HR7 – Flashcards
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1. Properly done orientation programs can serve several purposes including all the following except: A. reducing employee turnover. B. reducing employee errors. C. improving job performance. D. reducing employee anxiety. E. increasing the number of grievances.
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E
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2. A proper and effective orientation program can: A. be done quickly and inexpensively. B. reduce the need for corrective discipline. C. only be done by the human resource department. D. reverse mistakes made in the recruiting and selection processes. E. be highly effective with even minimal organizational commitment and planning.
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B
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3. Proper orientation programs can: A. increase employee turnover. B. develop clear job expectations. C. increase a new employee's level of cognitive dissonance. D. cause increased grievances later on. E. cause a reduction in new employee morale and satisfaction.
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B
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4. To inform new employees what the organization expects of them and what they can expect in return is a direct function of: A. the recruiting process. B. the orientation process. C. the selection process. D. the job analysis process. E. the interviewing process.
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B
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5. A poor new-employee orientation program will: A. increase organizational stability. B. reduce employee anxiety. C. reduce labour grievances. D. encourage employees to do things his or her own way and not to be bound by organizational norms. E. develop clear-cut organizational expectations.
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D
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6. Given the fact that almost ____ percent of new hires leave an organization within the first 6 months, it is important for HR professionals to understand how to engage a new employee right from the beginning. A. 40 B. 70 C. 50 D. 55 E. 60
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E
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7. The term ________ is used to describe a series of aligned strategic processes that take into account all the new employees early experiences. A. orientation B. socialization C. succession planning D. onboarding E. teamwork
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D
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8. Onboarding activities include all of the following except: A. Orientation B. Socialization C. Training. D. Teamwork E. Development
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D
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9. Successful onboarding programs do all of the following except A. Deliver business results. B. Increases employee engagement. C. Help the employee feel welcome. D. Reduces time it takes an employee to understand their job. E. Discourages an employee from asking too many questions.
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E
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10. Orientation programs often cover a number of topics including all of the following except: A. employee benefits. B. job duties. C. job analysis issues. D. organizational issues. E. introduction to other employees.
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C
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11. A good orientation program will: A. attempt to introduce new employees to all their colleagues on the first day. B. start by immediately challenging a new employee with job demands. C. emphasize the socialization of the new employee by discussing organizational norms and values. D. save the most relevant information about the company until the end of the employee's first month. E. avoid confusing employees with information on corporate culture and character.
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C
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12. The process by which a new employee begins to understand and accept the values, norms, and beliefs held by others in an organization is known as ______. A. familiarization B. adaptation C. socialization D. orientation programs E. participation
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C
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13. Approaches to evaluating the effectiveness of an orientation program include the following except: A. randomly interview new employees who have completed the program. B. administer a written test to all new employees on facts they have learned about the organization. C. measure job satisfaction and work motivation after employees have been in their new roles. D. conduct cost-benefit studies on orientation activities. E. randomly select new employees and have them complete surveys.
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B
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14. To be successful an employee orientation program must be designed to include: A. reactions from new employees. B. cognitive dissonance. C. an analysis of workforce demographics. D. a mock disciplinary hearing. E. an informal dinner with co-workers.
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A
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15. There is a trend towards online orientation instruments, the benefits of which are all the following except: A. compressed delivery time. B. reduced workload for trainers. C. greater cost-effectiveness. D. employees can do internet searches for more information. E. ability to deliver to geographically dispersed workforces.
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D
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16. Some reasons for Canadian firms to be concerned with training could include all the following except: A. the competitive need for flatter organizations with more self-governing workers. B. the desire of multi-skilled employees to be evaluated and paid according to their competencies. C. the constant and rising influx of new immigrants and the challenges of diversity management. D. rapidly changing information technology. E. human rights legislation that requires training for all employees.
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E
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17. Training refers to a planned effort by an organization: A. to prepare employees for future job responsibilities. B. to facilitate the learning of job-related behaviours for employees on their current jobs. C. to provide skills for employees in outplacement programs. D. to allow employees to change corporate culture. E. to copy the competition.
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B
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18. An effective training program: A. benefits both employees and the organization. B. is primarily focused on benefiting new employees. C. meets the primary organizational goal of improving the self-confidence of employees. D. can be completed in less than two hours so employees aren't away from their job duties for too long. E. allows employees to complete it on their own time.
