question

the drug xylazine is best described as an: antiinflammatory analgesic and sedative antiemetic anesthetic

answer

analgesic and sedative

question

detomidine is approved for use in which animal? dogs cats horses cattle

answer

horses but used in other species

question

butorphanol is best describes as a/an: antiinflammatory analgesic anesthetic diuretic

answer

analgesic

question

diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised? Hepatic Renal Cardiovascular All body systems

answer

cardiovascular

question

how does diazepam affect patients with impared renal or hepatic function?

answer

recovery may be significantly prolonged as a result of the metabolic requirements of diazepam

question

In the US, Xylazine is not approved for use in: Dogs, cats, horses, or cattle?

answer

it is not approved for use in cattle, but is sometimes used

question

Guaifenesin is most often used in horses and cattle to provide....

answer

Muscle relaxation

question

the combination of Xylazine and butorphanol is used to...

answer

provide greater analgesia and muscle relaxation. These are synergistic, and together the dose of each is reduced, causing less side effects and more therapeutic effects

question

which is the most potent sedative: Xylazine, Detomidine, Acepromazine, or Diazepam

answer

detomidine is much more potent on a volume to volume basis

question

which drug is most likely to cause hypotension in normal doses: diazepam, butorphanol, acepromazine, or flunixin meglumine

answer

Acepromazine. It is an alpha blocker with significant potential to produce hypotension; this is rarely a problem in healthy, normovolemic patients

question

acepromazine is an alpha blocker with significant potential to produce hypotention, is this usually a problem? Elaborate.

answer

it is rarely a problem in healthy, normovolemic patients

question

the combo drug telazol contains what two drugs? Elaborate.

answer

Zolazepam is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer and tiletamine is a dissociative anesthetic

question

Epidural techniques are used in many species, but the primary disadvantage in animals is what

answer

movement of patient. Epidurals are used for analgesia, but patient movement prevents use for many surgical procedures

question

which inhalant anesthetic drug is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias in dogs and why

answer

halothane. It sensitizes the myocardium to catecholamines such as epinephrine, which can lead to arrhythmia.

question

which inhalant anesthetic drug is biotransformed to the greatest extent in the animal body

answer

halothane

question

is nitrous oxide an inhalant analgesic or an inhalant anesthetic

answer

it is an inhalant analgesic

question

all of the following cross the placental barrier in significant amounts except: Acepromazine, diazepam, isoflurane, or neuromuscular blocking agents

answer

neuromuscular-blocking agents

question

why do neuromuscular blocking agents have minimized placental transfer

answer

they are highly ionized and have high molecular weights, minimizing placental transfer

question

which drug is not classified as a barbiturate: phenobarbital, Thiopental, Pentobarbital, or Propofol? Elaborate.

answer

propofol is an alkylphenol, nonbarbiturate, highly lipid-soluble hypnotic agent used to produce short term anesthesia

question

which crosses the placental barrier, atropine or Glycopyrrolate

answer

atropine

question

which has a longer duration of action, glycopyrrolate, or atropine

answer

glycopyrrolate

question

which is less likely to cause cardiac arrhythmia, glycopyrrolate, or atropine

answer

glycopyrrolate

question

which requires a larger dose volume, atropine, or glycopyrrolate?

answer

atropine requires a larger dose volume

question

at normal doses, what effect does atropine have on the heart rate

answer

prevents decrease. It is often used to prevent drug or parasympathetic nervous system-induced bradycardia in anesthetized animals

question

which drug is an antagonist of xylazine: butorphorhanol, detomidine, yohimbine, or pentazocine

answer

yohimbine antagonizes depressive effects of xylazine

question

opiod drugs are used in anesthetic protocols primarily as...

answer

analgesics

question

the advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it...

