question

Pharmacokinetics

answer

the effect the body has on a drug

question

Pharmacodynamics

answer

the effects a drug has on the body

question

Q: What are anesthetic drugs primary target?

answer

CNS and the most common effect is depression and /or stimulation of one or more parts of the CNS

question

Adjunct

answer

is used to describe a drug that is not a true anesthetic but that is used during anesthesia to produce other desired effects such as sedation, muscle relaxation, analgesia, reversal, neuromuscular blockade or parasympathetic blockade

question

Agonist

answer

bind to and stimulate tissue receptors

question

Antagonist

answer

bind to but do not stimulate receptors. These drugs are given after the agonist of the same class to "wake" the patient after anesthesia or sedation. They are therefore called reveral agents b/c they reverse the effects of the corresponding agonist. Specifically, most antagonist competitively bind to receptors and displace the corresponding agonist, blocking further action.

question

Partial agonist

answer

bind to and partially stimulate receptors

question

Agonist-antagonist

answer

bind to more than one receptor type and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one.

question

Q: What type of soluble are most anesthetic agents and adjuncts?

answer

Water Soluble, with the exception of diazepam (a benzodiazepine tranquilizer)

question

Q: What is the general rule when mixing drugs in a syringe?

answer

2 or more water soluble drugs can be safely mixed, but a water soluble drug and a non water soluble drug cannot. The sole exception to this rule is the water soluble drug ketamine and diazepam, which can safely be mixed and administered unless visible precipitation

question

Q What are the most common pre anesthetic drugs types

answer

Anticholinergics, Tranquilizers & sedatives, Phenothiazines, Benzodiazepines, Alpha2- adrenoceptor agonist (alpha2-agonists), Opioids

question

Anticholinergics

answer

also known as parasympatholytics are most commonly used to prevent and treat bradycardia and to decrease salivary secretions arising from parasympathetic stimulation. Anticholininergics competively block binding of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.

question

Q: What are the 2 anticholinergics most commonly used?

answer

Atropine and Glycopyrrolate, can be given IV, IM or SQ or IT (intratracheal)

question

Q: What is the primary neurotransmitter in the PNS (parasympathetic nervous system) responsible for parasympathetic effects?

answer

Acetylcholine

question

Q: What drug is the ideal treatment given IV for bradycardia in emergency situations?

answer

Atropine

question

Q: What do you have to keep in mind regarding eyes & oxygen when giving anitcholinergics (atropine, glyco)

answer

Eyes: Reduction of lacrimal secretions. Corneal drying, can result in keratitis and corneal ulceration. So instill lubricating ointment very hour. Oxygen: Broncholdilation. Anticholingrics increase the diameter of the bronchioles.This results in increased anatomic dead space, which may put the patient at risk for hypoxemia (low blood oxygen

question

Major effects of anticholingics are:

answer

Prevention of bradycardia , Increased HR, Reduction of repiratory, GI, salivary and lacrimal secrettions, Mydriasis, Bronchodilation

question

Adverse effects of anticholinergics are:

answer

cardiac arrythmias, thickening of respiratory and salivary secretions, inhibition of peristalsis

question

Q: Anticholingerics, regarding the heart, should be avoided when in animals with what condition?

answer

With pre-existing rapid heart rates, greater than 140 in dogs, 180 in cats, 60 in horses, and 100 in ruminants or heart disease

question

Q: Why should anticholinergics be avoided in horses and ruminants?

answer

Horses- colic and Ruminants- bloat

question

Tranquilizer

answer

is a drug that reduces anxiety but does not necessarity decrease awareness and wakefullness

question

Sedative

answer

that causes reduced mental activity and sleepiness

question

3 classes of tranquilizers or sedatives

answer

phenothiazines, benzodiazepines and alpha 2 -adrenoceptor agonists ( alpha 2 agonists)

question

Q: Acepromazine has what affects against vomiting and allergies?

answer

antiemetic & antihistamine effect, reduces allergic reaction

question

Major effects of phenothiazines

answer

calming, sedation, peripheral vasodilation, anti arrhythmic effects, anti emetic effects

question

Major adverse effects of phenothiazines

answer

reductin of the seizure threshold, hypotension, penile prolapse in horses and other large animals, decreased PCV

question

Q: Which breed should have acepromazine be reduced by 25%?

