ACCY 304 Chapter 24 – Flashcards

21. Which of the following should be disclosed in a Summary of Significant Accounting Policies? a. Types of executory contracts b. Amount for cumulative effect of change in accounting principle c. Claims of equity holders d. Depreciation method followed

22. An example of an inventory accounting policy that should be disclosed in a Summary of Significant Accounting Policies is the a. amount of income resulting from the involuntary liquidation of LIFO. b. major backlogs of inventory orders. c. method used for valuing inventory. d. composition of inventory into raw materials, work-in-process, and finished goods.

23. Errors and irregularities are defined as intentional distortions of facts. Errors Irregularities a. Yes Yes b. Yes No c. No Yes d. No No

S24. The full disclosure principle, as adopted by the accounting profession, is best described by which of the following? a. All information related to an entity's business and operating objectives is required to be disclosed in the financial statements. b. Information about each account balance appearing in the financial statements is to be included in the notes to the financial statements. c. Enough information should be disclosed in the financial statements so a person wishing to invest in the stock of the company can make a profitable decision. d. Disclosure of any financial facts significant enough to influence the judgment of an informed reader.

S25. The focus of APB Opinion No. 22 is on the disclosure of accounting policies. This information is important to financial statement readers in determining a. net income for the year. b. whether accounting policies are consistently applied from year to year. c. the value of obsolete items included in ending inventory. d. whether the working capital position is adequate for future operations.

S26. If a business entity entered into certain related party transactions, it would be required to disclose all of the following information except the a. nature of the relationship between the parties to the transactions. b. nature of any future transactions planned between the parties and the terms involved. c. dollar amount of the transactions for each of the periods for which an income statement is presented. d. amounts due from or to related parties as of the date of each balance sheet presented.

P27. Events that occur after the December 31, 2013 balance sheet date (but before the balance sheet is issued) and provide additional evidence about conditions that existed at the balance sheet date and affect the realizability of accounts receivable should be a. discussed only in the MD (Management's Discussion and Analysis) section of the annual report. b. disclosed only in the Notes to the Financial Statements. c. used to record an adjustment to Bad Debt Expense for the year ending December 31, 2013 d. used to record an adjustment directly to the Retained Earnings account

28. Which of the following post-balance-sheet events would generally require disclosure, but no adjustment of the financial statements? a. Retirement of the company president b. Settlement of litigation when the event that gave rise to the litigation occurred prior to the balance sheet date. c. Employee strikes d. Issue of a large amount of capital stock

29. Which of the following subsequent events (post-balance-sheet events) would require adjustment of the accounts before issuance of the financial statements? a. Loss of plant as a result of fire b. Changes in the quoted market prices of securities held as an investment c. Loss on an uncollectible account receivable resulting from a customer's major flood loss d. Loss on a lawsuit, the outcome of which was deemed uncertain at year end.

30. Revenue of a segment includes a. only sales to unaffiliated customers. b. sales to unaffiliated customers and intersegment sales. c. sales to unaffiliated customers and interest revenue. d. sales to unaffiliated customers and other revenue and gains.

31. An operating segment is a reportable segment if a. its operating profit is 10% or more of the combined operating profit of profitable segments. b. its operating loss is 10% or more of the combined operating losses of segments that incurred an operating loss. c. the absolute amount of its operating profit or loss is 10% or more of the company's combined operating profit or loss. d. none of these.

32. A segment of a business enterprise is to be reported separately when the revenues of the segment exceed 10 percent of the a. total combined revenues of all segments reporting profits. b. total revenues of all the enterprise's industry segments. c. total export and foreign sales. d. combined net income of all segments reporting profits.

33. All of the following information about each operating segment must be reported except a. unusual items. b. interest revenue. c. cost of goods sold. d. depreciation and amortization expense.

34. The profession requires disaggregated information in the following ways: a. products or services. b. geographic areas. c. major customers. d. all of these.

S35. In presenting segment information, which of the following items must be reconciled to the entity's consolidated financial statements? Operating Identifiable Revenues Profit (Loss) Assets a. Yes Yes Yes b. No Yes Yes c. Yes No Yes d. Yes Yes No

S36. APB Opinion No. 28 indicates that a. all companies that issue an annual report should issue interim financial reports. b. the discrete view is the most appropriate approach to take in preparing interim financial reports. c. the three basic financial statements should be presented each time an interim period is reported upon. d. the same accounting principles used for the annual report should be employed for interim reports.

P37. Rondelli Manufacturing Company employs a standard cost system. A planned volume variance in the first quarter of 2011, which is expected to be absorbed by the end of the fiscal year, ordinarily should a. be deferred at the end of the first quarter, regardless of whether it is favorable or unfavorable. b. never be deferred beyond the quarter in which it occurs. c. be deferred at the end of the first quarter if it is favorable; unfavorable variances are to be recognized in the period incurred. d. be deferred at the end of the first quarter if it is unfavorable; favorable variances are to be recognized in the period incurred.