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A
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19. Knowledge management has all of the following characteristics except: A. focuses on making information available to managers for decision making. B. translates an organization's ability to utilize employee knowledge. C. attempts to survey and assess the organization's expertise. D. attempts to leverage knowledge within the organization. E. endeavours to increase knowledge systematically to apply knowledge in a profitable manner.
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A
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20. The first step in any training program is to: A. set a specific space as a permanent training area. B. determine what the training program will be about. C. determine training objectives. D. assess the needs of the organization. E. initiate a job redesign program.
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D
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21. In training, to do a needs assessment means to: A. assess the costs of training programs. B. suggest possible methods to evaluate training programs. C. diagnose environmental challenges that could be met through training. D. develop an external workforce analysis to fill training needs. E. review recruiting and selection procedures.
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C
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22. There can be a valid need for training when all of the following situations occur except: A. recently promoted employees may have weaknesses that need to be addressed. B. supervisors recommend training as a means of rewarding good workers. C. new procedures may be introduced to handle a new product line. D. high accident rates are occurring. E. low morale needs to be improved.
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B
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23. Advantages with supervisory recommendations for training can include: A. supervisors see employee performance daily. B. supervisors may wish to "hide" surplus workers. C. supervisors may wish to reward good employees. D. supervisors may want to banish troublemakers. E. supervisors may not be familiar with employees' jobs and performance.
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A
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24. An evaluation of training needs will result in training objectives, including: A. employees' future career plans. B. acceptable performance criteria. C. revised job descriptions. D. training costs. E. where training will take place.
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B
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25. A training program's content is shaped by: A. learning principles. B. needs assessment. C. learning objectives. D. needs assessment and learning objectives. E. learning principles and learning objectives.
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D
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26. All of the following are learning principles except: A. relevance. B. commitment. C. repetition. D. participation. E. transference.
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B
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27. One problem with learning is that: A. it cannot be observed. B. its results cannot be measured. C. it tends to make training less permanent. D. it cannot take place in a formal training situation. E. it cannot be encouraged.
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A
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28. The learning curve seems to indicate that: A. learning takes place as a continuous upward straight line. B. learning takes place in bursts and plateaus. C. learning takes place as a continuous curved line that may plateau out towards the top. D. learning goes down before it goes up. E. learning is limited, if you learn something new, you are likely to forget something old.
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B
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29. Training pilots in flight simulators because the simulators closely resemble the actual cockpits and flight characteristics of the airplane is an example of the learning principle of ______. A. relevance B. repetition C. transference D. feedback E. participation
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C
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30. On-the-job training techniques do not include: A. lecture and simulation. B. job rotation. C. job instruction training. D. coaching. E. apprenticeships.
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A
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31. Cross-training employees by moving them through a variety of jobs within the organization is called _______. A. job enrichment B. job enlargement C. job rotation D. job mentoring E. job learning
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C
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32. In most organizations, coaching (as a training approach) is almost always done by: A. senior management. B. the human resource department. C. the immediate supervisor or manager. D. a professional trainer or coach. E. a virtual-reality coach.
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C
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33. All the following are off-the-job training techniques except: A. vestibule training. B. simulation. C. apprenticeships. D. self-study. E. role-playing.
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C
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34. Case study, simulation, and programmed learning are all examples of: A. on-the-job training techniques. B. off-the-job training techniques. C. role-playing. D. transference. E. participation learning.
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B
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35. All of the following apply to computer based training except: A. it allows the student to control the pace of learning. B. positive reinforcement occurs during the training. C. courses can be offered through tutorial packages. D. currently only generic course topics are available. E. training packages are of a modular type format.
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D
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36. Web-based training: A. is used in group training to enhance interpersonal skills. B. involves the use of simulators that replicate the features of a work situation. C. seeks to change the attitudes of trainees and develop communication skills. D. provides for decision making and the development of problem-solving skills. E. allows for real-time access at any time.
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E
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37. A competency framework is: A. a organizational process for defining corrective discipline in situations of incompetence. B. used to identify quality problems in production. C. a list of competencies that provide a competitive advantage to the organization. D. a test that human resource specialists give employees to determine job standards. E. a physical structure designed to house organizational knowledge.