answer

collies and austrailian shepards

question

Q: Which breeds are very sensitve to ace and may experience severe bradycardia and hypotension

answer

giant breed dogs, grehounds and boxers

question

Benzodiazepines

answer

also referred to as minor tranquilizer, are a group of controlled, reversible drugs most often used in combination w/ other agents for their muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant and appetite stimulating properties. These drugs produce unreliable sedative effects in dogs, cats & horses may instead produce dysphoria, excitement and ataxia, esp. in young healthy animals. Light sensitive.

question

Most commonly used Benzodiazepines

answer

Diazepam, zolazepam ( a common component of Telazol) and midazolam

question

Major effects of benzodiazepines

answer

Antianxiety and calming only in old or ill patients, Anticonvulsant , skeletal muscle relaxation, Appetite stmulation in cats & ruminants ( diazepam & midazolam)

question

Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist

answer

are a group of noncontrolled agents used alone and in combination with other anesthetics and adjuncts in both large and small animal patients for sedation, anlgesia and muscle relaxation. They are commonly given before minor procedures, i.e xrays, bandaging, etc. and then reversed (awaken) with and alpha₂ antagonist

question

Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist drug examples

answer

Xylazine (rompun, AnaSed), dexmedetomidine (dexdomitor), detomidine (dormosedan) and romifidine (sedivet) are members of this class of drugs. Medetomidine (domitor) a predecessor to dexdorm was recently d/c'd in the US

question

Q: The sympathetic Nervous System (SNS) is associated with what response?

answer

Fight or flight response

question

Effects of Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist

answer

sedation, analgesia( only short amount of time, so should be supplimented, bradycardia, hypotension, and hypothermia

question

Q: Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist are metabolized by which organ?

answer

Liver and the metabolites are excreted in the urine. Adequate hepatic and renal function are therefore important requirements for any animal receiving these drugs

question

Major effects of Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist

answer

Dose-dependent sedation that can be profound, Analgesia, Decreased cardiac output, heart rate, and blood pressure. Decreased RR and tidal volume, muscle relaxation, vomiting in dogs & cats, hyperthermia

question

Major adverse effects of Alpha₂ agonist or a₂ agonist

answer

Agitation or aggression when touched. Reaction to loud noise. Ataxia and falling in cattle. Severe bradycardia, hypotension and decreased cardiac output. Severe respiratory depression

question

Q: What is xylazine been replaced with?

answer

dexmedetomidine

question

Q: What is the most commonly used alpha₂ agonist in dogs and cats?

answer

dexmedetomidine (dexdomitor)

question

Q: What is the antagonist to dexmedetomidine (dexdomitor)

answer

atipamezole (antisedan)

question

Common alpha₂ antagonist?

answer

Yohimbine, Tolazoline, and Atipamezole

question

Q: What alpha₂ are used to reverse the effects of xylazine?

answer

yohimbine andtolazoline

question

Q: When could adverse effects occur with alpha₂ antagonist?

answer

if too much is given. doses should be based on the amount of the agonist hat was given and the length of time since agonist administration and should be reduced if more than 30 mins have elapsed. it should be given slowly.

question

Commonly used opioids agonist

answer

morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, fentanyl, amd meperiidine.

question

Commonly used partial agonist opioid

answer

buprenorphine

question

Commonly used agonist-antagonist opioid

answer

butorphanol (torbegesic) and nalbuphine

question

Commonly used antagonist opioid

answer

naloxone; as well as etorphine and carfentanil

question

Q: Morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, and fentanyl,are in which class of controlled drugs?

answer

Class II

question

Q: What do opioids cause to dogs eyes?

answer

miosis (constricted pupil)

question

Q: What do opioids cause in cats, ruminants and horses eyes?

answer

mydriasis (pupil dilation)

question

Major effects of opioids are

answer

CNS depression in dogs or excitement in cats an large animals. Excellent somatic and visceral analgesia. Bradycardia. Panting in dogs. Miosis in dogs and mydriasis in cats and large animals. Increased responsiveness to noise

question

Major adverse effects of opioids

answer

Anxiety, disorientation, excitement, dysphoria, and increased motor activity. Decreased RR and tital volume. Salivation and vomiting in small animals. Initial diarrhea and flatulence, then ileus

question

Neuroleptanalgesia

answer

is a state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by the simultaneous administration of an opioid and a tranquilizer. Is commonly used for procedures that require significant CNS depression and analgesia but not general anesthesia

question

Q: How can total reversal of an opioid analgesia can be avoided?

