A & P II – Flashcards
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Endocrine cells have all of these characteristics
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Endocrine cells __________.
1. secrete into extracellular fluid
2. contain secretory vesicles
3. perform intercellular communication
4. Endocrine cells have all of these characteristics
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Are composed of amino acids
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Peptide hormones ___________.
1. always contain one sugar molecule
2. are lipid soluble
3. usually bind to intranuclear receptors
4. are composed of amino acids
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ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)
released in response to a decrease in blood volume, an increase in the osmotic concentration of the plasma or presence of angiotensin II
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Which of these is released by the neurohypophysis?
1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. FSH
4. ADH
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Thyroid
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Which gland is named for a nearby prominent cartilage?
1. adrenal
2. salivary
3. thyroid
4. pituitary
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Parathyroid hormone
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__________ elevates blood calcium ion levels.
1. Estrogen
2. Thyroid hormone
3. Parathyroid hormone
4. Calcitonin
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ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
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Which hormone stimulates the adrenal gland?
1. ADH
2. TSH
3. ACTH
4. All of these hormones stimulate the adrenal gland.
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Pineal
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The __________ gland secretes melatonin.
1. pineal
2. pituitary
3. neurohypophysis
4. thymus
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Angiotensin
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Which of these regulatory substances does the kidney NOT secrete?
1. renin
2. calcitriol
3. angiotensin
4. erythropoietin
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ALL of these hormones are required for normal growth.
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Which of these hormones is required for normal growth?
1. growth hormone
2. insulin
3. thyroid hormone
4. All of these hormones are required for normal growth.
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ALL of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
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Which of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release?
1. elevated blood calcium
2. increased loss of bone minerals
3. osteopenia
4. All of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
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It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
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Which of these statements about the pineal gland is FALSE?
1. It receives inputs from the retina.
2. It produces melatonin.
3. It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
4. It promotes sleep.
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Lowering blood sugar by insulin
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Hormones often interact in an integrative way. Examples of this include all of the following EXCEPT __________.
1. resistance to stress
2. lowering blood sugar by insulin
3. regulation of reproduction
4. regulation of growth
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ADH, oxytocin and regulartory hormones
* Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
* Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)
* Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)
* Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
* Somatostatin
* Dopamine
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What hormones are produced by the Hypothalamus?
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Adenohypophsis (anterior lobe):
ACTH, TSH, GH, PRL, FSH, LH, and MSH.
Neurohypophysis (posterior lobe): release of oxytocin and ADH
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What hormones are produced by the Pituitary Gland?
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Melatonin
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What hormones are produced by the Pineal Gland?
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Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
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What hormones are produced by the Parathyroid Glands on posterior surface of thyroid gland?
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Natriuretic peptides:
-Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
-Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
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What hormones are produced by the Heart?
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Thyroxine (T4) (aka tetraiodothyronine)
Triiodothronine (T3)
Calcitonin (CT)
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What hormones are produced by the Thyroid Gland?
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Thymosins
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What hormones are produced by the Thymus (undergoes atrophy during adulthood)?
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Erythropoietin (EPO)
Calcitriol
renin
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What hormones are produced by the Kidney?
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Leptin
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What hormones are produced by the Adipose Tissue?
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Alpha Cells - Glucagon
Beta Cells - Insulin
Delta Cells - Somatostatin
Gamma cells - secrete pancreatic polypeptide
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What hormones are produced by the Pancreatic Islets (islets of Langerhans)?
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Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system has all of these characteristics.
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Compared the endocrine system, the nervous system is __________.
1. more localized in action
2. more rapidly acting
3. briefer in action
4. Compared to the endocrine system, the nervous system has all of these characteristics.
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Both statements are true.
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In paracrine communication a chemical signal acts within the tissue that produced it;
in endocrine communication the signal reaches the target cells by way of the circulation.
Are these two statements true or FALSE?
