question

1) What is the administrative distance of RIP? A) 100 B) 110 C) 120 D) 90

answer

C. 120

question

2) Link-state routing protocols _________. (Choose all that apply) A) Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes B) Send routing tables to neighbors C) Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols D) Determine the best path via the hop count algorithm

answer

A. Use link-state advertisements to notify neighbor routers of route changes C. Reach convergence faster than distance vector routing protocols.

question

3) RIP has a maximum hop count of ____. A) 255 B) 16 C) 15 D) 254

answer

C. 15

question

4) Which command enables RIP on a router. A) router network RIP B) router rip C) router igrp D) router ospf

answer

B. router rip

question

5) Which command will show the IP routing table of a router? A) show ip route B) show ip protocol C) debug ip igrp events D) show run

answer

A. show ip route

question

6) Nonroutable protocols are able to pass packets among multiple networks? A) True B) False

answer

B. False

question

7) IGRP can use which of the following as metrics? (Choose all that apply) A) Hop count B) Bandwidth C) Delay D) Split horizon

answer

A) Hop count B) Bandwidth C) Delay

question

8) Which of the following is a routed protocol? (Choose all that apply) A) NetBEUI B) TCP/IP C) IPX/SPX D) RIP E) Split horizon

answer

B) TCP/IP C) IPX/SPX

question

9) Which of the following helps to prevent routing loops? (Choose all that apply) A) Split horizon B) Count-to-infinity C) Hold-down timers D) Split horizon with poison reverse

answer

A) Split horizon C) Hold-down timers D) Split horizon with poison reverse

question

10) At which router prompt can you use the router rip command? A) RouterB# B) RouterB> C) RouterB(config)# D) RouterB(config-router)#

answer

C) RouterB(config)#

question

11) At which router prompt can you issue the network [network #] command? A) RouterB# B) RouterB> C) RouterB(config)# D) RouterB(config-router)#

answer

D) RouterB(config-router)#

question

12) The debug ip rip command can be used in user mode and privilege mode. A) True B) False

answer

B. False

question

13) Which of the following routing protocols can route between autonomous systems? (Choose all that apply) A) IGRP B) RIP C) BGP D) EGP

answer

C) BGP D) EGP

question

14) What type of routing protocol is used within autonomous systems? A) Exterior Gateway Protocols B) TCP/IP C) NetBEUI D) Interior Gateway Protocol

answer

D. Interior Gateway Protocol

question

15) RIP and IGRP both advertise a route to a particular network. Which route will be added to the routing table? A) The RIP route B) The IGRP route C) NetBEUI D) BGP-enhanced IGRP

answer

B. The IGRP route

question

16) What command is used to display RIP timers? A) show ip route B) show run C) debug ip rip D) show ip protocol

answer

D. show ip protocol

question

17) What two commands are needed to configure RIP on a router? (Choose all that apply) A) network rip B) router rip C) router network rip D) network [network #]

answer

B) router rip D) network [network #]

question

18) A metric is a variable used to determine the suitability of a route. A) True B) False

answer

A. True

question

19) A major drawback of link-state routing protocols is: A) Routing by rumor B) Increased memory and processing required on routers C) Show time to convergence D) Inability to adapt to network topology changes

answer

B. Increased memory and processing required on routers

question

20) Which of the following commands would enable a routing protocol that is only concerned with hop count? A) router# router igrp B) router(config)# router igrp C) router# router rip D) router(config)# router rip E) router# router ospf

answer

D. router(config)# router rip

question

21) Which of the following are true about administrative distance? (Choose all that apply) A) The higher the administrative distance, the more desirable the route B) Administrative distances are used with static routes C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120 D) The default administrative distance for static routes is higher than those for dynamic routes. E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP

answer

B) Administrative distances are used with static routes C) The default administrative distance for RIP is 120 E) The default administrative distance for a connected network is lower that for the default route of IGRP

question

22) What does the number 240 stand for in the following command? Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 240 A) Number of masked bits B) Decimal subnet mask C) Number of hops D) Administrative distance E) Autonomous network number

answer

D. Administrative distance

question

23) If you want to monitor real-time RIP traffic, which command would you type? A) router> router rip B) router# router rip C) router# show rip D) router(config)# show rip E) router# debug ip rip

answer

E. router# debug ip rip

question

24) Which of the following does RIP support? (Choose all that apply) A) Load balancing B) Link reliability metric C) Bandwidth metric D) Delay metric

answer

A. Load balancing

question

1) What command injects a default route into an OSPF network? A) Passive-interface B) Loopback default C) Router ospf D) Default-information originate

answer

Default-information originate

question

2) Classless routing protocols carry subnet mask information in their routing table updates? A) True B) False

answer

True

question

3) The process ID must match on all routers in an OSPF network? A) True B) False

answer

False

question

4) What command switches RIP to version 2? A) router rip 2 B) version 2 C) rip version 2 D) ripV2 on

answer

version 2

question

5) What command turns off automatic summarization to major network boundaries in both RIPv2 and EIGRP? A) summarization off B) no summary C) no auto-summary D) no ip classless

answer

no auto-summary

question

6) In what state are OSPF neighbors, when bidirectional communication has been established and adjacencies have been formed? A) Passive B) Up C) DR D) FULL

answer

FULL

question

7) Which type of authentication sends only a hash across the link between two authenticating peers? A) MD5 B) Clear text C) Signed secret keys D) Shared keys

answer

MD5

question

8) What command places the 192.168.12.32/27 network into OSPF area 0? A) Network 192.168.12.0 area 0 B) Network 192.168.12.32 area 0 C) Network 192.168.12.32 255.255.255.225 area 0 D) Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0

answer

Network 192.168.12.32 0.0.0.31 area 0

question

9) EIGRP uses the same metric as IGRP multiplied by________.

answer

256

question

10) What feature of OSPF allows it to use a hierarchical design? A) Areas B) Auto summarization C) Wildcard masks D) Neighbors adjacencies

answer

Areas

question

11) Cisco routers can be configured to send and receive RIPv1 updates on a per-interface basis. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

12) What protocol is used by RIGRP to transport its routing protocol information? A) TCP B) UDP C) RTP D) DR/BDR

answer

RTP

question

13) Which of the following commands enables EIGRP on a router with an autonomous system number of 101? A) Router EIGRP B) Router EIGRP 101 C) Router 101 EIGRP D) As 101

answer

Router EIGRP 101

question

14) What algorithm is used by OSPF for path selection? A) DUAL B) Open Path First C) Shortest Path First D) Default-information Originate

answer

Shortest Path First

question

15) A backup route in EIGRP is a(n)? ______

answer

Feasible Successor

question

16) OSPF timers must match for neighbors to from adjacencies. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

