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circular polarization
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what causes anomalous propagation clutter?
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warm air over cold air deflection the radar signal
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what is the term for secondary radar interference caused by an improperly adjusted transponder operation near the radar antenna?
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ring around
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which of the following is an advantage of a secondary radar system
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its displays are not degraded by weather echoes or ground clutter
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which official document prescribes air traffic control procedures and phraseology used by the faa?
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7110/65
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which official document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities
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7210.3
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which document contains the approved words and phrase contractions used by personnel in the faa
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7340.1
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which document lists the location identifiers?
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7350.7
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when used in FAA orders shall means?
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mandatory
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should means
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recommended
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revised, reprinted or new pages in orders are indicated by bold
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vertical lines
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factors affecting flight safety are found in which document?
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AIM
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the addition deletion or modification of information or instructions withing an FAA order are made through a
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change
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which of the following might be addressed in a LOA between two ARTCCs?
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radar handoff procedures
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a LOA is required to implement the delegation of responsibility for which control service?
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approach
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which of the following would not require an LOA
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intrafacility coordination
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concerning LOAs, after approval by the service area office, the Air traffic manager is responsible for?
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all of the above
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which document prescribes flight service procedures and phraseology used by the faa?
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7110.10
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the purposes of standard operating practices are to provide guidelines for
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intrafacility
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one purpose of the standard operating procedures is to
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specify jurisdictional boundaries for each position/sector
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the airspace that generally extends from the earth's surface to 10000 ft MSL that surrounds a busy airport is designated at what airspace?
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B
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the lower vertical limit of class B airspace is
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the surface
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what airspace is generally established from the earths surface to 4000 ft above the airport elevation and which has an operational control tower
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C
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the upper vertical limit of class A airspace is
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FL600
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what is the maximum indicated airspeed of an aircraft operation within class c or d airspace?
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200 kts
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a formation flight may be conducted by two pilots when
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prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard
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an aircraft has the right of way over all other aircraft when it is in
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distress
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the special use airspace that overlies an aerial gunnery range is called a
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restricted area
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MOAs consist of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of
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separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
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upon request of authorized officials, personnel holding an atc tower operators certificate shall
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present the certificate for inspection
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an atc specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the terminal option is required to have a medical exam ever
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1 year
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no person may operate an aircraft uner VFR in class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than
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3 sm
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the distance from clouds for VFR flights in class C and D airspace is
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500 ft below, 1000 ft above, 2000 ft horizontally
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an appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 8500 ft and more than 3000 agl is
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190
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how high and how far away from the highest obstacle must a pilot fly in mountainous terrain
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2000 ft, 4 nm
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at or above what altitude does a speed limit no longer exist and what visibility must you maintain in class E airspace?
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10000 ft, 5 sm
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which of the following statements is not true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?
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A SVFR flight plan must be filed
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A pilot maintaining VFR on top in class E airspace
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is not on an IFR flight plan
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if an aircraft on an IFR flight plan that is in VFR conditions has two-way radio failure, the pilot shall
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proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
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what is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15000 msl
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each occupant must be provided with supplemental oxygen
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the three principal airfoils on an aircraft that produce lift are
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the wing, the propeller horizontal tail surfaces
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the extension of flaps causes an increase in
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drag
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when air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing verses the bottom, this will result in what kind of pressure
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low pressure above the wing
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what are the three factors that affect the density of the air?
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temperature, atmospheric pressure and humidity
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for an aircraft to maintain a constant airspeed and to maintain straight and level flight what must be in balance
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lift and weight, thrust and drag
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which two aircraft movements are controlled by the yoke?
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pitch and roll
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which control allows the pilot to relieve manual pressure on the primary controls?
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trim tab
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the most hazardous consequence of structural icing is
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distortion of the airfoil
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what are the 3 categories of aircraft
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1 2 3
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category of small business jet
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3
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category of aircraft weighing 12500 lbs or less with a single engine, propeller
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1
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category of helicopters
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1
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category of turbojet
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3
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category of twin turboprop weighing 12500 lbs or less
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2
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speed cat 1
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100-160
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speed cat 2
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160-250
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speed cat 3
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300-350
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weight classes of an aircraft
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small, large heavy
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turbojets limited to what weight class?