answer

by using an agonist-antagonist such as butorphanol that has some analgesic effect

question

Q: How can you revive puppies delivered by cesarean if the dam was given opioids?

answer

Give an opioid antagonist. One drop of naloxone placed under the tongue of each puppy or kitten is usually efficient to reverse respiratory depression

question

Injectable anesthetics

answer

are drugs characterized by their ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone. They do not provide all the effects of general ( such as analgesia and muscle relaxation) however, consequently these drugs must be used w/ other agents to produce the complete spectrum of effects of general anesthesia. Such as propofol, barbiturates and etomidate.

question

Giving an injectable anesthetic "to effect" means

answer

that the drug is given in small boluses until the desired level of anesthesia is reached

question

Uses for barbiturates are as follows:

answer

The ultra short acting barbiturates thiopental sodium and methohexital are used to induce anesthesia primarily in dogs, cats and horses. The short acting barbiturate pentobarbital is used to induce and maintain general anesthesia to laboratory animals and to treat status epilepitus to small animals. The long acting barbiturate phenobarbital is used as a dedative and anticonvulsant.

question

Q: What happens after IV administration of thiopental for anesthetic induction

answer

a brief period of apnea is common, esp. after rapid inj or administration of high doses.

question

PaCO₂

answer

rising levels of carbon dioxide in arterial blood

question

Q: What happens after IV administration of pentobarbital

answer

the common effect on respiration is a persistent reduction in tital volume (that is shallow breaths)

question

Major effects of barbiturates are as follows

answer

CNS depression from mild sedation to general anesthesia Decreased cardiac output and blood pressure. Decreased RR and tidal volume Increased salivation. Sneezing, laryngospasm and coughing.

question

Q: What anesthetic induction drug is not recommended for use in sight hounds (afghan hounds, whippets, salukies, borzoi and greyhounds)

answer

thiopental - prolonged recovery

question

Q: What should you do if you inject a barbiturate perivascularly?

answer

immediately infiltrated with saline in a volume at lease equal to the volume of barbiturate injected to dilute the barbiturate and reduce its irritating effect; 1-2ml of 2% lidocaine may be added to saline

question

Major adverse effects of barbiturates are as follows

answer

cardiac arrhthmias, especially bigeminy, Profound respiratory depression and apnea. Prolonged recovery in sighthounds. Increased potency in critically ill patients. Tissue irritation and sloughing after perivascular injection. Excitement during induction and recovery if patient is not premedicated.

question

Thiopental

answer

is an ultra short acting thiobarbiturate for anesthetic induction of small animals and horses and can also be sued as a sole anesthetic for brief procedures and is always given "to effect".Once reconstituted, max shelf life is 1 wk refridgerated and 3 days at room temp. Repeated administration is cumulative and recovery can be greatly prolonged, for this reason it is not recommended for anesthetic maintenance.

question

Propofol

answer

is an ultra short acting nonbarbiturate injectable anesthetic with a wide margin of safety. It is the sole exception to the general rule that milky liquids should never be given IV. It is highly protein bound and therefore should be used w/ caution in patients w/ significant hypoproteinemia. Metabolism of propofol is rapid, it is relatively and effective in animals w/ live & kidney disease.

question

Major effects of propofol are as follows

answer

CNS depression ranging from the sedation to general anesthesia. Bradycardia, decreased cardiac output, and hypotension. ReMspiratory depression including apnea. Muscle twitching during induction. Muscle relaxation

question

Major adverse effects of propofol are as follows

answer

Transiet excitement, muscle tremors, and seizureS-like activity during induction. Significant and prolonged hypotension in some patients. Apnea after rapid injection or high doses. Pain from IV injection

question

Q: How should propofol be given?

answer

IV slowly over a period of 1-2 minutes until the desired anesthetic depth is reached. One effective method is to give 1/4 of the calculated dose slowly IV every 30 seconds until the desired plane of anesthesia is reached. The dose & amt of anesthesia needed depend on the premed you give. Do not give too slowly, it can cause pardoxic excitement, making the patient difficult to handle.

question

somatic analgesia

answer

analgesia to the skin & limbs

question

visceral analgesia

answer

involving organs

question

Q: What controlled drug class is ketamine?

answer

Class III

question

Q: Is ketamine ok to use in cats & dogs w/ kidney disease?