1. Both statements are true.
2. The first is false; the second is true.
3. Both statements are false.
4. The first is true; the second is false.
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Intranuclear
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Lipid-soluble hormones usually bind to __________ receptors.
1. G-protein coupled
2. extracellular
3. transmembrane
4. intranuclear
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parathyroid hormone
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Which of these hormones is NOT derived from an amino acid?
1. thyroid hormone
2. epinephrine
3. parathyroid hormone
4. norepinephrine
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hypothalamus
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The brain region that exerts the most direct effects on the endocrine system is the __________.
1. mesencephalon
2. thalamus
3. pons
4. hypothalamus
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ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
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Which of these hormones exerts a strong effect on adrenal steroid production?
1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. LH
4. ADH
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Patients with hyperthyroidism often exhibit ALL of these signs.
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Which of these signs is often seen in patients suffering from hyperthyroid disease?
1. elevated heart rate
2. elevated body temperature
3. elevated oxygen utilization
4. Patients with hyperthyroidism often exhibit all of these signs.
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Iodine
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Which chemical element is necessary to make thyroid hormone?
1. thorium
2. iron
3. calcium
4. iodine
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The hormone release is triggered by a rise in blood calcium.
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Which of these statements about the parathyroid gland is FALSE?
1. The hormone release is triggered by a rise in blood calcium.
2. They secrete a peptide hormone.
3. It is posterior to thyroid.
4. There are usually four glands.
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ALL of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
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Which of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release?
1. elevated blood calcium
2. increased loss of bone minerals
3. osteopenia
4. All of these might result from excessive parathyroid hormone release.
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zone reticularis; norepinephrine
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Which of these is mismatched?
1. adrenal medulla; epinephrine
2. zona fasciculate; cortisol
3. zone reticularis; norepinephrine
4. zona glomerulosa; aldosteron
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drowsiness
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Excessive secretion by the adrenal medulla can lead to all of these changes EXCEPT __________.
1. elevated heart rate
2. drowsiness
3. elevated blood glucose level
4. elevated blood pressure
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pinealocytes
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Melatonin is secreted by __________.
1. pinealocytes
2. pituicytes
3. ovaries and testes
4. keratinocytes
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It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
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Which of these statements about the pineal gland is FALSE?
1. It receives inputs from the retina.
2. It promotes sleep.
3. It produces melatonin.
4. It is controlled by adenohypophysis.
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increased epinephrine secretion
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A rise in blood glucose level will trigger all these responses EXCEPT __________.
1. storage of glycogen
2. storage of triglycerides
3. increased epinephrine secretion
4. increased beta cell secretion
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digestive enzymes
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Which of these is NOT produced by pancreatic islet cells?
1. somatostatin
2. digestive enzymes
3. glucagon
4. insulin
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cortisol
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Which of these is NOT a steroid hormone produced by the gonads?
1. estradiol
2. cortisol
3. progesterone
4. testosterone
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leptin
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Adipose cells produce a hormone called ___ that acts on the brain to reduce food intake.
1. leptin
2. insulin
3. adipin
4. renin
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ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
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Which hormone stimulates the adrenal gland?
1. TSH
2. ACTH
3. ADH
4. All of these hormones stimulate the adrenal gland
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angiotensin
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Which of these regulatory substances does the kidney NOT secrete?
1. erythropoietin
2. angiotensin
3. calcitriol
4. renin
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55% (46% - 63%)
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Plasma makes up approximately what percentage of whole blood?
1. 55%
2. 65%
3. 45%
4. 38%
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fibrinogen
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Serum can't coagulate because the ______ has been removed.
1. albumin
2. protein C
3. immunoglobulin
4. fibrinogen
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red bone marrow
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The formed elements are largely produced within the __________.
1. liver
2. spleen
3. red bone marrow
4. thymus
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erythropoietin
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___ stimulates production of red blood cells.
1. calcitriol
2. erythropoietin
3. thymosin
4. renin
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O
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Which of these is NOT a surface antigen found on red blood cells?