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all of them
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an aircraft has a 300,000 lb max certified takeoff weight, whats the weight class?
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heavy
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an aircraft has a maximum gross takeoff weight of 355,000 lbs. today its takeoff weight is 275,000 lbs, what is its weight class?
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heavy
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an aircraft in the small weight class has a max certified takeoff weight of
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41000 lbs or less
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longer takeoff run and lower climb rate?
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higher elevation
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T/F an aircraft will approach an airport at a faster ground speed than otherwise under conditions of low density altitude assuming that the aircrafts indicated airspeed remains the same
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?
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T/F if all other atmospheric conditions are kept constant, dry air is more dense than humid air.
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True
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T/F air that is warmer than standard is less dense than air that is below standard temperature
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true
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t/f air at an elevation of 9000 ft is less dense than air at 13000 ft
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false
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who is responsible for ensuring the uniform designations of aircraft throughout the worlds aviation community
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ICAO
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T/F reciprocating,k turbo prop and turbo jet are 3 basic types of aircraft engines
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T
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what are two types of engines that use propellers
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reciprocating and turboprop
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what is not a basic wing placement?
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tandem wing
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T/F straight wing and delta wing are the same thing?
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False
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T/F landing gear are either fixed or retractable
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True
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An aircraft with a wheel at the rear of the aircraft is referred to as ?
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conventional
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what shapes can windows be?
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any
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T/F an aircrafts design function, the type of power plant or engine used and the materials used in its construction are all factors that influence the shape of the fuselage
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T
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designator for bomber
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b
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T/F when coordinates are used to define position, latitude is used first
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true
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the reference line on the earth for measuring latitude distances is the
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equator?
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how many minutes are in 1 degree of latitude
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60
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how do you convert local daylight savings time to UTC
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add the conversion factor then subtract 1 hour
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at 3pm dst in nyc, what time uts is it?
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?
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the angular difference between true north and magnetic north at nay given place is called
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isogonic line
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true heading is true course corrected for the effects of
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wind
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what term denotes a magnetic compass error that is caused by materials within the aircraft which possess magnetic properties
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deviation
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navigation by reference to visible landmarks is called
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pilotage
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positions on the earths surface are described in terms of
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latitude and longitude
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time zones are established on earth for every
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15 degrees of longitude
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a nm = how many sm?
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1.15
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coordinated universal time is also referred to as what?
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ZULU
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the navigational method based solely on computing air speed course wind ground speed and elapsed time is
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dead reckoning
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an aircraft travels at 250 knots for 3.5 hours how far has he travelled?
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875
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an aircraft 150kts true airspeed flies directly into a 20 knot head wind for 3 hours how far has that aircraft flown?
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?
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which of these conditions will cause an aircrafts ias to increase?
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?
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The only line of latitude that is a great circle is the
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equator
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A VOR station projects
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360 usable magnetic radials
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A TACAN station projects
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360 usable magnetic radials
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A TACAN transmitters frequencies are in what band?
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UHF
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DME distance is displayed as what
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slant range
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An ILS approach becomes a nonprecision approach if what fails?
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glideslope
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The purpose of a marker beacon is to
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identify a particular location
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generally, the vertical dimensions of the low altitude VOR airway structure are from
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1200 ft AGL up to but not including 18000 ft MSL
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The vertical dimensions of the Jet route system are
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18000 ft MSL up to but not including FL450
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the non radar lateral protected airspace of a victor airway within 51 NM of a NAVAID is
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?183
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An NDB used in conjuntion with the ILS is called a
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compass locator
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the component of the ILS which gives lateral course guidance toward the runway is the
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localizer
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The component of the ILS which provides the vertical guidance and descent angle is the
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glideslope
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the difference between DME slant range and actual horizontal distance is greatest when?
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at high altitudes close to the NAVAID
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which of these NAVAIDS is the least accurate?
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NDB
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an approach is termed precision because it has?
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electronic glideslope information
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T/F controllers are responsible for providing current prevailing visibility/RVR appropriate to Rwy in use; however, they are NOT responsible for determining that landing minimums do or do not exist.