17) EIGRP timers must match for neighbors to form adjacencies. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

18) Which of the following commands would ensure that a router becomes the DR on a broadcast, multi-access network? A) IP OSPF priority 256 B) IP OSPF DR on C) IP OSPF priority 0 D) None of the above

answer

None of the above

question

19) What command displays the successors and feasible successors for EIGRP? A) Show IP route B) Show IP EIGRP topology C) Show IP OSPF topology D) Show IP topology

answer

Show IP EIGRP topology

question

20) What command displays area authentication information? A) show ip route B) show ip ospf C) show ip ospf authentication D) show authentication

answer

show ip ospf

question

21) The OSPF priority range assigned to a router is _____.

answer

D255

question

22) Clear text is the most secure authentication supported by OSPF. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

23) Which of the following is used by EIGRP for path determination? A) DUAL B) Dijkstra's Shortest Path First Algorithm C) Wildcard masks D) Priority

answer

A) DUAL

question

24) What is the default OSPF cost for FastEthernet (assuming the default reference bandwidth)? A) 40 B) 255 C) 0 D) 1

answer

1

question

1) What is used on routers to hide intranet addresses from the Internet? A) PAP B) CHAP C) NAT D) FRAT

answer

NAT

question

2) Which flavor of NAT maps multiple internal IP addresses to a single external IP address? A) PAP B) CHAP C) NAT D) PAT

answer

PAT

question

3) How does overlapping occur? A) The network administrator does not plan for internet connectivity B) The network administrator uses registered IP addresses without getting permission C) Both a and b D) None of the above

answer

C) Both a and b

question

4) When would it be most appropriate to configure static NAT? A) When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address B) When you do not care what public IP address is used by a device C) When the inside-to-outside IP address mapping is not important D) When you want every inside IP address to translate to a single public IP address

answer

When you want to guarantee that a particular device is always associated with the same public IP address

question

5) What is the purpose of the ip nat inside command? A) To tell the router to use static NAT B) To tell the router to use dynamic NAT C) To tell the router to enter NAT configuration mode D) To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface

answer

To tell the router that the current interface is the be considered the inside interface

question

6) The DNS service is required in order to browse the web. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

7) Which of the following commands statically maps a name to an IP address? A) ip name-server B) ip host C) ip address D) ip name

answer

ip host

question

8) Which of the following commands disables the default DNS lookup function on a Cisco router? A) no ip domain-lookup B) no lookup C) no ip-lookup D) no ip domain-name lookup

answer

no ip domain-lookup

question

9) Which of the following commands directs the router to a DNS server for IP-to-name resolution? A) ip host B) ip address C) ip name D) ip name-server

answer

ip name-server

question

10) If you have disabled the lookup function on your Cisco router, you will have to re-enable it if you want to use a DNS server to resolve names on your router. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

11) Which of the following is not a DHCP packet type? A) DHCP OFFER B) DHCP SYN C) DHCP REQUEST D) DHCP ACK E) DHCP DISCOVER

answer

DHCP SYN

question

12) What is the purpose of the service dhcp command? A) Starts monitoring the DHCP service B) Turns off DHCP debugging C) Enables DHCP D) Disables DHCP

answer

Enables DHCP

question

13) Where is the DHCP database typically stored? A) On the router B) On the server C) On a CD or DVD D) The database is not stored

answer

On the server

question

14) Which of the following are optional when configuring your router to be a DHCP server? A) Default gateway B) IP address C) Subnet mask D) DNS server address E) WINS server address F) Domain name

answer

A) Default gateway D) DNS server address E) WINS server address F) Domain name

question

15) Which of the following monitoring commands displays any IP addresses leased by the DHCP server and the corresponding MAC address of the host? A) show ip dhcp pool B) show dhcp C) show ip dhcp binding D) show binding

answer

show ip dhcp binding

question

16) Which of the following monitoring commands displays DHCP pool specific information? A) show ip dhcp pool B) show dhcp C) show ip dhcp binding D) show binding

answer

show ip dhcp pool

question

17) Cisco's SDM can be used to configure network services such as DNS and DHCP. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

18) What is the difference between configuring dynamic NAT and PAT on a cisco router using the SDM? A) The access list that defines the inside addresses will be different B) You will select overload instead of dynamic in the Add Address Translation Rule dialog box C) The direction selected for PAT will be from outside to inside rather than from inside to outside D) You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses

answer

You will translate to an interface rather than to a pool of addresses

question

19) It is easier to configure a pointer to a DNS server using the command-line interface rather than the SDM. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

20) What is another name for a wildcard mask? A) Inverse mask B) Obtuse mask C) Backwards mask D) Flip mask

answer

Inverse mask

question

1) Which wildcard mask would apply an access list line to all packets from network 172.25.0.0? A) 255.255.255.0 B) 255.255.0.0 C) 255.254.0.0 D) 0.0.255.255

answer

0.0.255.255

question

2) Standard IP access lists filter traffic based on which of the following? (Choose all that apply) A) Destination IP address B) IP protocol C) Port number D) Source IP address

answer

Source IP address

question

3) Wildcard masks use a __________ to signify which bits of an address are significant.

answer

Zero

question

4) Which command shows only the IP access lists on a router? A) show access-lists B) show ipx access-lists C) show ip access-lists D) show interface

answer

show ip access-lists

question

5) Which commands allow you to view the interfaces that have IP access lists applied to them? A) show interfaces B) show ip interface C) show ip traffic D) show ip conters

answer

show ip interface

question

6) Which host and wildcard mask pair does the any keyword represent? A) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 B) 0.0.255.255 0.0.0.0 C) 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 D) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

answer

0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

question

7) Which command is used to apply an IP access list to an interface? A) ip access-group [list #] [in | out] B) ip access-group permit 100 C) ip access-group [list #] [permit | deny] D) show ip interface

answer

ip access-group [list #] [in | out]

question

8) Access lists are . (Choose all that apply.) A) Used to filter traffic and control network security B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters C) Sequential permit or deny statements D) Built into the routers firmware

answer

A) Used to filter traffic and control network security B) Applied as either inbound or outbound filters C) Sequential permit or deny statements

question

9) Standard IP access lists are represented by the number range. A) 100 - 199 B) 1 - 99 C) 1000 - 1099 D) 200 - 299

answer

1 - 99

question

12) The show access-lists command displays . A) Access lists applied to interfaces B) All access lists on the routers C) Only IP access lists on the router D) Only IPX access lists on the router