answer

produces a short period of analgesia (ace has no analgesic effects)

question

why should routine use of atropine in horses be avoided

answer

it causes colic and

question

how does the routine use of atropine negatively affect horses

answer

anticholinergic effects of atropine on the intestinal tract of horses may include ileus, intestinal distention, and colic

question

atropine use in horses should be limited to treatment of what

answer

bradycardia caused by increases in vagal tone

question

which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis: glycopyrrolate, acepromazine, xylazine, or diazepam

answer

acepromazine

question

why should phenothiazine tranquilizers such as acepromazine be avoided in stallions

answer

they all have the potential to produce paralysis of the penis in stallions

question

which is a narcotic antagonist: naloxone, atropine, pancuronium, or droperidol

answer

naloxone

question

a 10% solution of thiopental sodium for antesthetic induction contains: 10 mg/ml, 100 mg/ml, 20 mg/ml, 40 mg/ml

answer

100 mg/ml

question

what effect might depressant preanesthic medication have on the anesthesia procedure

answer

prolong recovery time

question

diazepam is used to produce what effects

answer

muscle relaxation

question

why does epinephrine increase the heart rate

answer

has adrenergic (sympathetic) effects

question

why does the use of nitrous oxide in anesthesia decrease the amount of inhalant anesthetic needed

answer

it is an inhalant analgesic, and when used with potent inhalant anesthetics, it allows lower levels of more potent drugs to be used

question

what is a disadvantage of breathing 50% nitrous oxide

answer

decreases arterial PaO2

question

how many milligrams per milliliter (mg/ml) does a 2% lidocaine solution contain

answer

20 mg/ml

question

what volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500 kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg and you are using a 10% solution

answer

40 ml

question

apneustic breathing patterns are frequently seen in cats with the use of what drug

answer

ketamine

question

apneustic respirations are characterized by ...

answer

an inspiratory hold and rapid respirations

question

which is not a good reason to use preanesthetics: calm patient, minimize dose of induction agent, smooth induction and recovery, or increase vagal activity

answer

increase vagal activity

question

if 180 ml of a 5% solution of guaifenesin is administered to a 150 kg foal, how many mg/kg would be administered

answer

60 mg/kg

question

are mask inductions more appropriate in aggressive or calm dogs and cats

answer

calm

question

which is not an effect associated with atropine: tachycardia, excessive salivation, mydriasis, decreased gastrointestinal motility

answer

excessive salivation

question

the dosage of acepromazine is 0.1 mg/kg and the maximum dose is 4 mg. how many milligrams would you administer to a 60 kg dog?

answer

4 mg

question

halothane concentrations of 1% to 2% may produce any of the following except: hypotension, hypoventilation, hypothermia, increased cardiac output

answer

increase cardiac output. all inhalation anesthetics are expected to decrease cardiac output at working concentrations

question

the adverse effects of anesthetic compounds are: nothing to worry about, never present with smaller doses, dose dependent, not dose dependent

answer

dose dependent- the more given the more adverse effects

question

the most reliable sign of inadequate anesthetic depth is: increased heart rate, increased respiratory rate, active palpebral reflex, responsive movement

answer

responsive movement

question

propofol is a/an: xylazine antagonist, ultrashort-acting barbiturate, ketamine-like dissociative, nobarbiturate intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential

answer

nonbarbiturate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential

question

acepromazine should be avoided in which patients

answer

patients with a history of seizures

question

why should acepromazine be avoided in patients with a history of seizures

answer

lowers seizure threshold

question

in dogs, normal doses of opioids generally produce all of the following except: respiratory distress, decreased HR, analgesia, excitement

answer

excitement is rare

question

when comparing inhalation anesthetics, you should use the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) as a guide in assessing what

answer

potency of the agent

question

what is MAC

answer

minimum alveolar concentration- percent at 1 atmosphere that prevents gross, purposeful skeletal muscle movement in response to noxious stimulus in 50% of patients. It is an expression of the potency of a drug.

question

which drug is a dissociative anesthetic: thiopental sodium, ketamine, xylazine, or acepromazine

answer

ketamine

question

which inhalant anesthetic is associated with the longest induction and recovery times?

answer

halothane

question

in rabbits, intravenous anesthetics should be injected into which of the following veins: femoral, jugular, auricular, cephalic

answer

auricular provides easy access and adequate vessel size

question

the oxygen flow rate necessary to prevent rebreathing of exhaled gases with an Ayre's T piece is: 0.5 L/min, 1L/min, 2L/min, or greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation

answer

greater than 1.5 times the minute ventilation.

question

a half-full tank of nitrous oxide gas has a pressure of how many psi

answer

750 psi

question

when inflating lungs with the thoracic cavity open to the atmosphere, be sure that the pressure reached on the manometer is...