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t
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IAPs are designed to?
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provide an IFR descent from the en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made.
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when the glideslope component of an ILS is inoperative...
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it is classified as a localizer approach
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which of the following is an optional component of the ILS?
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Inner marker beacon
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which is NOT a characteristic of a NDB
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It is more accurate than a VOR
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T/F an aircraft must be in IMC to be authorized to execute an IAP
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False
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Which of these is NOT a section depicted on an IAP
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the airport diagram
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which component of an ILS make that ILS approach not authorized if it fails
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glideslope
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a large difference between a Sectional chart and a TAC is that the TAC
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provides greater detail and a larger scale
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the primary use for sectionals is what kind of flight? and what speed?
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VFR; slow and medium
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on vfr charts, airports with control towers are always depicted
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in the color blue
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the height of an obstruction is indicated on a VFR chart in feet above
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both ground and sea level
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If no changeover point is depicted along an airway on an IFR chart it means,
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the changeover is to be made at the halfway point between the two NAVAIDs
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how is class A airspace depicted on a High altitude en route chart
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white
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SIDs have been established at certain airports to
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simplify clearance delivery, expedite traffic flow and reduce pilot controller workload
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T/F pilots are required to include the phrase NO SID on their flight plans if they do NOT want ATC to assign a SID to that flight
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False
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which of these statements are true regarding a STAR
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?
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the DH for an instrument apporach
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is always expressed in AGL
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T/F MSAs are for emergency use only and do NOT ensure reception of NAVAIDS
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false
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on a federal government produced IFR en route chart a frequency which is underlined withing a communication Box indicates that
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ther is no voice transmitted on that frequency
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Charts that are specifically designed to provide aeronautical information used during instrument flight are
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Low altitude en route charts
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which instrument is not connected to the pitot static system?
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attitude indicator
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which of these flight instruments would be affected if the pitot tube became clogged (but not the static port)?
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?
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T/F if an aircrafts altimeter is not set to the correct local altimeter setting, and the aircraft is flying in lower than standard air pressure the aircraft will be flying lower than the altitude indicates
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true
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the altitude above terrain is
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absolute altitude
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what information is obtained from the attitude indicator?
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degrees of bank
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an attitude indicator is capable of showing both
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bank angle and pitch attitude
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the VOR course deviation needle will indicate an aircrafts position in relation to the selected
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radial
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the range information displayed by DME is called?
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slant range
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because of precession, an unslaved gyroscopic heading indicator must be periodically set by the pilot to agree with the
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magnetic compass
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which of the following is a self contained direction seeking instrument?
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magnetic compass
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In order to fly a desired course toward a VOR station, the pilot must ensure that the aircrafts heading agrees with the course set on the VOR selector, the instrument displays a TO indication and the
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VOR needle is centered
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T/F a transponder code consists of 4 digits with each digit being 0-7
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t
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modern transport category aircraft flight instrumentation systems typically contain a
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all of these
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the FMS is
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a computer database used for navigation
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the pusrpose of TCAS is to
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prevent mid air collisions
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T/F the resolution advisory information that a TCAS system displays to a pilot is also displayed on a controllers radar
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false
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T/F the resolution advisory information provided by TCAS system involves a change in altitude or a change in the rate of climb or descent, NOT a change in heading
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True
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An HSI is a combination of 3 instruments, the glideslope indicator, the VOR indicator, and what else?
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heading indicator
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Hypoxia is a condition of the body that exists when there is
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a lack of oxygen in the body tissue
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hyperventilation is a condition which
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can result when a stressful situation is encountered
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T/F urgency is a condition of being concerned about safety and of requiring timely, but not immediate assistance; a potential distress situation
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False
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PAN PAN PAN, MAY DAY, MAY DAY, MAY DAY
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urgency, distress
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the minimum amount of information that is required for handling an emergency is?
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aircraft ID and type, nature of emergency and pilots desires
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if an aircraft declares an emergency while on a controllers frequency, that controller should normally
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leave the aircraft on that controllers frequency
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when a bomb threat has been received involving an aircraft you are working, you should inform the pilot of the threat and
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comply with any pilot requests
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the exclusive transponder code for hijacked aircraft is
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7500
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an aircraft experiencing two-way radio failure is expected to squawk
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7700
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universal emergency frequencies?