answer

All access lists on the routers

question

13) At which of the following prompts would you create an access list? A) routerC# B) routerC> C) routerC (config-if) # D) routerC (config)

answer

routerC (config)

question

14) At which of the following prompts would you apply an access list to an interface? A) routerC# B) routerC> C) routerC (config-if) # D) routerC (config)

answer

routerC (config-if) #

question

15) Which of the following host and corresponding wildcard mask pairs represent the same value as host 172.29.2.2 A) 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 B) 172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0 C) 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 D) 0.0.0.0 172.29.2.2

answer

172.29.2.2 0.0.0.0

question

16) A router can have one access list per protocol, per direction on each interface. A) True B) False

answer

True

question

17) Which of the following is a benefit of using named lists? A) The syntax is identical to using numbered lists B) Fewer lists are allowed, so it is easier to remember them C) You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit D) Using named lists offers no benefits

answer

You are not constrained by the 100 lists per filter type limit

question

18) What happens if a list is applied to an interface and then the list itself is removed? A) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be denied B) The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted C) The commands will not be executed and all traffic will be permitted D) None of the above.

answer

The commands will be executed and all traffic will be permitted

question

19) What is true of the host keyword? (Choose all that apply) A) It can only be used with extended IP lists B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists. C) It replaces the 0.0.0.255 wildcard mask D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated F) It is placed after the IP address with which it is associated

answer

B) It can be used with standard and extended IP lists. D) It replaces the 0.0.0.0 wildcard mask E) It is placed before the IP address with which it is associated

question

20) What is the purpose of the "established" parameter? A) To establish a connection between the sender and receiver B) To prevent any traffic into a network C) To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network D) To permit all TCP traffic but not IP traffic into the established network

answer

To prevent any traffic into a network that did not originate from that network

question

21) All access lists presented in this chapter, except standard IP lists, should be placed where? A) As close to the source as possible B) As close to the destination as possible C) As close to the serial interface as possible D) As close to the tftp server as possible

answer

As close to the source as possible

question

22) Which command links an access list to the VTY lines? A) ip access-group B) ip access-class C) vty access-class D) access-class

answer

access-class

question

23) Which SDM wizard allows you to configure a DMZ? A) Firewall configuration wizard B) Security configuration wizard C) Basic firewall wizard D) Advanced firewall wizard

answer

Advanced firewall wizard

question

24) List the three Basic Firewall security settings. A) 1st B) 2nd C) 3rd

answer

A) High B) Medium C) Low

question

25) The SDM cannot be used to create complex access control lists. A) True B) False

answer

False

question

1) If you want to use CHAP authentication, which protocol would you employ? A) Multilink B) PAP C) Frame Relay D) PPP relay

answer

PPP relay

question

2) What is the default encapsulation type on serial interfaces of Cisco routers? A) PPP B) HDLC C) SDLC D) Frame Relay

answer

HDLC

question

3) Which of the following is an NCP? (Choose all that apply) A) IPXCP B) HDLC C) SDLC D) ATCP E) IPCP

answer

A) IPXCP D) ATCP E) IPCP

question

4) PPP was derived from ________. A) Frame Relay B) HDLC C) RBOC D) ISDN

answer

HDLC

question

5) What is a common reason for looping an interface? A) To achieve greater bandwidth B) To drop nonessential frames C) To increase packet size D) testing

answer

testing

question

6) Which of the following is a unique number that helps devices discover looped interfaces? A) MAC B) LCP C) Magic number D) Bandwidth

answer

Magic number

question

7) Which of the following employs the strongest encryption technique? A) Plain text B) PAP C) CHAP D) Clear text

answer

CHAP

question

8) If you want your router to use CHAP and then PAP authentication, which of the following commands would be correct? A) router>ppp au chap pap B) router# ppp authentication chap pap C) router(config-if) #ppp au pap chap D) router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap E) router(config) # ppp authentication chap pap

answer

router (config-if) #ppp au chap pap

question

9) Which WAN protocol did PPP replace? A) HDLC B) SDLC C) SLIP D) APD

answer

SLIP

question

10) Which protocol is used to automatically build the Frame Relay map along with LMI? A) ARP B) RARP C) Inverse ARP D) DLCI

answer

Inverse ARP

question

11) To make DLCI number globally significant, LMI causes routers to issue that advertise the DLCI numbers. A) unicasts B) keepalives C) broadcasts D) multicasts

answer

broadcasts

question

12) When negotiating a data transfer rate for Frame Relay with a telecommunications provider, the rate agreed upon is the A) Keepalive rate B) CIR C) EBS D) DDR

answer

CIR

question

13) The address portion of the Frame Relay frame contains which of the following pieces of information? (Choose all that apply) A) DLCI B) FECN C) Flag D) BECN E) FCS

answer

A) DLCI B) FECN

question

14) The line speed of a frame relay connection is known as the _______. A) Access rate B) CBS C) EBS D) CIR

answer

Access rate

question

15) ______ Numbers are locally significant in Frame Relay connections and are used to identify specific virtual circuits. A) DLCI B) PDN C) ARP D) LMI

answer

DLCI

question

16) To prevent routing loops, Frame Relay uses _________. A) Loopback attack B) Split horizon C) Event horizon D) DLCI numbers

answer

Split horizon

question

17) Frame relay is more efficient than older WAN encapsulation methods because error correction is handled by ________ Frame Relay communications. A) Lower layers B) DLCI C) LMI D) Upper layers

answer

Upper layers

question

18) Frame relay uses ______ to combine multiple data streams on one connection. A) Duplexing B) Simplexing C) Multiplexing D) Encoding

answer

Multiplexing

question

19) What is the purpose of keepalive packets? A) To reduce data transfer rates B) To keep PVCs active C) To increase data transfer rates D) To negotiate connection speed

answer

To keep PVCs active

question

20) Which of the following layers do WAN specifications typically define? (Choose all that apply) A) Physical B) Data Link C) Network D) Transport E) Presentation

answer

A) Physical B) Data Link

question

21) In frame Relay, what would be considered the DCE? A) Customer's router B) Terminal adapter C) PPP D) Frame Relay Switch

answer

Frame Relay Switch

question

22) What was formerly CITT? A) ASCII B) ANSI C) ITU-T D) EBCDIC

answer

ITU-T

question

23) What is another term used to describe a Frame Relay switch? A) FRND B) FRAD C) PDN D) PSTN

answer

FRAD

question

24) Which of the following would be a subinterface for Serial 1/0? A) S0/0.1 B) S0/0.2 C) S0/1.2 D) S0/2.1