answer

20 cm H2O

question

precision vaporizers, such as those used for isoflurane, work correctly when placed

answer

out of the circle

question

if hte unidirectional valves are missing from an anesthetic machine, is it ok to use

answer

definitely not okay to use, except with a nonrebreather

question

the absence of unidirectional valves allows the rebreathing of what

answer

carbon dioxide

question

why can a non rebreather be used with the absence of unidirectional valves

answer

it is attached to the fresh gas port, which bypasses the circuit

question

what does the oxygen flush valve do

answer

allows O2 to flow into the breathing system without going through the vaporizer, thus not adding additional amounts of anesthetic agent

question

the advantages of a nonrebreathing system as compared with a circle breathing system include all of the following, except: reduced resistance to breathing, greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed, reduced mechanical dead space, no soda lime required

answer

greater potential for hypothermia caused by high flows needed

question

the minimum fresh gas flow in a semiclosed system is correctly determined by what

answer

patients metabolic rate determines the minimum gas requirement

question

all inhalant anesthetic machines should have: nitrous oxide flowmeter, blood pressure monitors, respiratory monitors, or an anesthetic waste gas scavenging system

answer

anesthetic waste gas scavenging system

question

vaporizers may be classified according to all of the following except the: method of regulating output, method of vaporization, location in the anesthetic circuit, or type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

answer

type of breathing circuit with which they can be used (all vaporizers can be used with any breathing circuit)

question

why arent vaporizers classified according to the type of breathing circuit with which they can be used

answer

all vaporizers can be used with any breathing circuit

question

an IV catheter should be large enough to allow adequate fluid delivery in case what occurs

answer

cardiac arrest

question

the volume of the rebreathing bag on an anesthetic machine should be at least how many times the patient's tidal volume and why

answer

3Xs to ensure adequate vol of gases for patient's needs

question

what do pulse oximetry monitoring devices give an estimate of

answer

percentage of hemoglobin saturation with oxygen in arterial blood

question

which statement concerning soda lime is least accurate: removes carbon dioxide from breathing circuit, capacity should be at least one to two time patient's tidal volume, can be nonfunctional and still maintain norm color, should be changed once a monthe

answer

should be changed once a month. It should be changed based on the amount of hours it has been used

question

if the rebreathing bag is empty during anesthesia, all of the following may be the cause, except: the O2 flow may be too light, the O2 flow may be too high, there may be a leak in the system, scavenging system not working properly

answer

O2 flow too high- this would cause the bag to overinflate

question

what color are nitrous oxide cylanders

answer

blue is the standard color for medical nitrous oxide cylinders

question

what is the approximate volume of O2 in an E cylinder

answer

700L

question

the approximate volume of O2 in an H cylinder is...

answer

7000L

question

the pressure of gas that enters the flowmeter of an inhalant anesthetic machine is...

answer

50-60 psi

question

which statement concerning the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit is least accurate: calibrated in centimeters of water or millimeters of mercury, helpful when ventilating patients, related to pressure in patient's airway, measures O2 partial pressure

answer

least accurate: measures O2 pressure in patient's airway

question

how is the pressure manometer in an inhalant anesthetic circuit calibrated

answer

centimeters of water of millimeters of mercury

question

activated charcoal devices absorb all inhalation agents except

answer

nitrous oxide

question

according to the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH), the maximum recommended level of exposure of people to volatile anesthetic agents in the environment is...

answer

2 pp

question

there is evidence of increased health risks among people exposed chronically to trace levels of inhalant anesthetic gases. All of the following conditions have been associated with such exposure except: abortion and congenital abnormalities, hepatic and renal disease, CNS dysfunction, or insomnia

answer

insomnia

question

all of the following are methods that reduce waste gas levels except: scavenging systems, elimination of breathing circuit leaks, careful filling of vaporizers to avoid spillage, or chamber and mask inductions

answer

chamber and mask inductions cause increased waste anesthetic gas exposures to personnel

question

when inflating the cuff on an endotracheal tube, you should change to a larger diameter tube if cuff inflation requires injection of more that what volume of air?

answer

5 ml

question

if the diameter of the endotracheal tube is too small, what can occur?

answer

restricts patient ventilation and can cause pressure damage to tracheal lining

question

Ideally an endotracheal tube should be inserted so that its tip is...

answer

its tip is midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx

question

why does the et tube tip need to be midway between the thoracic inlet and the larynx

answer

to reduce deadspace and prevent endobronchial intubation

question

when an endotracheal tube is being inserted in a horse, how should the animal be placed

answer

lateral recumbency with head, neck, and back extended

question

why does the horse need to be in lateral recumbency with its head, neck and back extended during entubation?