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121.5 243
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T/F the use of the term minimum fuel indicates that this is not an emergency situation but indicates that an emergency is possible should any undue delay occur
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True
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an ELT required on most general aviation airplanes is designed to
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all of the above
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if necessary to provide maximum assistance in an emergency, what information should the controller get from the pilot?
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all of the above
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who has final responsibility for the course of action to be followed in an emergency
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pilot
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an emergency situation exists if it is declared by the
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pilot, atc facility, or aircraft operator
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which facility has initial search and rescue responsibility for aircraft on a VFR flight plan?
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RCC
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which facility is equipped and manned to coordinate and conduct search and rescue operations in an area designated by the national search and rescue plan?
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all of these
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an aircraft on a n IFR flight plan that is estimated over the RED table VOR at 2015 has failed to report. This aircraft is considered overdue at what time?
answer
2045
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the ALNOT search area is generally described as
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50 miles either side of the rout of flight from the last reported position to destination
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an aircraft NOT on a flight plan fails to arrive at its destination. A reliable source reports that the flight was due to arrive at 1200 UTC this aircraft is considered overdue at
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1230
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the transfer of search for an overdue aircraft to RCC is done after
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ALNOT search had been completed with negative results
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which AFB is responsible for search and rescue coordination for the inland region of the conterminous states?
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Tyndall
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T/F every aircraft generates wake turbulence while in flight, regarless of its size
answer
T
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which condition will create the greatest wake turbulence effect for an individual aircraft?
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on approach to an airport
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concerning an aircrafts speed, configuration, weight, which has the greatest impact on wake turbulence?
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Weight
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when observing a fixed wing aircraft from behind the circulation of vortices of the right and left wing respectively are
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counter clockwise and clockwise
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the greatest wake turbulence is associated with which aircraft configuration?
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heavy clean and slow
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a helicopter generates wingtip vortices when
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lift is first generated
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for fixed wing aircraft, vortices that create wake turbulence begin at what stage of flight?
answer
rotation when lift begins
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for fixed wing aircraft, vortices that creat wake turbulence end at what stage of flight
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when lift ends after touchdown
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vortices from a large aircraft will sink approximately 300 to 500 fpm and level off below the flight path at approximately
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Each aircraft is different
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with zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of approximately how many knots?
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2-3
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T/F for landing aircraft, crosswinds of 1-5 knots can cause one vortex to settle over the runway and remain there
answer
True
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a hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?
answer
3 diameters of its rotors
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what must a helicopter do to generate wingtip votices?
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be in a hover
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another name for jetblast is
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thrust stream turbulence
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T/F the controller is responsible for anticipate the existance or effects of wake turbulence
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False
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wake turbulence has the greates impact on ATC in the areas of
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increase separation requirements and air traffic delays
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the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by water vapor already in the air is
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relative humidity
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the location where two different air masses meet is called a
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fromt
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an elongated area of low pressure is known as? while an elongated area of high pressure is known as
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trough ridge
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an elongated area of low pressure system is likely to produce the most sever weather why?
answer
?290
question
the jet stream is a narrow, high speed river of wind found near the
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tropopause
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the wind circulation around an area of low pressure in the northern hemisphere is
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counterclockwise
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the wind circulation around an area of high pressure in the northern hemisphere is
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clockwise
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which type of cloud has the prefix of nimbo or the suffix of nimbus?
answer
precipitation
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what cloud type frequently produces anvil shape and is most hazardous to aviation?
answer
cumulonimbus
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convective currents are usually caused by
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uneven heating of the earths surface
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the standard surface temperature at sea level is
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15 c 59 f
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standard pressure at sea level?
answer
2992, 1013.2
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in standard atmosphere, the tropopause is considered to extend from the surface to what altitude?
answer
32000 ft
question
an airmass may be modified by
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heating from below
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which of these characteristics is typical of stable airmasses?
answer
smooth air
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when a cold front overtakes a warm from, what kind of front is formed?
answer
occluded
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which of the following is not precipitation
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fog
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winds are caused by what? and flow from?
answer
pressure differences, high to low
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what is the lapse rate for temperature decreasing with altitude in a standard atmosphere?
answer
2 c/1000ft
question
jets streams generally flow from?