38. In considering interim financial reporting, how does the profession conclude that such reporting should be viewed? a. As a "special" type of reporting that need not follow generally accepted accounting principles. b. As useful only if activity is evenly spread throughout the year so that estimates are unnecessary. c. As reporting for a basic accounting period. d. As reporting for an integral part of an annual period.

39. Accounting principles are modified for the following at interim dates. Revenue Losses a. Yes Yes b. Yes No c. No Yes d. No No

40. The following methods of estimating inventory can be used at interim dates for inventory pricing. May they also be used at year end? Gross Profit Method Retail Inventory Method a. No No b. No Yes c. Yes No d. Yes Yes

41. A company that uses the last-in, first-out (LIFO) method of inventory pricing finds at an interim reporting date that there has been a partial liquidation of the base period inventory level. The decline is considered temporary and the partial liquidation is expected to be replaced prior to year end. The amount shown as inventory at the interim reporting date should a. be shown at the actual level, and cost of sales for the interim reporting period should include the expected cost of replacement of the liquidated LIFO base. b. be shown at the actual level, and cost of sales for the interim reporting period should reflect the historical cost of the liquidated LIFO base. c. not give effect to the LIFO liquidation, and cost of sales for the interim reporting period should reflect the historical cost of the liquidated LIFO base. d. be shown at the actual level, and the decrease in inventory level should not be reflected in the cost of sales for the interim reporting period.

42. Companies should disclose all of the following in interim reports except a. basic and diluted earnings per share. b. changes in accounting principles. c. post-balance-sheet events. d. seasonal revenue, cost, or expenses.

43. The required approach for handling extraordinary items in interim reports is to a. prorate them over all four quarters. b. prorate them over the current and remaining quarters. c. charge or credit the loss or gain in the quarter that it occurs. d. disclose them only in the notes.

S44. If the financial statements examined by an auditor lead the auditor to issue an opinion that contains an exception that is not of sufficient magnitude to invalidate the statement as a whole, the opinion is said to be a. unqualified. b. qualified. c. adverse. d. exceptional.

P45. The MD&A section of a company's annual report is to cover the following three items: a. income statement, balance sheet, and statement of owners' equity. b. income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows. c. liquidity, capital resources, and results of operations. d. changes in the stock price, mergers, and acquisitions.

S46. Which of the following best characterizes the difference between a financial forecast and a financial projection? a. Forecasts include a complete set of financial statements, while projections include only summary financial data. b. A forecast is normally for a full year or more and a projection presents data for less than a year. c. A forecast attempts to provide information on what is expected to happen, whereas a projection may provide information on what is not necessarily expected to happen. d. A forecast includes data which can be verified about future expectations, while the data in a projection is not susceptible to verification.

47. A financial forecast per professional pronouncements presents to the best of the responsible party's knowledge and belief, a. an entity's expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows. b. an assessment of the company's ability to be successful in the future. c. given one or more hypothetical assumptions, an entity's expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows. d. an assessment of the company's ability to be successful in the future under a number of different assumptions.

*48. Cash, short-term investments, and net receivables are the numerator for Acid-Test Ratio Current Ratio a. Yes No b. Yes Yes c. No No d No Yes

*49. Theoretically, in computing the receivables turnover, the numerator should include a. net sales. b. net credit sales. c. sales. d. credit sales.

*50. The rate of return on common stock equity is calculated by dividing net income a. by average common stockholders' equity. b. less preferred dividends by average common stockholders' equity. c. by ending common stockholders' equity. d. less preferred dividends by ending common stockholders' equity.

*51. The payout ratio is calculated by dividing a. dividends per share by earnings per share. b. cash dividends by net income plus preferred dividends. c. cash dividends by market price per share. d. cash dividends by net income less preferred dividends.

*52. Which of the following ratios measures long-term solvency? a. Acid-test ratio b. Receivables turnover c. Debt to total assets d. Current ratio

*53. The calculation of the number of times interest is earned involves dividing a. net income by annual interest expense. b. net income plus income taxes by annual interest expense. c. net income plus income taxes and interest expense by annual interest expense. d. none of these.

*54. When should an average amount be used for the numerator or denominator? a. When the numerator is a balance sheet item or items b. When the denominator is a balance sheet item or items c. When a ratio consists of an income statement item and a balance sheet item d. When the numerator is an income statement item or items

*55. The basic limitations associated with ratio analysis include a. the lack of comparability among firms in a given industry. b. the use of estimated items in accounting. c. the use of historical costs in accounting. d. all of these.