answer

Elimination of ketamine depends on hepatic metabolism in the dog, but in the cat the drug is primarily excreted through the kidney. So use caution in dogs w/ hepatic disease and cats w/ compromised renal function or urinary obstruction

question

Q: Telazol is a combination of which 2 drugs?

answer

Tiletamine and zolazepam

question

Q: What controlled drug glass is Telazol?

answer

Class III

question

Etomidate

answer

is a noncontrolled, sedative hypnotic imidazole drug that is occasionally used for induction of anesthesia in dogs,cats and exotics. B/c of its minimal effect on the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, it is very useful in high risk patients. Has a wide therapeutic range. It is given to effect and like propofol, can be given in repeated boluses for short term maintenance of anesthesia

question

Major effects of etomindate is as follows

answer

Hypnosis w/ minimal analgesia. Anticonvulsant effect. Minimal effect on cardiopulmonary function. Good muscle relaxation. Spontaneous twitching movements during induction & recovery.

question

Q: What type of patient is a good canidate for etomidate?

answer

moderate to severe heart disease & shock. It has little effect on heart rate, rhythm, blood pressure and cardiac output.. Also c - sections b/c it is rapidly eliminated and causes little neonatal respiratory depression. Also brain trauma or spinal surgery.

question

Major adverse effects of etomidate are as follows

answer

Pain after IV inj. Hemolysis in cats after rapid injection. Decreased cortisol levels. Nausea, vomiting and excitement during induction and recovery

question

Guaifenesin

answer

(GG) is a non controlled muscle relaxant that is commonly given to large animals to increase muscle relaxation, facilitate intubation and ease induction and recovery. It is not an anesthetic or analgesic by itself and must be given in combination w/ other agents.

question

Major effects and adverse effects of guaifenesin are as follows

answer

Skeletal muscle relaxation. Minimal cardiopulmonary effects. Few adverse effects at therapeutic doses. Thrombophlebitis after IV inj. Tissue reaction after perivascular inj.

question

Q: How does the halogenenated anesthetic move within in the body?

answer

Within the anesthetic machine, liquid anesthetic is vaporized, mixed w/ O₂ and delivered to the patients by mask or endotracheal tube. The anesthetic travels via the air passages to the lungs, where it diffused across the alveolar cell membrane and enters the bloodstream. Inhalation agents are carried to the body tissues in the blood. Tissues w/ greater blood flow (brain, heart, kidney) are more quickly saturated.

question

Q: How can the anesthetist speed up elimination of halogenated anesthetic?

answer

by periodically bagging the animal w/ 100% oxygen. This removes anesthetic from the alveoli and reestablishes a steep concentration gradient between the alveoli and the blood. As the concentration of the anesthetic in the blood falls, the agent leaves the brain and the patient wakes up.

question

Q: How are Isoflurane, sevoflurane & desflurane elimated from the body?

answer

minimal liver metabolism b/c they are elimated from the body chiefly through the lungs.

question

Q: How do halogenated inhalation anesthetics affect temperature?

answer

They depress the temp reguolating center, leading to hypothermia.

question

Q: Hypoventilation is a poss. adverse effect of all inhalation agents. What does it predispose the animal to?

answer

to carbon dioxide retention and respiratory acidosis.

question

Q: What does MAC stand for?

answer

minimum alveolar concentration

question

Vapor Pressure

answer

is a measure of the tendency of a liquid anesthetic to evaporate and is significant to the anesthetists b/c it determines whether a precision or nonprecision vaporizer is used to deliver the agent.

question

Q: Why are agents such as isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane and halothane, described as volitile and thus require a precision vaporizior?

answer

volitile meaning they evaporate quickly, meaning if not controlled, b/c the maximum level is 5% for safe use, it can reach over 30% in a non precision vaporizor, a level that would cause a fatal anesthetic overdose. This is why volatile agents must be delivered from a precision vaporizor, which precisely controls the amount of anesthetic being delivered and therefore allows them to be used safely.

question

Methoxyflurane

answer

now discontinued. low vapor pressure and does not require the use of precision vaporizer. Has a high partition coefficient - slow recovery & induction

question

Q: What does a low blood gas partition coefficient for an inhalant anesthetic indicate?

answer

expected faster induction & recovery

question

Q: What is MAC used to determine?

answer

the average setting that must be used to produce surgical anesthesia and is a measure of the potency of the agent. An agent w/ low MAC is more potent than an agent w/ high MAC. i. e Halothane has a lower MAC than Isoflurane, it is more potent than Iso. Therefore a higher concentration of ISO will be necessary to maintain a similar anesthetic depth.