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west to east
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when a parcel of air has all the water vapor it can hold it is said to be
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saturated
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what type of clouds look like fluffy cotton balls of heaps, indicate upward vertical motion or thermal uplift of air and can produce sever turbulence, icing or other hazards
answer
cummuliform
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air flow around a high pressure diverges clockwise or counter clockwise and sinks or rises?
answer
counter clockwise sinks
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a warm moist airmass moving over a blank surface often produces blank, poor visibility stratiform clouds and drizzle
answer
?310
question
the three ingredients for precipitaion are
answer
water vapor, lift, growth process
question
what effect will an airplane experience when taking off with a tailwind?
answer
a longer takeoff roll is required
question
which airplane would be most at risk when landing with a 30 degree crosswind?
answer
single engine general aviation aircraft
question
what is the single cause of the largest number of fatal aviation accidents?
answer
visual flight into IMC
question
what can result in severe damage if ingested into an engine
answer
volcanic ash
question
mountian wave develops
answer
upwind
question
what type of turbulence causes aircraft occupants to be forced violently against seat belts or shoulder straps, unsecured objects to be tossed about and makes food service or walking impossible
answer
severe
question
Ice becomes perceptible and the rate of accumulation is slightly greater than the rate of sublimation. Deicing/antiicing equipment is not utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time. What type of ice is this?
answer
trace
question
higher density altitude conditions can affect an aircraft taking off by reducing power and thrus and by requiring
answer
a longer takepff roll
question
what is the name of an unscheduled report that is taken when certain criteria have been observed
answer
SPECI
question
the date and time of report elements of weather reports report time according to which reference
answer
UTC
question
what is the term that refers to the greatest distance that can be seen throughout at least half of the horizon circle, not necessarily continuous
answer
prevailing visibility
question
what is the value derived by instrument that represents the horizontal distance a pilot may see down the runway from the approach end
answer
RVR
question
in the METAR/SPECI sky condition group cloud heights are reported in
answer
hundreds of feet
question
32012G22KT 280V350
answer
wind three five zero at one two gusts two two wind variable between two eight zero and three five zero
question
R17/M0600FT
answer
Rwy one seven RVR less than 600
question
12/M02
answer
temperature one two dewpoint minus two
question
P: SCT030 BKN080 OVC120
answer
three thousand scattered ceiling eight hundred broken one two thousand overcast
question
PK wind23034/43
answer
Peak wind two three zero at three four occurred at four three past the hour
question
which in flight advisory would provide a forecast of occasionally severe turbulence over illinois
answer
SIGMET
question
which in flight advisory would provide a forecast of moderate icing over Utah and Nevada
answer
Airmet zulu
question
the purpose of a PIREP is
answer
to report weather conditions in flight
question
Controllers are required to solicit PIREPS when what is reported
answer
moderate turbulence
question
Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft altitude location and
answer
time
question
a controller assigned to monitor a radio frequency monitors it
answer
continuously
question
what words are used to interrupt a lower priority message ther is an emergency or control message to transmit
answer
Emergency and control
question
the first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is to deal with
answer
emergencies
question
how does a controller identify an airport traffic control tower
answer
by the name of the facility followed by the word tower
question
how does a controller identify an ARTCC
answer
name of station followed by CENTER
question
what is the prefix used for a domestic general aviation aircraft when the aircraft type model name and or manufacturers name are unknown
answer
?347
question
what is the prefix for a civilian airborne ambulance flight
answer
lifeguard
question
what letter precedes the airway number for a VOR airway and how is it pronounced
answer
V victor
question
what is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the president aboard
answer
executive one
question
what is the call sign for a military aircraft with the president aboard
answer
executive one
question
P121.5
answer
one two one point five
question
P: mach .78
answer
mach point seven eight
question
Jet route 21
answer
?354
question
VV 12345 and VV21345 have similar call signs and are on the same frequency. To transmit a mess age to VV12345 a controller would state
answer
Navy one two three four five
question
P 29.72
answer
altimeter two nine seven two
question
P: wind from 270 at 20
answer