1. O
2. B
3. A
4. Rh
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monocyte
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The largest white blood cell in circulation is the ____.
1. monocyte
2. eosinophil
3. neutrophil
4. lymphocyte
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red bone marrow
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Granulocytes are produced in _______.
1. the lymph nodes
2. white bone marrow
3. red bone marrow
4. the liver and spleen
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platelets
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Megakaryocytes are the source of _______.
1. most WBCs
2. neutrophils
3. platelets
4. RBCs
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erythropoiesis phase
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Which of these phases is NOT part of hemostasis?
1. vascular phase
2. platelet phase
3. erythropoiesis phase
4. coagulation phase
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coagulation
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The complex process that leads to the formation of fibrin from fibrinogen is called ______.
1. syneresis
2. fibrinogenesis
3. platelet adhesion
4. coagulation
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lung
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Which of these organs is NOT found in the mediastinum?
1. esophagus
2. trachea
3. lung
4. pericardial sac
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right atrium
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Blood flowing in the vena cava will next enter the ____.
1. right ventricle
2. left ventricle
3. right atrium
4. left atrium
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right atrium
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Cardiac veins empty their blood into the __________.
1. left atrium
2. right atrium
3. left ventricle
4. right ventricle
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calcium
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During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, which ion is entering the cardiac muscle cell?
1. potassium
2. calcium
3. sodium
4. hydrogen
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R
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Which wave is the largest in the electrocardiogram?
1. P
2. R
3. Q
4. S
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SA node
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The conducting system in the heart begins in the ____.
1. AV bundle
2. AV node
3. Purkinje fibers
4. SA node
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closing of the mitral valve
[ventricular systole = the contraction of the heart ventricles. It begins with the first heart sound]
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Ventricular systole begins with the __________.
1. closing of the aortic valve
2. opening of the mitral valve
3. opening of the aortic valve
4. closing of the mitral valve
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The first is true; the second is false.
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The wall of the left ventricle is thicker than the right; the left ventricle pumps more blood than the right. Are these two statements true or false?
1. The first is false; the second is true.
2. Both statements are true.
3. The first is true; the second is false.
4. Both statements are false.
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blood pressure
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Which of these is NOT needed to determine cardiac output?
1. heart rate
2. end systolic volume
3. blood pressure
4. end diastolic volume
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increased end-systolic volume
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Which of these responses by the heart will sympathetic stimulation NOT cause?
1. increased end-systolic volume
2. increased heart rate
3. increased cardiac output
4. increased stroke volume
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capillaries
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The only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange with the surrounding cells are _____.
1. capillaries
2. arterioles
3. tunica intima
4. arteries
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arterial pressure greater than venous pressure
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Which of these helps move blood around the systemic system?
1. right ventricle
2. smooth muscle in the tunica media
3. arterial pressure greater than venous pressure
4. venous pressure greater than arterial pressure
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forces more fluid across the endothelium
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Elevated capillary hydrostatic pressure ____.
1. raises arterial pressure
2. lowers heart rate
3. raises heart rate
4. forces more fluid across the endothelium
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medulla oblongata
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Which brain region contains the cardiovascular centers?
1. hypothalamus
2. pons
3. medulla oblongata
4. thalamus
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an increase in urine production
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Hemorrhage triggers all of these responses EXCEPT __________.
1. release of the venous reserve
2. an increase in urine production
3. an increase in heart rate
4. an increase in erythropoiesis
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deoxygenated; to
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The pulmonary trunk carries ___________ blood __________ the lung.
1. oxygenated; from
2. oxygenated; to
3. deoxygenated; to
4. deoxygenated; from
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coronary
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Which of these arteries does NOT originate on the aortic arch?
1. left subclavian
2. left carotid
3. brachiocephalic
4. coronary
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femoral
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Which of these arteries does NOT originate on the abdominal aorta?