answer

in this position, a horse's long, soft palate will usually guide the tube into the larynx

question

which animal is most likely to experience laryngospasm during endotracheal intubation: thoroughbred mare, hereford cow, persian cat, dalmation dog

answer

cats are most likely to experience laryngospasms than any other species listed

question

which of the following is the most common complication of endotracheal intubation: tube in esophagus, damage to teeth and oral MM, overinflated cuff injuring trachea, underinflating cuff collapsing trachea

answer

all are complications, but most common is placing the tube in the esophagus

question

teh best method for determining the proper inflation of an endotrachel tube cuff is...

answer

inject air while applying pressure from the reservoir bag until no air escapes around tube

question

the preferred method for treating a cat with laryngospasm is to

answer

1-2 drops lidocaine and wait few minutes for relaxation

question

which of the following is not an advantage of using an endotracheal tube: prevents atelectasis of lung alveoli, provides a means for treating respiratory and cardiac arrest, increases chances of airway obstruction, or encourages proper exam of animal's mouth, pharynx, and larynx

answer

increases chances of airway obstruction- the et tube is specifically used to decrease chances of having airway obstruction

question

in a siamese cat, the endotracheal tube should be removed when

answer

as soon as swallowing and coughing... (nonbracycephalic)

question

when should the ET tube be removed in a pug

answer

only after fully conscious and able to maintain free airway

question

why should the ET tube be removed when the animal begins swallowing and coughing, if it is a non brachycephalic breed

answer

so they do not chew on tube and/or injure themselves

question

why should the ET tube on a brachycephalic breed be removed only after full consciousness and ability to maintain free airway

answer

chances of respiratory complications are greater than other animals.

question

what is the best technique to secure an endotracheal tube to an animal

answer

gauze strips around head in cats and brachy dogs, caudal to upper canines in other dogs

question

which statement concerning use of IV anesthesia in large animals is least accurate: works well on procedures that require complete immobilization of patient, should not be used on procedures requiring more than 45-50 min to complete, requires use of preanesthetic for sedation an a barbiturate, or is routinely used for cast applications, castrations, and umbilical hernias

answer

least accurate: works well on procedures requiring complete immobilization of patient (with large animals)

question

when monitoring the vital signs of an anesthetized patient, you must observe and record all of the following, except: MM color and CRT, HR and RR and depth, reflexes, pulse quality and strength

answer

reflexes (not vital signs)

question

the responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient's vital signs and recording observations at approximately what intervals

answer

at least every 3-5 minutes

question

adequate O2 may be evaluated subjectively during anesthesia by...

answer

MM and CRT

question

hypoventilation that occurs in the anesthetized patient is characterized by what

answer

decreased O2 levels and increased carbon dioxide levels

question

how often do patients given anesthetic drugs hypoventilate

answer

always. every patient given anesthetic drug is hypoventilating

question

concerning physical stimulation of the recovering anesthetized patient, which statement is LEAST accurate: stimulation should not include rubbing the chest because it may interfere with respiration, stimulation increases the flow of information to the reticular activation center of the brain, lack of stimulation may cause drowsiness in the conscious animal, stimulation can include talking to the patient, moving limbs, or pinching toes

answer

Least accurate: stimulation should not include rubbing the chest, because it may interfere with respiration. (rubbing the chest is good)

question

It is advisable to turn the anesthetized patient from side to side during the recovery period of anesthesia. Which is LEAST accurate: turn every 10-15 min until regains consciousness, turning prevents pooling of blood, turn all animals dorsally not sternally to prevent GDV, turning patient helps stimulate respiration and consciousness

answer

turning the patient dorsally is the least accurate. In order to prevent GDV, the patient should be turned sternally.

question

once extubated, all animals should be placed in what position

answer

sternal recumbency with neck extended to maintain patient airway

question

following discontinuation of anesthetic gas, periodic bagging of the patient with pure oxygen is advisable, because...