answer

S0/1.2

question

25) What does LMI stand for? A) Logical Management Interface B) Local Management Interface C) Logical Maintenance Interconnect D) Logical Maintenance Interface

answer

Local Management Interface

question

26) What are the three possible connection states for a DLCI? (Choose all that apply) A) Interactive B) Active C) Inactive D) Disconnected E) Deleted

answer

A) Interactive B) Active E) Deleted

question

27) Which of the following does not allow broadcasts to be sent to multiple destinations through a single interface? A) LMI B) Subinterfaces C) LCP D) MBA E) NBMA

answer

Subinterfaces

question

28) Which of the following is a type of virtual circuit? (Choose all that apply) A) MVC B) PVC C) SVC D) QVC

answer

PVC

question

29) Which of the following are LMI encapsulation types supported by Cisco routers? (Choose all that apply) A) LMI 2 B) Cisco C) Ansi D) v923i E) q933a

answer

B) Cisco C) Ansi E) q933a

question

30) Which of the following is the default LMI encapsulation type for a Cisco router? A) LMI 2 B) Cisco C) Ansi D) v923i E) q933a

answer

Cisco

question

31) What does the router (config-if)#encap fr command do? A) Sets the enable mode prompt to fr B) Enables Frame Relay on the first serial interface C) Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay D) Sets the language to French

answer

Sets the encapsulation to Frame Relay

question

32) Which of the following command would show statistics for a virtual circuit? A) router>sh frame map B) router#sh frame map C) router#sh frame pvc D) router(config-if) #sh frame pvc

answer

router#sh frame pvc

question

33) What Frame Relay encapsulation must be configured on Cisco routers that are attached to non-Cisco routers? A) ietf B) cisco C) ansi D) q933a

answer

ietf

question

34) How often are Frame Relay keepalive packets sent by default? A) every 30 seconds B) every 10 seconds C) once every hour on the half-hour D) once every hour on the hour E) once every 30 minutes

answer

every 10 seconds

question

1) What does a switch build into its table to successfully send data to that device? A) Routing address B) IP address C) Bridge address D) MAC address

answer

MAC address

question

2) Which of the following types of switching methods reads the first 64 bytes of a frame before forwarding it? A) Store and forward B) Cut through C) Fragment free D) Adaptive

answer

Fragment free

question

4) Which devices look at a MAC address when making their forwarding decision? (Choose all that apply) A) Switch B) Repeater C) Bridge D) Router

answer

Switch

question

5) Which of the following network media provides the lowest latency? A) STP B) Category 3 UTP C) Category 4 UTP D) Category 5 UTP E) Fiber-optic cable

answer

Fiber-optic cable

question

6) Which of the following correctly describes microsegmentation? A) Creating additional segments with passive hubs B) Creating additional segments with routers C) Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2 D) Limiting network segments to no more than 10 users

answer

Creating additional segments wit fewer users per segment via layer 2

question

7) Which of the following Ethernet error describes a packet that has a bad FCS and is over 1518 bytes? A) Runt B) Short C) Jabber D) Bad FCS frame

answer

Jabber

question

8) When two Ethernet stations are able to send more than 64 bytes of their data frames before detecting a collision, this is called a. A) Jabber B) Jam signal C) Slot time D) Late collision

answer

Late collision

question

9) The minimum size of an Ethernet Frame should be bytes. A) 32 B) 64 C) 512 D) 1518

answer

64

question

10) Collisions and Ethernet errors typically occur with the first bytes of an Ethernet frame, which is why fragment-free switching catches most Ethernet errors. A) 64 B) 512 C) 1024 D) 1518

answer

A) 64

question

11) Which of the following describes a method of Ethernet networking that does not have collisions? A) Fast Ethernet B) 100-Mbps Ethernet C) Full-duplex Ethernet D) Half-duplex Ethernet

answer

C) Full-duplex Ethernet

question

12) Which of the following switching types has the highest latency? A) Store-and-forward B) Cut-through C) Adaptive D) Fragment-free

answer

Store-and-forward

question

13) If a broadcast from one computer causes multiple stations to respond with additional broadcast traffic, and the level of broadcast traffic goes above 126 broadcasts per second, the situation is deemed a(n) ___________________. A) Broadcast storms B) Transmission overload C) Excessive burst D) Jabber

answer

A) Broadcast storms

question

14) Which of the following fall under the heading of Fast Ethernet? (Choose all that apply) A) 10BaseT B) 100BaseT C) 10BaseF D) 100Base-TX E) 100Base-T4

answer

B) 100BaseT D) 100Base-TX E) 100Base-T4

question

15) Which IEEE standard governs Fast Ethernet? A) 802.3a B) 802.3u C) 802.3g D) 802.3b

answer

802.3u

question

16) Which of the following can divide a collision domain? (Choose all that apply) A) Switch B) Bridge C) Router D) Hub

answer

A) Switch B) Bridge C) Router

question

17) Which of the following allows you to limit the number of MAC addresses learned by a switch port? A) max switchport port-security 10 B) switchport port-security maximum 10 C) switch port-security maximum 10 D) switchport security maximum 10

answer

B) switchport port-security maximum 10

question

18) What benefits would your network have by replacing all 10Mbps hubs with 10Mbps Catalyst switches? (Choose all that apply) A) Increase the number of broadcast domains B) Decrease the number of broadcast domains C) Increase the number of collision domains D) Decrease the number of collision domains E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch.

answer

C) Increase the number of collision domains E) Increase the bandwidth between stations that are directly connected to the switch F) Allow for full-duplex operations between nodes directly connected to the switch

question

19) Which statements are true about half-duplex Ethernet? A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on B) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned off C) On a 10Mbps link, communicating nodes would have 10Mbps of bandwidth available to them D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch E) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a switch F) Because separate circuits are used by communicating end nodes in half-duplex, collisions will not occur

answer

A) In half-duplex mode, CSMA/CD is turned on D) Half-duplex transmission is mandatory if nodes are directly connected to a hub that is connected to a switch

question

20) Which statement is true about store and forward switching? (Choose all that apply) A) Only the header of a frame is read before the switch forwards the frame B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame C) Both latency and error rates are decreased D) Both latency and error rates are increased E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased

answer

B) The switch stores the frame and calculates the CRC before forwarding the frame. E) Latency is increased while error rate is decreased.