1. iliac
2. femoral
3. splenic
4. renal
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ligamentum arteriosum
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The remnant of the fetal ductus arteriosus is the _____.
1. fossa ovalis
2. foramen ovale
3. umbilical strand
4. ligamentum arteriosum
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decrease in arterial wall stiffness
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All of these changes in the cardiovascular system are commonly seen in aging EXCEPT _______.
1. decrease in hematocrit
2. decrease in arterial wall stiffness
3. decrease in cardiac output
4. decrease in valve efficiency
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decreased ADH secretion
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In the case of hemorrhage, the body mobilizes all these defenses EXCEPT _________.
1. increased peripheral resistance
2. increased heart rate
3. decreased ADH secretion
4. increased thirst
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ALL OF THESE are controlled by the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata.
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The cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata control __________.
1. heart rate
2. cardiac contractility
3. peripheral resistance
4. All of these are controlled by the cardiovascular centers in the medulla oblongata.
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the liver
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Most of the plasma proteins required in the coagulation process are produced by __________.
1. the liver
2. lymph nodes
3. platelets
4. megakaryocytes
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purified platelets
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If a patient has thrombocytopenia, the best therapy is infusion of __________.
1. plasma
2. packed RBCs
3. whole blood
4. purified platelets
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Q-T interval
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The duration of the ventricular action potential is approximately equal to the __________ interval in the electrocardiogram.
1. QRS duration
2. Q-T interval
3. PR interval
4. ST interval
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SA node
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The conducting system in the heart begins in the __________.
1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV node
3. SA node
4. AV bundle
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left atrium
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Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the __________.
1. right atrium
2. pulmonary valve
3. pulmonary trunk
4. left atrium
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end-systolic volume
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The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle as diastole begins is called the __________.
1. stroke volume
2. cardiac reserve
3. end-systolic volume
4. end-diastolic volume
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radial
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The brachial artery branches to form the ulnar and __________ arteries.
1. axillary
2. digital
3. palmar
4. radial
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transport clotting factors
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An important function of thrombocytes is to __________.
1. transport clotting factors
2. transport thrombopoietin
3. transport nutrients
4. transport blood gases
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capillaries
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The only vessels whose walls are thin enough to exchange with the surrounding cells are __________.
1. capillaries
2. tunica intima
3. arteries
4. arterioles
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aortic
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The __________ valve prevents backward flow of blood into the left ventricle.
1. bicuspid
2. aortic
3. tricuspid
4. pulmonic
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precapillary sphincters
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Vasomotion refers to contraction-relaxation cycles of the __________.
1. precapillary sphincters
2. thoroughfare channels
3. arteriovenous anastomoses
4. venules
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They are abundant
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Which of these statements about basophils is NOT true?
1. They promote inflammation.
2. They are cytoplasmic granules.
3. They are abundant.
4. They release histamine.
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femoral arteries
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Which of these arteries does NOT branch directly from the aorta?
1. left coronary artery
2. left carotid artery
3. femoral arteries
4. right coronary artery
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hemoglobin
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The most abundant protein in blood is __________.
1. hemoglobin
2. albumin
3. fibrinogen
4. immunoglobulin
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All of these are formed elements of blood.
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The formed elements of blood consist of _________.
1. red blood cells
2. platelets
3. white blood cells
4. All of these are formed elements of blood.
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conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
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The common pathway in coagulation ends with __________.
1. conversion of soluble fibrinogen to insoluble fibrin
2. release of PF-3
3. positive feedback of thrombin formation
4. adhesion of platelets to a damaged vessel wall
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kidney
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Which organ produces renin and erythropoietin to help maintain normal blood pressure and hematocrit?
1. brain
2. kidney
3. liver
4. adrenal
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monocyte
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The agranular leukocyte (agranulocyte) that is capable of phagocytosis is the __________.