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C
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38. Employee development can be defined as: A. training employees how to do their job better. B. increasing an employee's level of productivity. C. enhancing an employee's future value through an education process. D. using job analysis to enhance job descriptions. E. developing personal systems for increasing an employee's cognitive dissonance.
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C
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39. The skills, knowledge and behaviours that distinguish high performance in a board role, function or level of the organization is known as: A. Level of development. B. Competencies. C. Employee talent. D. Job skills. E. Talent profile.
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B
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40. Strategic human resource development involves all of the following except: A. identifying essential job skills. B. attempting to change employee behaviour. C. actively managing an employee's learning. D. linking the development needs and activities to an organization's strategy and mission. E. being future oriented with regards to employee development.
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B
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41. The term "human capital": A. is identical in meaning to the term human resources. B. is the cash value of each employee to the organization as represented by salary and wages. C. is a reflection of the depth and breadth of an employee's skills and competencies. D. refers to the total cost of all employees in an organization including benefits and bonuses. E. is identical in meaning to the term human relations
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C
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42. According to Wexley and Latham, the three basic developmental strategies include: A. content, learning and performance criteria. B. participation, repetition and feedback. C. comprehension, behavioural and role-playing. D. behavioural modeling, sensitivity training and mentoring. E. cognitive, behavioural and environmental.
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E
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43. Likely the least effective strategy in employee development, due to its more passive nature, is: A. cognitive. B. behavioural. C. environmental. D. on-the-job training. E. assessment centres.
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A
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44. Developmental strategies that desire to change employee attitudes and values would generally fall under the heading of ______. A. behavioural B. environmental C. cognitive D. normative E. managerial
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B
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45. "Desirable behaviour" as a development strategy includes reinforcing all of the following except: A. proper leadership style. B. conflict resolution techniques. C. appropriate types of communication. D. knowledge and expertise. E. interactions with customers.
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D
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46. The use of such instruments as role-playing, sensitivity training, team building, and mentoring would indicate an organizational strategy based on the: A. cognitive approach. B. behavioural approach. C. environmental approach. D. job analysis approach. E. assessment approach.
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B
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47. Methods and instruments used in environmental strategies for employee career development include all the following except: A. the learning organization concept. B. job rotation. C. sensitivity training. D. matrix management. E. project teams.
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C
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48. Matrix management, cross-cultural management, and diversity training are all instruments used in the __________ strategy to employee development. A. behavioural B. environmental C. cognitive D. normative E. participative
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B
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49. When an employee is moved to another position in the same class, or to a different class with substantially the same duties and salary this is called a: A. lateral transfer. B. horizontal transfer. C. vertical transfer. D. departmental transfer. E. job progression transfer.
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A
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50. Among the characteristics of the "learning organization" can be included all the following except: A. shared vision. B. systems thinking. C. personal mastery. D. team learning. E. authoritative bureaucratic structure.
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E
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51. The first step in training evaluation is: A. establishment of criteria. B. pre-testing. C. follow-up studies. D. employee selection. E. determination of content.
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A
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52. The reaction criterion for training evaluation has as an advantage(s) that it evaluates: A. the set-up of the program. B. the effectiveness of the program. C. desired behavioural changes. D. attitude and behaviour changes effected by the training. E. overall organizational results and benefits.
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A
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53. Training evaluation criteria can include all of the following except: A. organizational results. B. organizational demographics. C. knowledge. D. behaviour. E. reaction.
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B
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54. In a perfect world, the best criteria of evaluating a training program would be ______. A. reaction B. behaviour C. organizational results D. knowledge E. attitudes
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C
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55. Although none of the following are scientific methods of evaluating training, select the one that would likely be the most effective as a practical measurement. A. the post-test design. B. the pre-test design. C. the pre-test/post-test design. D. elimination of uncertainty (the Heisenberg test). E. Markov analysis.
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C
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56. As far as costs go, training should be considered to be: A. too important to be analyzed on a cost-benefit basis. B. the same as any other organizational decision and assessed for cost-effectiveness. C. by its very nature immeasurable in any practical way for cost-effectiveness. D. too future oriented to be measured in current costs. E. a non-cost item.