question

21) When collisions are above 5% you should consider: A) Segmenting the LAN B) Increasing traffic on the LAN C) Monitoring traffic on the LAN D) Adding hubs to the LAN

answer

Segmenting the LAN

question

22) Which of the following advantages can Cisco switches can provide over hubs? (Choose all that apply) A) Increase the number of collision domains B) Increased bandwidth for individual users C) Reduced latency D) Concurrent frame forwarding

answer

A) Increase the number of collision domains B) Increased bandwidth for individual users D) Concurrent frame forwarding

question

23) Which of the following are true of half-duplex operation on a CSMA/CD network? (Choose all that apply) A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission. B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision D) Collisions are not possible in a half-duplex Ethernet

answer

A) The transmitting NIC loops back its transmission. B) The NIC listens to the media before transmitting C) The transmitting NIC compares the original frame with the looped-back frame to determine whether there was a collision

question

24) The switching method begins forwarding the incoming frame immediately after reading the destination address. A) Cut-through B) Store and forward C) Adaptive D) Fragment free

answer

Cut-through

question

25) What command is used to set a port on a switch to full-duplex mode? A) mode full-duplex B) duplex full C) switch full D) port full

answer

duplex full

question

1) The IEEE standard 802.1q recommends which type of VLAN identification method? A) Frame filtering B) Frame tagging C) Frame segmenting D) Frame sequencing

answer

Frame tagging

question

2) What are the five STP port states? (Choose all that apply) A) Learning B) Listener C) Disabled D) Forwarding E) Listening F) Forwarder G) Blocking

answer

A) Learning B) Listener C) Disabled D) Forwarding E) Listening G) Blocking

question

3) By default, implementing a switched network increases the number of collision domains. Which switching technology allows for a decrease in the size of broadcast domains? A) Spanning Tree Protocol B) Filtering and forwarding C) Virtual LANs D) VTP Pruning

answer

Virtual LANs

question

4) For what was the Spanning Tree Protocol created? A) Prevent bridges from forwarding information out of ports that received the information B) Prevent routing loops in a routed internetwork C) Avoid loops in a bridged network with redundant paths D) Assist in the depletion of IP addresses

answer

Avoid loops in a bridged network with redundant paths

question

5) Which of the following are reasons that a bridge port would be placed in the forwarding state? (Choose all that apply) A) The port is on the root bridge B) The port is connected to multiple bridges C) The port is the root port D) The port is not working

answer

A) The port is on the root bridge. C) The port is the root port.

question

6) In what three VTP modes can a switch be set? A) Server, client, virtual B) Server, host, transparent C) Server, host, volatile D) Server, client, transparent

answer

Server, client, transparent

question

7) Which statements are true about VTP pruning? A) It is enabled by default B) It is disabled by default C) It is used to allow two spanning-trees to work simultaneously on the same segment of wire D) It increases the available bandwidth E) It increases the amount of needless traffic on a network.

answer

B) It is disabled by default C) It is used to allow two spanning-trees to work simultaneously on the same segment of wire D) It increases the available bandwidth

question

8) For a VLAN to span two or more switches, what must be configured? A) a switches duplex feature B) a VTP management domain C) a VPMs D) a trunk connection

answer

a trunk connection

question

9) After entering the interface configuration mode for a port on a 2950 switch, which command would assign the port to VLAN 10? A) vlan-membership static 10 B) switchport access vlan 10 C) vlan static 10 D) vlan 10 static-membership

answer

switchport access vlan 10

question

10) Which of the following allows you to reorganize broadcast domains no matter what the physical configuration dictates? A) router B) VLAN C) Bridge D) Switch

answer

B) VLAN

question

11) If you attach a hub with five stations to a switch port that is configured for VLANs, in how many different VLANs will the devices on the hubs be located? A) five B) three C) two D) one

answer

D) one

question

12) Which of the following are advantages to VLANs? (Choose all that apply) A) VLANs make relocating devices easier B) Separate VLANs do not require routers C) VLANs increase effective bandwidth utilization D) VLANs restructure broadcast domains

answer

A) VLANs make relocating devices easier C) VLANs increase effective bandwidth utilization D) VLANs restructure broadcast domains

question

13) Which of the following is a security benefit that routers provide on VLANs? A) dividing broadcast domains B) dividing collision domains C) allowing for the creation of access lists D) bridging IP to IPX layer 3 protocol gap

answer

allowing for the creation of access lists

question

14) Which of the following are VTP modes of operation? (Choose all that apply) A) client B) server C) transparent D) blocking

answer

A) client B) server C) transparent

question

15) Which command would delete the VLAN database on a switch? A) delete vlan.dat B) delete flash:vlan.dat C) erase flash:vlan.dat D) erase vlan.dat

answer

delete flash:vlan.dat

question

16) Which command allows you to create a VTP domain named XYZDOM? A) VTP XYZDOM Domain B) Domain VTP XYZDOM C) VTP Domain XYZDOM D) Domain XYZDOM VTP

answer

VTP Domain XYZDOM

question

17) Which statement is true about PortFast? A) PortFast is used when you need to delay the amount of time it takes for a port to transition to the forwarding state. B) PortFast is available on Cisco routers only C) PortFast prevents a port from entering the forwarding state D) PortFast allows a switch port to move to the forwarding state quicker

answer

PortFast allows a switch port to move to the forwarding state quicker

question

18) Which command allows you to create VLAN 2 and name it AccountingVLAN? A) Switch (config-vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan B) Switch (vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan C) Switch (config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan D) Switch(vlan-config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan

answer

B) Switch (vlan) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan C) Switch (config) #Vlan 2 name AccountingVlan

question

19) Which command allows you to add ports to VLANs? A) Switchport mode access B) Switchport access mode C) Access mode switchport D) Mode switchport access

answer

A) Switchport mode access

question

20) Which command allows you to give a description to a port on a switch? A) Name B) Information C) Description D) Named port

answer

Named port

question

21) Which command allows you to give a description to a port on a switch? A) Name B) Information C) Description D) Named port

answer

Description

question

22) Which command allows you to see the spanning-tree configuration for VLAN 3 only? A) Switch (config) #show spanning-tree B) Switch#show spanning-tree vlan 3 C) Switch (config) #show spanning-tree vlan 3 D) Switch#show spanning tree vlan 3

answer

Switch#show spanning-tree vlan 3

question

23) Which VLAN is the default VLAN for a switch? A) VLAN A B) VLAN 1 C) VLAN 10 D) VLAN 100

answer

VLAN 1

question

24) What is the default STP priority for a switch on a network? A) 32768 B) 32769 C) 8192 D) 4096

answer

32768

question

25) Which command would set VLAN 1 with a priority of 4096? A) Spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096 B) Spanning-tree priority vlan 14096 C) Spanning-tree priority 4096 vlan 1 D) Spanning-tree priority 1