1. neutrophil
2. monocyte
3. lymphocyte
4. eosinophil
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visceral pericardium
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The epicardium is also known as the __________.
1. visceral pericardium
2. myocardium
3. endocardium
4. parietal pericardium
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oxygenated; left
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The pulmonary veins carry __________ blood to the __________ atrium.
1. deoxygenated; left
2. deoxygenated; right
3. oxygenated; left
4. oxygenated; right
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clots slowly dissolve
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During fibrinolysis __________.
1. clots slowly dissolve
2. fibrinogen is activated
3. damaged tissue is pulled together
4. emboli form
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elastic
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Arteries have a tissue in their middle and internal vessel walls that veins lack, called __________ tissue.
1. elastic
2. smooth muscle
3. endothelial
4. adventitial
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neutrophils
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The white blood cell type that most rapidly increases in number after a bacterial infection is the __________.
1. lymphocytes
2. eosinophils
3. neutrophils
4. monocytes
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The pH is slightly acidic.
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EXCEPT for __________, the following statements about blood are true.
1. It contains about 55% plasma.
2. The viscosity is three to five times greater than water.
3. It contains dissolved gases.
4. The pH is slightly acidic.
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B positive
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A person with a type A positive blood type can safely receive blood from all of these donors EXCEPT __________.
1. B positive
2. O positive
3. A negative
4. A positive
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protein
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EXCEPT for the amount of __________, plasma and interstitial fluid differ little in composition.
1. protein
2. glucose
3. sodium ion
4. water
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Both statements are true.
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The pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood in the adult circulation; the umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood in the fetal circulation. Are these two statements true or false?
1. The first statement is false; the second is true.
2. Both statements are true.
3. The first statement is true; the second is false.
4. Both statements are false.
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blood colloid osmotic pressure
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Peripheral resistance depends on all of the following factors EXCEPT __________.
1. blood viscosity
2. blood vessel diameter
3. blood vessel length
4. blood colloid osmotic pressure
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red blood cells
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Reticulocyte is a stage in the development of __________.
1. lymphocytes
2. megakaryocytes
3. red blood cells
4. neutrophil
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increased elasticity of the fibrous skeleton
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As the heart ages, which of these changes is NOT normally seen?
1. decreased cardiac output
2. coronary arteriosclerosis
3. decreased ejection fraction
4. increased elasticity of the fibrous skeleton
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120 days
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Red blood cells (RBCs) are removed from the circulation after about __________.
1. 1 year
2. 1 day
3. 120 days
4. 30 days
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b) enzyme
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Which of the following is NOT a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
a) neural
b) enzyme
c) hormonal
d) humoral
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d) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP.
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The second-messenger mechanism of hormone actin operates by _______.
a) not responding to a feedback mechanism
b) synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
c) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
d) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP.
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c) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
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Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by________.
a) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
b)exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
c) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
d) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
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c) epinephrine
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Which of the following is NOT a steroid-based hormone?
a) estrogen
b) cortisone
c) epinephrine
d) aldosterone
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c) 7.35 - 7.45
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What is the average normal pH range of blood?
a) 4.65 - 4.75
b) 8.35 - 8.45
c) 7.35 - 7.45
d) 7.75 - 7.85
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b) O
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Which blood type is called the universal donor?
a) AB
b) O
c) A
d) B
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c) fibrinolysis
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Which of the following is NOT a phase of hemostasis?
a)coagulation
b) platelet plug formation
c) fibrinolysis
d) vascular spasm
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c) They are nucleated
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Which of the following is chracteristic of all leukocytes?
a) They have cytoplasmic granules
b) They are phagocytic
c) They are nucleated
d) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
d) all of the above
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b) suspension
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Blood is a ________.
a) homogeneous compound
b) suspension
c) heterogeneous compound
d) colloid
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c) left atrium
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Blood within) the pulmonary veins returns to the ____.
a) right atrium
b) right ventricle
c) left atrium
d) left ventricle
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c) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
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Select the correct statement about the heart valves.
a) The tricuspid valve divides the left atrium from the left ventricle.
b) Aortic and pulmonary valves control the flow fo blood into the heart.
c) The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.
d) The mitral valve separates the right atrium from the right ventricle.