answer

it helps reinflate collapsed alveoli

question

in the anesthetized surgical patient, pale MM can indicate all of the following except: Inadequate O2 levels, cyanosis, excessive blood loss, decreased tissue perfusion

answer

cyanosis- this would be indicated by blue MM

question

in patients with which characteristic is it recommended to wait longer period before extubation because of the likelihood of vomiting or airway obstruction

answer

brachycephalic

question

the structure of a brachycephalic animal's nasal passages and palate makes them more prone to what after anesthesia

answer

vomiting and possible airway obstruction

question

Which is not advisable for a patient immediately following surgery? ample bedding to prevent heat loss and increase comfort, fresh food and water once conscious, source of heat in hypothermia cases, postoperative analgesics as directed by veterinarian

answer

providing fresh food and water once conscious- some patients experience nausea and vomiting after anesthesia

question

the minimum acceptable heart rate for an anesthetized medium-sized dog is...

answer

60 bpm

question

it is cause for concern if an anesthetized cat's heart rate falls below...

answer

100 bpm

question

When used as preanesthetics, atropine and acepromazine can cause all of the following, except: prolapse of nictitating membrane, respiratory depression, reduced salivation and tear production, pupil dilatation in cats

answer

respiratory depression- phenothiazines such as ace do not cause this

question

a CRT that is over 2 seconds indicates: CHF, decreased peripheral blood perfusion, decreased ventilation, or hypertension

answer

decreased peripheral blood perfusion

question

use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed...

answer

direct monitoring

question

direct monitoring refers to the measuring of...

answer

arterial blood pressure through use of an indwelling catheter placed in the femoral or dorsal pedal artery

question

indirect monitoring refers to...

answer

use of external devices when recording blood pressure

question

when monitoring the MM color of an anesthetized patient wiht pigmented gingivae, you could use each of the following alternative sites except: pinnae, tongue, buccal MM, membranes lining the prepuce or vulva

answer

pinnae

question

alternative sites for monitoring MM color include...

answer

tongue, buccal mucous membranes, conjunctivae of lower eyelids, lining of prepuce or vulva

question

during the maintenance period of anesthesia in a cat or dog, RR lower than how many bpm may indicate excessive anesthetic depth that should be reported to the veterinarian

answer

8 breaths per minute

question

some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent what

answer

atelectasis

question

what is atelectasis

answer

respiratory condition characterized by partially collapsed alveoli. May result in shallow breathing, which causes a decrease in tidal volume

question

the causes of true hyperventilation and tachypnea during anesthesia may include all of the following except: progression from light to moderate anesthesia, response to metabolic acidosis, response to mild surgical stimulus, presence of pulmonary edema

answer

progression from light to moderate anesthesia- hyperventilation can occur from moderate to light anesthesia

question

if the rectum of a patient is covered by a surgical drape or is otherwise inaccessible to the anesthetist, a rough estimate of body temperature can be obtained by...

answer

feeling temp of extremities, such as paws and ears

question

throughout anesthesia, hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following except: warming stainless steel V trough before use, administering warm IV fluids, circulating warm water heating pad, or providing comfortable air temp in the surgery room

answer

all except- warming stainless steel V trough- impractical, metal doesn't retain heat, use towels/blankets to keep off stainless steel

question

malignant hyperthermia is a potentially fatal syndrome to the anesthetized patient. which of these species is most prone to this condition: cattle, pigs, dogs, goats

answer

pigs- although may be seen in dogs anesthetized with ketamine or halothane, pigs are more prone to this condition

question

use of succinylcholine in combination with general anesthetics may be advantageous to the surgeon during certain procedures, but it gives the anesthetist one less measure with which to monitor anesthetic depth. What measure would be of no use in monitoring patients given succinylcholine

answer

jaw muscle tone- this is a muscle-paralyzing agent that may be used to achieve pronounced muscle relaxation for certain procedures

question

using ketamine as an anesthetic agent diminishes the value of what measure in assessing anesthetic depth

answer

eye position- does not cause eye rotation, even at moderate depths of anesthesia

question

how does ketamine diminish the value of measuring anesthetic depth through assessment of eye position

answer

does not cause eye rotation, even moderate depths of anesthesia

question

describe stage III, plane 3 of anesthesia

answer

eye usually central to slightly rotated, pupils moderately dilated and respond slowly to light or not at all

question

describe stage III, plane 2 of anesthesia

answer

eyes usually rotated ventrally with slightly dilated pupils

question

describe stage II of anesthesia

answer

eyes usually central, pupils may be dilated and responsive to light

question

describe stage IV of anesthesia

answer

eyes central with widely dilated pupils that are unresponsive to light

question

the presence or absence of salivary and lacrimal secretions may give clues regarding anesthetic depth. How might an animal that has not received an anticholinergic be affected

answer

tear and saliva production diminishes as anesthetic depth is increased

question

Response to a painful stimulus during anesthesia may be indicated by all of the following except: considerable increase in heart rate an blood pressure, decrease in lacrimation and salivation, increase in respiratory rate, sweating on foot pads

answer

decreased lacrimation and salivation- if anesthesia was to light, these would be increased

question

10 yr old dog anesthetized to remove skin tumor, is maintained on 2% iso. RR is 8 bpm and shallow, HR is 80 bpm, pupils central, jaw tone is slack, all reflexes absent. What stage and plane of anesthesia is this describing?