wind two seven zero at two zero
question
P: 16000ft
answer
one six thousand
question
P: 31000
answer
flight level three one zero
question
Rwy 13C
answer
Rwy one three center
question
P: american airlines flight 52
answer
american fifty two
question
P:decision height of 920 MSL
answer
decision height niner two zero
question
P: heading of 020 degrees
answer
heading zero two zero
question
P: transponder 5216
answer
squawk five two one six
question
P: identifying an aircraft 20 miles west of the airport
answer
?365
question
P: mach .76
answer
mach point seven six
question
an actions to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another when the aircraft will enter the receiving controllers airspace and radio communication is transferred is called
answer
handoff
question
the physical or automated action to transfer identification of an aircraft from one controller to another, if the aircraft will or may enter the airspace of another controller but radio communications will not be transferred is a called a
answer
point out
question
what controller is responsible for initiating coordination and obtaining approval of an aircraft to cross an active runway
answer
ground controller
question
what is the action in which the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is changed from one controller to another
answer
transfer of control
question
before receiving a verbal breifing from the controller being relieved, the relieving controller shall
answer
Preview the position
question
which of these is a step in a proper controller position relief briefing
answer
all of these
question
during which step of the position relief process does the relieving controller check, verify, and update the position information obtained
answer
when reviewing the position
question
after the relieving controller has assumed responsibility for the sector, the relieved controller
answer
reviews all information for omissions or inaccuracies
question
if the specialist being relieved recognizes an inaccuracy immediately after relinquishing position responsibility, who should be notified?
answer
the relieving controller and any appropriate other position
question
the terminal flight progress strip has three different uses which include
answer
departure, arrival and overflight
question
what needs to be added to the letter s when hand printed on a flight progress strip?
answer
a horizontal line below the letter
question
T/F when marking strips a controller should place a horizontal line through a Z so it can be distinguished from the number 2
answer
T
question
on a flight progress strip what is the symbol to indicated that an aircrafts clearance is void if not airborne by a specific time?
answer
V<
question
what symbol on a flight progress strip is used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information
answer
X
question
which control symbol indicates that flight information has been forwarded by an ARTCC?
answer
Red circle
question
In which block can the aircraft ID be found on an enroute flight progress strip?
answer
3
question
in which block can the center estimated tome over the fix be found on an en route flight progress strip?
answer
15
question
for en route strips altitude information is found in which block?
answer
20
question
on terminal flight progress strips, block 5 is used for what purpose?
answer
transponder code
question
on terminal flight progress strips, altitude information is found in which block?
answer
9
question
on terminal flight progress strips which block contains the estimated time of arrival over a coordination fix
answer
8
question
T/F in any atc facility flight progress strips may be machine printed or they may be hand written
answer
True
question
T/F flight progress strips are considered to be legal documents
answer
true
question
the authorization by ATC for an aircraft to proceed under specific conditions to a destination is known as a
answer
clearance
question
a controller shall use the prefix phrases ATC CLEARS, ATC ADVISES, or ATC REQUESTS at the time that a clearance, advisory or request is relayed
answer
through a non ATC facility
question
The purpose of an ATC clearance is to
answer
prevent collision between known aircraft
question
which item is always used in a clearance?
answer
aircraft identification
question
the first three items in an ATC departure clearance are the aircraft identificaion,
answer
altitude and route of flight
question
the type of ATC clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is what kind of clearance?
answer
through
question
an authorization for a pilot to conduct an IFR flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance is known as what kind of clearance?
answer
cruise
question
a flight plan clearance that contains both IFR and VFR portions is a
answer
composite flight plan clearance
question
a clearance that provides aircraft or vehicles a route to follow while on the movement area of an airport is a
answer
taxi clearance?
question
T/F when a pilot is operating on an IFR flight plan and landinga at an airport with no functioning control tower that pilot is responsible for canceling the IFR flight plan with AFSS or through other means of direct communication with ATC (radio, telephone, etc.)
answer
True
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