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c) pumps blood against a greater resistance
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The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker that the right ventricle reveals that it ____.
a) sends blood through a smaller valve
b) pumps a greater volume of blood
c) pumps blood against a greater resistance
d) expands the thoracic cage
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b) papillary muscles
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Small muscle masses attached to the chordae tendineae are the ______.
a) trabeculae carneae
b) papillary muscles
c) pectinate muscles
d) venae cavae
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b) Ventricles are in diastole
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Which of the events below does NOT occur when the semilunar valves are open?
a) Blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta
b) Ventricles are in diastole
c) Ventricles are in systole
d) AV valves are closed
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c) atrial depolarization
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The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ______.
a) ventricular
b) ventricular repolarization
c) atrial depolarization
d) atrial repolarization
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d) coronary arteries
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The source of blood carried to capillaries in the myocardium would be the _____.
a) coronary veins
b) fossa ovalis
c) coronary sinus
d) coronary arteries
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c) decreased delivery of oxygen
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If cardiac muscle is deprived of its normal blood supply, damage would primarily result from ____.
a) a lack of nutrients to feed into metabolic pathways
b) a decrease in the number of available mitochondria for energy production
c) decreased delivery of oxygen
d) an inadequate supply of lactic acid
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a) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
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If the vagal nerves to the heart were cut, the result would be that _____.
a) the heart rate would increase by about 25 beats per minute
b) parasympathetic stimulation would increase, causing a decrease in heart rate
c) the AV node would become the pacemaker of the heart
d) the heart would stop, since the vagal nerves trigger the heart to contract
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b) pulmonary trunk
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Which vessel of the heart receives blood during right ventricular systole?
a) venae cavae
b) pulmonary trunk
c) pulmonary veins
d) aorta
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b) nitric acid
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Which of the followingchemicals does NOT help regulate blood pressure?
a) ADH
b) nitric acid
c) atrial natriuretic peptide
d) angiotension II
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b) capillaries
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Permitting the exchange of nutrients and gases between the blood and tissue cells is the primary function of _______.
a) arterioles
b) capillaries
c) arteries
d) veins
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d) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
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The pulse pressure is _______.
a) systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure
b) diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus diastolic pressure)
c) systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
d) systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
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c) tunica intima
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Histologically, the ______ is squamous epithelium supported by a sparse connective tissue layer.
a) tunica externa
b) tunica adventitia
c) tunica intima
d) tunica media
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d) urinary output
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Factors that aid venous return include all EXCEPT ____.
a) pressure changes in the thorax
b) activity of skeletal muscles
c) venous valves
d) urinary output
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a) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
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A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the _____.
a) right side of the head and neck and right upper arm
b) left upper arm
c) left side of the head and neck
d) myocardium of the haert
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d) changes in arterial pressure
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the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?
a) an increase in oxygen levels
b) a decrease in oxygen levels
c) a decrease in carbon dioxide
d) changes in arterial pressure
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a) lymph nodes
answer
Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed _____.
a) lymph nodes
b) axillary nodes
c) lymph follicles
d) cisterna chyli
b)
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b) pancreas
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Which of the following would NOT be classified as a lymphatic structure?
a) tonsils
b) pancreas
c) Peyer's patches of the instestine
d) spleen
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a) skeletal muscle contrations and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
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Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on ______.
a) skeletal muscle contrations and differences in thoracic pressures due to respiratory movement
b) contraction of the vessels themselves
c) the pumping action of the heart
d) two-way valves
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c) plasma cells
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Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ______.