answer

stage III, plane 3

question

10 yr old dog anesthetized to remove skin tumor, maintained on 2% iso, RR 8 bpm and shallow, HR 80 bpm, pupils central, jaw tone is slack, all reflexes absent. What should be your response or actions to the condition of this animal?

answer

reduce vaporizer to 1.5 iso, continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth. Prob to deep for given procedure. Age is also risk.

question

what stage of anesthesia may be characterized by vocalization, struggling, and breath holding?

answer

stage II - "excitement stage"

question

stage II of anesthesia is aka

answer

excitement stage

question

how should the excitement stake aka stage II of anesthesia be avoided

answer

bolus of injectable anesthetic to take animal past phase of excitement

question

dog received correct dose of Xylazine IM. 2nd degree heart block and bradycardia developed. Based on most common cause of this adverse reaction, what would be the best therapy

answer

glycopyrrolate. anticholinergic effects block vagal-induced bradycardia and 2nd degree heart block commonly associated with xylazine

question

an abnormally elevated central venous pressure that develops during anesthesia and surgery in an animal receiving IV fluids may indicate....

answer

IV fluid overload

question

a 1:10,000 dilution of epinephrine contains how much epinephrine per milliliter?

answer

0.1 mg/ml (1/10,000 = 0.01% = 0.1 mg/ml

question

cardiac arrhythmias that occur during anesthesia are commonly associated with all of the following except: normocapnia, excessive halothane concentration, hypoxemia, myocardial ischemia

answer

normocapnia

question

mean arterial blood pressure of the isoflurane-aneshthetized horse can be used as an indication of...

answer

anesthetic depth

question

when dealing with a horse, which is a more accurate indicator of anesthetic depth, heart rate, or arterial pressure?

answer

arterial pressure

question

surgical evaluation of a dog hit by a car revealed a PCV of 18% and plasma protein below 2.5 g/dl. All of the following are true, except the: patient predisposed to pulmonary edema, fluid admin rates should be watched closely, patient should receive plasma or whole blood before surgery, or patient should not receive fluids before surgery

answer

all are true except: patient should not receive fluids before surgery. Patient needs fluids to help compensate for blood loss indicated by low PCV and plasma protein levels

question

the estimated blood volume in a dog is...

answer

75 ml/kg

question

the volume of blood administered to a patient is determined by all of the following except: PCV of donor, PCV of recipient, desired PCV, age of recipient

answer

all except age of recipient

question

horse under inhalation anesthesia, HR suddenly increases to 80 bpm, most appropriate response is to: increase delivered anesthetic concentration, administer IV 10 mg butorphanol, evaluate peripheral pulse, MM, and other vital organ function before responding, not be concerned, because horse is not moving

answer

most appropriate response would be to evaluate the peripheral pulse, MM, and other vital organ function before responding

question

horse receiving O2 at rate of 8 L/min, iso at 2.5%, fluids at 10ml/kg/hr, blood pressure suddenly falls to 60 mm Hg, and peripheral pulse gets weak. Your first response:

answer

Lower iso and increase fluid delivery rate-falling BP indicates increasing depth of anesthesia in horse. lowering iso will lighten depth. Increased fluid will help increase BP.

question

whole blood should be administered in which of the following presurgical situations: PCV 30%, PCV 14%, Von WIllebrands, or chronic anemia with PCV of 25%

answer

PCV 14%

question

10kg dog: 50ug/kg/min of lidocaine. How many drops per min from a minidrip infusion set are necessary if the concentration of lidocaine is 1mg/ml?

answer

30----- 10kg x 50g/kg/min = 500g/min; 500g = 0.5mg = 0.5ml = 30 drops/min

question

the most common arrhythmia associated wiht use of thiobarbiturates in dogs during induction of anesthesia is

answer

Bigeminy

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