question

Another example of MAC

answer

a concentration of 2% Iso can be expected to maintain a moderate surgical anesthesia in most dogs. Halothane has a slightly lower MAC (0.87%) and a vaporizor setting between 1%-1.5% if often adequate to maintain anesthesia. Sevoflurane has a high MAC (approx 2.4) and the maintenence level can be expected to be close to 3.5%. This is a rough guidline - monitor animal's response to the anesthetic to determine the optimum setting

question

Isoflurane

answer

replaced halothane.Most commonly used. High vapor pressure (240 mm Hg) and therefore a precision vaporizer is normally used to deliver this agent. The blood gas partition coeffient is extremely low (1.46). This combined w/ the relatively low tissue solubility of tthis agent , results in exteremly rapid induction & recovery, which makes it the best for make or chamber induction. The MAC is 1.3% - 1.63% in common domestic species.This means the anesthesia is maintained in most at a concentration of 1.5% -2.5%. of the volatile anesthetics commonly used, Iso is considered to thave the fewest adverse cardiovascular effects and therefore is the agent of choice for patients w/ cardiac disease

question

Sevoflurane

answer

2nd most commont (Iso 1st). Best suited for mask & chamber inductions. Vapor pressure of sevo, somewhat lower than Iso, is relatively high (160 mm Hg). Therefore a precision vaporizer is required to deliver this agent. The blood gas partition coefficient is even lower than iso's, allowing even more rapid inductions and recoveries. 5-7 min mask time vs 6-7 w/ iso. Less strugling than w/ iso b/c non irritating and more pleasant odor. Popular w/ equine anesthesia, despite high cost, approx 10x's that of Iso. The MAC is 2.44% - 2.58% in common species. Therefore less potent than Iso and higher concentrations are to required to induce and maintain anesthesia. A concentration of 4%-6% (3%-%5 Iso)is required for mask induction and 2.5%-4% (1.5% -2.5% Iso) is the normal maintenance range. Primarily eliminated by the lungs.

question

Desflurane

answer

its expensive and some adverse effects currently preclude common use in veterinary patients. It has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient (0.42%) of any of the commonly used agents and therefore produces induction and recoveries that are approx twice as fast as those of Iso (sometimes referred to as "one breath anesthesia" b/c it can seem as if a patient is anesthetized or wakes up after taking one breath. The vapor pressure is extremely high (700 mm Hg) and the boiing point is near room temp ( 23.5°c) b/c of this, it requires special electronic heated vaporizer that keeps the agent under pressure to prevent it from boiling. The high cost of desflurane and the vaporizer is a significant factor limiting the use of this agent in vet medicine. It is the least potent w/ a MAC of 7.2% -9.8%. A concentration of 10%-15% is required for mask induction and an 8% -12% is needed for maintenance. Mask induction is difficult.

question

Halothane ( Fluothane )

answer

until recently was one of the most commonly used inhalation agents in vet med. In recent years it has gradually been replaced by Iso & sevo. Relatively high vapor pressure (234 mm Hg) and therefore requires a precision vaporizor. Low paturition coefficient (2.54) that are rapid, but slower than Iso. About 20% -46% of halothane is subsequently metabolize by the liver & excreted by the kidneys. Has a very low MAC (0.87 to 1.19) and so is more potent than any of the commonly used agents. A concentration 2%-4% (up to 10%) in large animals for mask and 0.5%-1.5% (1%-2% in large animals) is the normal maintenance range

question

Methoxyflurane

answer

no longer commercially available in north america it remains a good point of comparison when learning about currently used agents such as iso & sevo. Vapor pressure is significantly lower than Iso 23 vs 249 mm Hg and sevo 160 mm Hg. Can be delivered in a non precision vaporizor. Blood gas partition coefficient is 15 is considerably higher than Iso (1.146). These 2 factors combined produce slow induction & recovery. MAC is 23%. It is retained in the body fat so that approx 50%-75% is metabolized and excreted by the live & kidneys.

question

Nitrous oxide (N₂O)

answer

is a gas at room temperature, is stored in blue compressed gas cylinders and does not require a vaporizor. Like O₂ it is administered w/ a flow meter and is mixed in w/ concentrations of 40% -67% w/ oxygen before being delivered to the patient. It reduced the MAC of other anesthetics by 20-30%.