a) lymph nodes
b) medullary cords
c) plasma cells
d) T lymphocytes
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d) severe localized edema distal to the blockage
answer
When the lymphatic structures are blocked due to tumors, the result is ______.
a) increased pressure in the lymphatics proximal to the blockage
b) abnormally high lymph drainage from the distal region
c) shrinkage of tissues distal to the blockage due to inadequate delivery of lymph
d) severe localized edema distal to the blockage
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d) lingual tonsils
answer
The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ____.
a) palatine tonsils
b) pharyngeal tonsils
c) Peyer's tonsils
d) lingual tonsils
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c) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
answer
a) exposure to an antigen
b) booster shot of vaccine
c) passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
d) infusion of weakened viruses
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a) Macrophages
answer
________ predominate at the sites of chronic infections.
a) Macrophages
b) B cells
c) Eosinophils
d) Basophils
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c) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
answer
what is the role of the interferon in defense against disease?
a) activates the complement mechanism
b) protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
c) protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
d) activates the inflammatory process
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a) function in the adaptive immune system activation
answer
Helper T cells _____.
a) function in the adaptive immune system activation
b) often function to decrease the immune response
c) release B7 proteins
d) bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
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a) natural killer cells
answer
Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by _____.
a) natural killer cells
b) T lymphocytes
c) pinocytosis
d) B lymphocytes
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d) Antigens only come from microbes
answer
Which of the statements below does NOT describe antigens?
a) antigrens exhibit immunogenicity and reactivity.
b) antigens can include proteins, nucleic acids, lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and certain large polysaccharides.
c) the parts of antigen molecules that initiate immune responses are called epitopes or antigenic determinants
d) Antigens only come from microbes
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foreman ovule
answer
What structure in the fetal heart allows blood to flow from the right atrium directly to the left atrium?
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tri-cuspid
answer
The ____ valve of the heart has three valves with chordae tendineae.
question
left subclavin
answer
the third major branch of the aortic _____ artery.
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pulse
answer
____ pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
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aortic value
answer
Prevents backflow into the left ventricle.
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mitral valve
answer
Prevents backflow into the left atrium.
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Tricuspid valve
answer
Prevents backflow into the right atrium.
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pulmonary semilunar valves
answer
Prevents backflow into the right ventricle.
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b) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
answer
Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
a) greater than the intra-alveolar pressure
b) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere
c) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere
d) less than the pressure in the atmosphere
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b) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
answer
Surfactant helps to prevent the alveoli from collapsing by _____.
a) warming the air before it enters
b) interfering with the cohesiveness of water molecules, thereby reducing the surface tension of alveolar fluid
c) humidifying the air before it enters
d) protecting the surface of alveoli from dehydration and other environmental variations
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d) increase of carbon dioxide
answer
The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in ta healthy person is _______.
a)pH (acidosis)
b) loss of oxygen in tissues
c) pH (alkalosis)
d) increase of carbon dioxide
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d) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved from
answer
In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is _____.
a) about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
b) not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
c) greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
d) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved from
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c) exchanged during normal breathing
answer
Tidal volume is air _____.
a) forcible expelled after normal expiration
b) remaining in the lungs after forced expiration
c) exchanged during normal breathing
d) inhaled after normal inspiration
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e) lower respiratory tract
answer
The trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli all make up the ______.
a) upper respiratory tract
B0 alveoli of the respiratory tract
c) internal respiratory tract
d) respiratory mucosa
e) lower respiratory tract
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c) inspiratory reserve
answer
The amount of air that can be inspired above the tidal volume is called ______.
a) vital capacity
b) expiratory reserve
c) inspiratory reserve
d) reserve air
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b) oropharynx
answer
the amount of air that can in inspired above the tidal volume is called ______.
a) trachea
b) oropharynx
c) nasal cavity
d) larynx
e) nasopharynx
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a) respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
answer
Because the lungs are filled with fluid during fetal life, which of the following statements is true regarding respiratory exchange?