answer

Spanning-tree priority vlan 14096

question

_____ networks have computers that are servers and computers that act as clients to those servers. a. EMI b. Peer-to-peer c. Peer-to-node d. Client/server

answer

Client/Server

question

A _____ spans multiple geographic areas and is usually connected by common telecommunication carriers. a. LAN b. SAN c. WAN d. MAN

answer

WAN

question

The term _____ refers to a series of storage devices, such as tapes, hard drives, & CDs, that are networked together to provide very fast data storage for a network or subnetwork. a. MAN b. WAN c. SAN d. LAN

answer

SAN

question

The part of the company's network that allows access to employees is called the ____, which is completely separate from the Internet. a. intranet b. LAN c. SAN d. extranet

answer

intranet

question

The OSI model _____ layer defines the mechanical, electrical, & procedural events occur during the physical transmission of electronic signals on the wire. a. Physical b. Transport c. Data Link d. Network

answer

Physical

question

The _____ sublayer of the Data Link layer defines how data is packaged for the network. a. MAC b. RPC c. CRC d. LLC

answer

LLC

question

A(n) _____ address is a 48-bit address represented as a 12-digit hexadecimal number given to each network card during production. a. CRC b. RPC c. LLC d. MAC

answer

MAC

question

The protocols at the Network Layer allow computer to route packets to remote networks using a _____ address. a. burned in b. BIA c. logical d. physical

answer

Logical

question

_____ protocols, such as User Datagram Protocol (UDP), do not require an ACK. a. Presentation-layer b. Connection-oriented c. Connectionless d. Network-layer

answer

Connectionless

question

Each layer in a protocol stack may add a(n) _____ to the data as it is passed down the layers. a. PDU b. MTU c. CRC d. LLC

answer

Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

question

On analog networks, devices that boost the signal are called _____. a. routers b. amplifiers c. hubs d. repeaters

answer

Amplifiers

question

If a single access point is available in infrastructure mode, then the mode is said to be a(n) _____. a. Virtual Service Set (VSS) b. Extended Service Set (ESS) c. Basic Service Set (BSS) d. Logical Service Set (LSS)

answer

Basic Service Set (BSS)

question

A _____ filters traffic between network segments by examining the destination MAC address. a. hub b. repeater c. router d. bridge

answer

Bridge

question

Switches filter based on _____ addresses. a. logical b. IP c. MAC d. TCP/IP

answer

MAC

question

Routers operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model. a. Network b. Transport c. Data Link d. Physical

answer

Network

question

_____ are commonly used to connect networks to the Internet. a. Bridges b. Switches c. Routers d. Hubs

answer

Routers

question

A(n) _____ is usually a combination of hardware & software. Its purpose is to translate between different protocol suites. a. amplifier b. gateway c. hub d. router

answer

Gateway

question

_____ is a network access method (or media access method) originated by the University of Hawaii. a. FDDI b. AppleTalk c. Ethernet d. Token Ring

answer

Ethernet

question

A _____ is the physical area in which a frame collision might occur. a. signal domain b. jam area c. jam domain d. collision domain

answer

Collision domain

question

Fast Ethernet is defined under the IEEE _____ standard. a. 802.3b b. 802.3f c. 802.3u d. 802.3z

answer

802.3u

question

In _____ communication, devices can send and receive signals simultaneously. a. full-duplex b. mutx c. half-duplex d. single-duplex

answer

Full-duplex

question

The term that describes all the physical components of a network.

answer

Networking hardware

question

A defined method for communicating between systems.

answer

Protocol

question

A wireless transmission media.

answer

Infrared

question

Devices that boost the network signal.

answer

Repeaters

question

Allows communication, security, & distribution of data, files, & applications over a network.

answer

Network Operating system (NOS)

question

Frequently caused by nearby motors or fluorescent lighting.

answer

ElectroMagnetic Interference (EMI)

question

The programs used to run a network.

answer

Networking software

question

When every computer on a network acts as both a client and a server.

answer

Peer-to-peer network

question

Developed as an industry standard for companies to use when developing network hardware and software to ensure complete compatibility.

answer

OSI model

question

A group of network devices that will receive LAN broadcast traffic from each other.

answer

Broadcast domain

question

A generic connection device used to tie several networking cable together to create a link between different stations on a network.

answer

Hub

question

Preventing communications between just two computers from being by computer on the broadcast to every computer on the network or segment.

answer

Microsegmentation

question

When two or more stations in the transmission of excessive broadcast traffic.

answer

Broadcast storm

question

Networks connected by multiple routers.

answer

Internetworks

question

A part of a network that is divided logically or physically from the rest of the network.

answer

Segment

question

Wireless network name.

answer

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

question

A frame destined for all computers on the network.

answer

Broadcast frame

question

Degradation of signal clarity.

answer

Attenuation

question

The _____ is used at the Data Link layer to establish, configure, and test the connection. a. NCP b. ATCP c. IPCP d. LCP

answer

LCP

question

In a production environment, you can use the _____ command from interface configuration mode, which will automatically shut down that interface when looping is detected. a. off-looped-interface b. looped off c. down-when-looped d. off-when-lopped

answer

down-when-looped

question

_____ checks the reliability of the link by monitoring the number of errors, latency between requests, connection retries, and connection failures on the PPP link. a. LQM b. PAP c. CHAP LCDI

answer

LQM

question

_____ is a communications technique for sending data over high-speed digital connections operating at anywhere from 56 Kbps to 44.736 Mbps or higher. a. Frame Relay b. PPP c. Slip d. DLCI

answer

Frame Relay

question

A(n) _____ implementation prevents routing update information received on one physical interface from being rebroadcast to other devices through that same physical interface. a. PVC b. keepalive c. SDLC d. split horizon

answer

Split horizon

question

When the sum of the data arriving over all virtual circuits exceeds that access rate, the situation is called _____. a. undersubscription b. oversubscription c. overrate d. underrate

answer

Oversubscription

question

The Frame Relay _____ topology is like the bus LAN topology; nodes are simply strung along in a daisychained fashion. a. full mesh b. star c. partial mesh d. peer

answer

Peer

question

The _____ is the most popular Frame Relay topology. a. full mesh b. peer c. star d. partial mesh

answer

Star

question

The _____ is the most expensive Frame Relay topology to implement because each router has a direct connection to every other router. a. full mesh b. star c. partial mesh d. peer

answer

Full mesh

question

You can check your Frame Relay configuration by using _____ commands. a. status b. show c. check d. dlci - interface

answer

Show

question

A(n) _____ is the physical area in which a packet collision might occur. a. backoff domain b. collision domain c. IPG domain d. jam domain