question

Doxapram

answer

non controlled injectable analeptic agent used in small animals to stimulate repirations & speed awakening during recovery or emergency situations. It is commonly used in neonates post c-section to stimulate repirations by placing a few drops under the tongue, although it may be given SQ or in the umbilical vein. In adults mostly given IV.It must not be used in patients w/ a hx of seizures.

question

Q: A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of: a. opioid & anticholinergic b. anticholinergic & tranquilizer c.opioids & tranquilizer d. anticholinergic & benzodiazepine

answer

an opioid and a tranquilizer

question

Q: Most preanesthetics will not cross the placental barrier? True or False?

answer

False

question

Q: It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia. True or False?

answer

True

question

Q: Anticholinergic drugs such as Atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the: a. Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system b. Nicotinic receptors of the parasympatetic system c. Muscarinic receptors of the sympathetic system d. Nicotinic receptors of the sympathetic system

answer

Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

question

Q: High doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression. True or False

answer

True

question

Q: Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with which drug? a. atropine b. nalaxone c. epinephrine d. atipamezole

answer

Atipamezole

question

Q: Opioids may be reversed with a. atipamezole b. naloxone c. atropine d. yohimbine

answer

Nalaxone

question

Q: Which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed w/ other drug solutions? a. atropine b. ace c. diazepam d. butorphanol

answer

diazepam

question

Q: Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following problems? a. severe cardiac disease b. renal failure c. orthopedic disease d. pediatric (younger than 4wks)

answer

Cardiac disease

question

Q: Which of the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic? a. thiopental sodium b. pentobarbital sodium c. ketamine hydrochloride d. propofol

answer

ketamine hydrochloride

question

Q: One of the disadvantage of the drug methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery. True or False?

answer

True

question

Q: Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a: a. higher vapor pressure b. similar vapor pressure c. lower vapor pressure

answer

Higher vapor pressure

question

Q: An anesthetic agent that has a low blood gas partition coefficient will result in _______ induction and recovery time a. slow b. moderate c. fast

answer

Fast

question

Q: Which of the following has the lowest blood gas partition coefficient? a. halothane b. Isoflurane c. Methoxylflurane d. Sevoflurane

answer

Sevoflurane

question

Q: As a rough guidline to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at about a. 0.5 x MAC b. 1 x MAC c. 1.5 x MAC d. 2 x MAC

answer

1.5 x MAC

question

Q: Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To aviod this, the anesthetist should a. give by infusion only b. premed w/ opioids c. administer IV only d. Titrate this drug in several boluses

answer

Titrate this drug in several boluses

question

Q: One problem frequiently associated with recovery from tiletamine-zolazepam in dogs is a. excitement b. bradycardia c. hypotension d. larngospasm

answer

excitement

question

Q: The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is afffected by a variet of factors such as? (Multiple answers) a.perfusion of the brain b. lipid solubility of the drug c. plasma protein levels d. blood pH

answer

ALL

question

Q: Effects that are commonly seen after admiistration of a dissociate include:(Multiple answers) a. increased blood pressure b. increased heart rate c. increased CSF pressure d. increased intraocular pressure

answer

ALL

question

Q: Adverse effects common with isoflurane include: (Multiple answers) a. hepatic toxicity b. accumulation in body fat stores c. depression of respiration d. seizures during recovery

answer

depression of respiration

question

Q: MAC will vary with: (Multiple answers) a. body temp of the patient b. age of the patient c. concurrent use of other drugs d. anesthetic agent

answer

all

question

Q: Factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction w/ a volatile gaseous anesthetic include: (Multiple answers) a. partition coefficient of the agent b. Vaporizer setting c. MAC of the agent d. Concurrent use of atropine

answer

a. partition coefficient of the agent b. Vaporizer setting

question

Q: Which of the following are alpha₂- agonist? (Multiple answers) a. atipamezole b. xylazine c. aceapromazine d. dexmedetomidine

answer

b. xylazine and d. dexmedetomidine

question

Q: Effects that atropine may have on the body include: (Multiple answers) a. decreased salivation b. increased vagal tone c. decreased gastrointestinal motility d. Mydriasis

answer

a. decreased salivation & c. decreased gastrointestinal motility

question

Q: Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include: (Multiple answers) a. Pronounced sedation in healthy young animals b. muscle relaxation c. significant decrease in respiratory function d. minimal effect on cardiovascular system

answer

a. Pronounced sedation in healthy young animals b. muscle relaxation

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