a) respiratory exchanges are made through the placenta.
b) because the lungs develop later in gestation, fetuses do not need a mechanism for respiratory exchange
c) respiratory exchanges are not necessary
d) respiratory exchanges are made through the ductus arteriosus
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b) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
answer
How is the majority of carbon dioxide carried in blood?
a) chemically combined with the heme portion of hemoglobin
b) as the bicarbonate ion in the plasma after first entering the red blood cells
c) chemically combined with the amino acids of hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin in the red blood cells
d) as carbonic acid in the plasma
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b) diffusion
answer
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs and through all cell membranes by _____.
a) osmosis
b) diffusino
d) active transport
d) filtration
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a) B12
answer
Which vitamin requires intrinsic factor in order to be absorbed?
a) B12
b) C
c) K
d) A
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secreting excess albumin
answer
The kidney does all of these EXCEPT ______
a) regulating plasma electrolytes
b) secreting excess albumin
c) regulating blood volume
d) helping stabilize blood pH
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from glomerulus to glomerular capsule
answer
The step in kidney function where fluid is forced out of the blood is ____
a) from afferent arteriole to glomerulus
b) from PCT to DCT
c) from glomerulus to glomerular capsule
d) from glomerular capsule to PCT
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minor calyces
answer
Urine flows first from the papilla to the _____
a) renal pelvis
b) urethra
c) major calyces
d) minor calyces
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glucose
answer
One of the organic substances NOT normally excreted by the kidney is ________
a) glucose
b) urea
c) creatinine
d) uric acid
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cotransport
answer
The reabsorption of glucose from the filtrate is done by ____
a) cotransport
b) counter transport
c) facilitrated diffusion
d) active transport
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a decrease in urine volume but a increase in solute concentration
answer
Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH) causes
a) an increase in both urine volume and solute concentration
b) a decrease in urine volume but a increase in solute concentration
c) an increase in urine volume but a decrease in solute concentration
d) a decrease in both urine volume and solute concentration
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renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
answer
TGhe ureters extend from the _______
a) urinary bladder to the urethra
b) renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
c) minor calyces to the major calyces
d) nephrons to the renal pelvis
question
increased sensitivity to ADH
answer
With advancing years ,the urinary system developes all of these problems EXCEPT _____
a) a decrease if GFR
b) urinary retention
c) increased sensitivity to ADH
d) increased frequency of infection
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endocrine system
answer
In addition to the urinary system, bodily wastes are removed by all of theses systems EXCEPT the _______
a) endocrine system
b) respiratory system
c) digestive system
d) integumentary system
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nutrient balance
answer
Which of these is NOT part of the maintenance of normal volume of body fluids?
a) acid-base balance
b) electrolyte balance
c) nutrient balance
d) fluid balance
question
blood cells
answer
Which of these is NOT a component of the extracellular fluid compartment?
a) blood plasma
b) blood cells
c) cerebrospinal fluid
d) interstitial fluid
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testosterone
answer
Which of these hormones has little direct effect on water balance?
a) anti-diuretic hormone
b) aldosterone
c) natriretic peptides
d) testosterone
question
water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will shrink
answer
If the extracellular fluid (ECF) is made hypertonic, _______
a) water will move from the ECF to the ICF and cells will swell
b) water will move from the ECF to the ICF and cells will shrink
c) water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will shrink
d) water will move from the ICF to the ECF and cells will swell
question
amount of sodium in the diet
answer
The rate of uptake of sodium ion across the digestive membrane is directly proportional to the ________
a) loss of sodium in the feces
b) loss of sodium in the sweat
c) amount of sodium in the diet
d) loss of sodium in the urine
question
All of these hormones are produced by the placenta
answer
Which of these hormones is produced by the placenta?
a) progesterone
b) relaxin
c) human chorionic gonadotropin
d) All of these hormones are produced by the placenta.