answer

Collision domain

question

Stations on a network _____ packets to other stations to make their presence known on the network and to carry out normal network tasks such as IP address-to-MAC address resolution. a. broadcast b. unicast c. multicast d. anycast

answer

Broadcast

question

A(n) _____ occurs when two stations transmit more than 64 bytes of data frames before dete4cting a collision. a. jabber b. NIC error c. late collision d. alignment error

answer

Late collision

question

A bridge maintains a _____ that maps the MAC addresses on each segment to the corresponding port on the bridge to which each segment is connected. a. multicast table b. map table c. bandwidth table d. bridging table

answer

Bridging table

question

A _____operates at layer 3 of the OSI reference model. It interprets the Network layer protocol and makes forwarding decisions based on the layer 3 address. a. switch b. router c. bridge d. hub

answer

Router

question

_____ switches read the entire frame, no matter how large, into their buffers before forwarding. a. Fast-forward b. Store-and-forward c. fragment-free d. cut-through

answer

Store-and-forward

question

_____ represents an effort to provide more error-reducing benefits than cut-through switching, while keeping latency lower than does store-and-forward switching. a. Fragment-free forwarding b. Fast forwarding c. Adaptive cut-through forwarding. d. Adaptive fast forwarding

answer

Fragment-free forwarding

question

Fragment-free switches are also known as _____ switches. a. fast forwading b. error sensing c. cut-through d. modified cut-through

answer

Modified cut-through

question

Two types of operating systems are in use on Cisco switches: IOS-bassed and _____. a. terminal-based b. command-based c. set-based d. prompt-based

answer

Set-based

question

To start configuration mode, first type _____ at the command prompt. a. cfg trmnl b. config tty c. config t d. cfg t

answer

config t

question

Generally speaking, a switch does not require an IP address, because switches operate mainly on Layer 2 (_____ addresses). a. IP b. TCP c. IPX d. MAC

answer

MAC

question

To view the configuration of a port, use the ____ command. a. display b. show c. interface d. port

answer

Show

question

An encapsulation type for serial interface communications.

answer

PPP

question

A routing technique that reduces the chance of routing loops on a network.

answer

Split horizon

question

Allow the simultaneous use of multiple Network layer protocols and are required for each protocol that uses PPP.

answer

NCPs

question

A packet switching & encapsulation technology that functions at the Physical & Data Link layers of the OSI reference model.

answer

Frame relay

question

Switching equipment supplied by a telecommunications provider that serves as a connection to the public data network (PDN).

answer

DCE

question

Virtual interfaces associated with a physical interface.

answer

Subinterfaces

question

A table in RAM that defines the remote interface to which a specific DLCI number is mapped.

answer

Frame Relay map

question

A type of serial device that was developed by Cisco & T3Plus Networking.

answer

HSSI

question

Map virtual circuits to layer 3 protocol addresses.

answer

DLCI numbers

question

A frame with an FCS error and an octet missing.

answer

Alignment error

question

Virtual local area network that allows you to logically segment a network.

answer

VLAN

question

Switches that require all attached network interface devices to use the same transmit/receive speed.

answer

Symmetric switching

question

A sudden rush of network transmissions that causes all other network communication to slow down due to the volume of data competing for access to the same bandwidth on the communication medium.

answer

Broadcast storm

question

Segments a network by filtering traffic at the Data Link layer.

answer

Bridge

question

The length of time that is required to forward, send, or otherwise propagate a data frame.

answer

Latency

question

Also know as error sensing.

answer

Adaptive cut-through forwarding

question

Limits collision domains to five segments of wire, four repeaters, and/or hubs, and three populated hubs between any two stations on a 10-Mbps network.

answer

5-4-3 rule

question

Ethernet contention method.

answer

CSMA/CD

question

Which of the following best describes the Presentation layer? A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications. B. translates, encrypts, or prepares data from the Application layer for network transmission. C. handles routing information for data packets.

answer

Translates, encrypts, or prepares data from the Application layer for network transmission.

question

Which of the following best describes the Newtork layers? A. handles routing information for data packets. B. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data. C. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).

answer

Handles routing information for data packets.

question

Which of the following best describes the Session layers? A. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC). B. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data. C. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.

answer

Establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications

question

Which of the following best describes the Transport layer? A. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data. B. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC). C. segments & reassembles data & provides either connection-oriented or connectionless communications.

answer

Segments & reassembles data & provides either connection-oriented or connectionless communications.

question

Which of the following best describes the Data Link layer? A. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data. B. handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC). C. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications.

answer

Handles link control & uses the MAC address on the (NIC).

question

Which of the following best describes the Physical layer? A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications. B. provides network services to the user. C. provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.

answer

Provides the electrical & mechanical transmission of data.

question

Which of the following best describes the Application layer? A. establishes, maintains, & manages sessions between applications. B. translates, encrypts, or prepares data for network transmission. C. provides network services to the user.

answer

Provides network services to the user.

question

Connection-oriented services are also known as _____ services. a. reliable b. unreliable c. datagram

answer

Reliable

question

Connectionless services are also called _____ services. a. reliable b. acknowledgment c. unreliable

answer

Unreliable

question

Which of the following describes services that receive an acknowledgment from the destination? (Choose all that apply.) a. datagram b. reliable c. connection-oriented d. connectionless

answer

B. Reliable C. Connection-oriented

question

Place the following steps of data encapsulation in their correct descending order: a. frame headers & trailers added b. segment header added c. bit transmission d. packet creation & network header e. data conversion

answer

1. Data conversion 2. Segment header added 3. Packet creation & network header 4. Frame headers & trailers added 5. Bit transmission

question

Which of the following best describes a LAN? A. a network contained with in a single geographic area such as a building or floor in a building B. a countrywide network that spans multiple geographic locations. C. a large network that is connected by both publicly & privately maintained cabling spread over multiple geographic locations.

answer

A network that is contained in a single geographic area such as a building or floor in a building.

question

Before networks, what did people use to transfer files? a. sneakernet b. protocols c. interface cards d. Ethernet

answer

Sneakernet

question

A protocol is to a computer as a(n) _____ is to a person. a. identity b. personality c. language d. personal philosophy

answer

Language

question

Communications on a network originate at the ______. a. destination b. breaker c. peak d. source

answer

Source

question

Transmitted signals are bound for a _____ computer. a. destination b. breaker c. peak d. source

answer

Destination

question

Information transmitted on a network is called a(n) _____. a. package b. expresser c. data destination d. data frame e. E-pack

answer

Package

question

Which of the following are layers of the OSI model? (Choose all that apply.) a. OSI b. Physical c. IEEE d. Data Link

answer

Physical & Data Link

question

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for media access & packaging data into frames? a. Network layer b. Physical layer c. Data Link layer d. Transport layer

answer

C. Data Link layer

question

At which layer of the OSI model will encryption & compression occur? a. Presentation layer b. Session layer c. Application layer d. Network layer

answer

Presentation layer

question

Lists the layers of the OSI model from layer 7 to layer 1?

answer

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

question

The _____ layer is responsible for finding the best path route packets within an internetwork. a. Transport b. Network c. Session d. Data Link

answer

Network

question

The network access method used by Ethernet networks.

answer

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD)

question

A private communications link over public communications infrastructure, such as the Internet.

answer

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

question

A computer language used to query, manipulate, and communicate with databases.

answer

Structured Query Language (SQL)

question

True or False: In 1954, the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) presented the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

answer

False: Because: it was in1984.

question

True or False: Computers must use a common protocol to communicate properly.

answer

True

question

True or False: Peer communication allows error checking to occur on two separate layers simultaneously.

answer

True

question

True or False Many LANs & WANs contain several segments. Dividing a network into segments reduces performance.

answer

False: Because: Dividing a network into segments increase performance.

question

Also called the MAC address. It is burned into the network interface (NIC) during the manufacturing process.

answer

Physical address

question

A group of data that is transmitted across a network.

answer

Packet

question

The process that ensures that data was not corrupted during transmission. This is accomplished by comparing CRC calculations before & after transmission.

answer

Cyclic Redundancy check (CRC)

question

A network address that can be assigned and modified by the person in charge of the network.

answer

Logical address

question

A subsystem of networked storage devices that are physically separate from the severs.

answer

Storage area network (SAN)

question

The invention & evolution of the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) protocol suite resulted from a coordinated effort by the U.S. ____. a. DOD b. SRI c. UCLS d. IEEE

answer

DOD

question

The _____ layer in the TCP/IP model determines the connectionless or connection-oriented services. a. Network Interface b. Transport c. Application d. Internetwork

answer

Transport

question

_____ uses a one-to-one mapping or one-to many mapping method to allow one or more private IP clients to gain access to the Internet by mapping the private IP addresses to public IP addresses. a. DHCP b. NAT c. WINS d. NetBEUI

answer

NAT

question

_____ must be used if you want clients outside your network to access services on your servers. a. Static NAT b. Dynamic NAT c. PAT d. Dynamic PAT

answer

Static NAT

question

To differentiate between the connections, _____ uses multiple public TCP & UDP ports to create unique sockets that map to internal IP addresses. a. PAT b. static NAT c. dynamic NAT d. virtual NAT

answer

PAT

question

NAT servers use ____ to send connections from external clients to the Web server on the internal network. a. nat relay b. port forwarding c. port relay d. dhcp relay

answer

Port forwarding

question

The _____ command enables DNS if it has previously been disabled. a. ip domain-lookup b. domain-lookup on c. ip name-server d. ip dns enable

answer

ip domain-lookup

question

Which statement accurately defines IPsec? a. IPSec is an authentication protocol. b. IPSec is a Cisco-proprietary suite of protocols that allows for secure communication. c. IPSec is an industry-standard suite of protocols that allows for secure communication. d. IPsec supports RADIUS and TACACS+.

answer

c. IPSec is an industry-standard suite of protocols that allows for secure communication.

question

Which command establishes an SSH key pair? a. SshRouter(config)#crypto key generate rsa b. SshRouter(config)#crypto-key generate rsa c. SshRouter(config)#crypto generate rsa d. SshRouter(config)#crypto key-generate rsa

answer

a. SshRouter(config)#crypto key generate rsa

question

What two methods can be used to configure VPNs on a Cisco router? a. IPSec b. RADIUS c. CLI d. SDM e. ESP

answer

c. CLI d. SDM

question

What services are provided by an IPS? (Choose all that apply.) a. examine data packets b. authenticate users c. account for users time on the network d. drop malicious packets

answer

a. examine data packets d. drop malicious packets

question

What services are provided by an IDS? a. examine data packets b. authenticate users c. account for users time on the network d. insert malicious packets

answer

a. examine data packets

question

What is the correct command sequence to protect all five of a router's VTY lines with SSH? a. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 1 SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh b. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4 SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh c.SshRouter(config)#line con 0 1 SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh d. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4 SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh

answer

d. SshRouter(config)#line vty 0 4 SshRouter)config-line)#transport input ssh

question

Which three protocols are supported by IPSec? a. ESP b. 3DES c. MD5 d. SHA e. IKE f. AH

answer

a. ESP d. SHA f. AH

question

What two modes are supported by IPSec? a. traversing mode b. forwarding mode c. tunnel mode d. transport mode

answer

c. tunnel mode d. transport mode

question

Which command successfully sets the SSH Timeout for connections to 1 minute and 30 seconds? a. ip ssh-time-out 90 b. ip ssh time-out 1min 30sec c. ip ssh-time-out 1min 30sec d. ip ssh time-out 90

answer

d. ip ssh time-out 90

question

What functionality is supported by the Cisco SDM? (Choose all that apply.) a. RADIUS b. Security Audit c. PPTP d. VPN configuration

answer

b. Security Audit d. VPN configuration

question

What authentication algorithms are supported by IPSec? (Choose all that apply.) a. ESP b. 3DE5 c. MD5 d. SHA e. IKE f. AH

answer

c. MD5 d. SHA

question

What encryption algorithms are supported by IPSec? (Choose all that apply.) a. ESP b. 3DES c. MD5 d. SHA e. IKE f. AH g. AES

answer

b. 3DES g. AES

question

Which tunneling protocols provide a secure tunnel for the data to travel through? (Choose all that apply) a. AH b. IPSec c. GRE d. L2TP e. PPTP

answer

a. AH d. L2TP e. PPTP

question

Which protocols provide AAA services on Cisco routers? (Choose all that apply.) a. SSH b. RADIUS c. SSL d. TACACS+ e. ESP

answer

b. RADIUS d. TACACS+

question

The term "authentication" in Cisco's AAA model refers to what service? a. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device b. process to validate users c. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network d. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network

answer

b. process to validate users

question

The term "authorization" in Cisco's AAA model refers to what service? a. the ability to verify data as it traverses the network b. the ability to track user activity c. process to validate users d. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device

answer

d. regulation of a user's allowable activities on a device

CCNA Guide to Cisco Networking Review Questions Chapters 7-14

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