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B
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57. An increasing number of human resource departments see employee career planning as: A. a strategy for reducing the number of employees to the organization. B. an expense that should be the employees' responsibility. C. previously useful but becoming a less acceptable expense in an era of downsizing and labour surplus. D. giving the organization a larger pool of qualified applicants to fill internal job openings. E. only being important in smaller organizations.
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D
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58. A study of employees revealed that there were a number of areas of concern in regards to career planning, including all of the following except: A. career equity. B. supervisory concern. C. awareness of opportunities. D. career satisfaction. E. job design.
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E
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59. When employers encourage career planning, one benefit often is: A. employees set goals and are more motivated. B. increased creative anxiety. C. poor employees resign. D. expanded learning curve charts. E. employees will decertify unions and set up team based self-management equity systems.
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A
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60. To have a successful career yet avoid having career goals come into serious conflict with the rest of one's life, a career plan: A. should be an end in itself. B. should be an integral part of a person's life plans. C. should be subordinate at all times to a person's personal life. D. should be designed and directed by a professional. E. should be left solely to day-to-day decisions.
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B
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61. The starting point and major responsibility for career development lies with: A. the organization. B. the human resource department. C. the employee. D. the immediate supervisor or manager. E. the situation.
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C
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62. An individual can take a number of actions to develop a career, including all the following except: A. exposure. B. job performance. C. resignations. D. mentors. E. not learn from mistakes.
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E
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63. Organizations have become increasingly aware of the benefits of employee career planning, including all the below except: A. lower turnover. B. promotable employees. C. satisfied employees. D. tapping employee potential. E. higher compensation levels.
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E
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64. The involvement of human resource departments in employee career planning has grown in recent years mainly because career planning does all of the following except: A. taps employee potential. B. reduces management hoarding of key employees. C. automatically filters out and removes unacceptable employees. D. develops promotable employees. E. assists employment equity plans.
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C
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65. Human resource departments encourage career planning through all the following except: A. information. B. career education. C. job analysis. D. counselling. E. employee self-assessment.
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C
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66. Some human resource departments offer career counselling, although to be truly successful, counsellors must: A. be able to inform employees exactly where their career path lies at any time. B. get employees to assess themselves and their environment. C. be able to persuade employees to go in the direction the organization, not where the employee wants. D. have direct experience in the jobs and careers that they are counselling about. E. avoid using attitudes and skills tests at this stage.
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B
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67. The process of making long range management development plans to fill human resources needs is known as: A. Development planning. B. Career planning. C. Succession planning. D. Onboarding. E. Organizational succession.
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C
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68. One responsibility of a human resource department is to plan for the unexpected vacancy in key positions. Such planning is known as: A. emergency planning. B. replacement planning. C. succession planning. D. resignation planning (though it can include employee departure due to death or retirement). E. insurance planning.
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C
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69. The sole function of human resource management is the recruiting and hiring of employees. True False
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F
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70. Formal orientation programs are intended to familiarize new employees with their roles, other employees, and the organization.
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T
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71. One unexpected consequence of detailed orientation programs is that they often create employee anxiety and increase grievances. True False
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F
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72. Employee orientation programs can reduce employee turnover, reduce errors, and increase productivity. True False
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T
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73. Employees are more likely to quit in their first few months than at any other time. True False
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T
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74. Orientation programs can instruct new employees in what is considered desirable behaviour, outcomes, and attitudes. True False
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T
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75. The one thing an orientation program cannot do is get new employees up to acceptable job performance levels more quickly. True False
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F
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76. Since grievances often result from ambiguous job expectations and unclear responsibilities, an orientation program can help to reduce later grievances by specifying both. True False
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T
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77. By spelling out rights and duties of employees, and the consequences of deviating from the prescribed path, orientation programs tend to increase the need for corrective discipline measures as employees become socialized. True False
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F
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78. Most organizations conduct group orientation programs to be more cost effective. True False
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F
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79. An employee handbook is a common tool for explaining benefits, policies, and general information about the organization to the new employee. True False
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T
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80. Successful organizational entry and maintenance is the key objective of employee socialization. True False
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T
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81. The process of socialization may be said to involve turning insiders into outsiders. True False
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F
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82. The "buddy system" is an informal orientation system used by some organizations where a new employee is paired with a senior worker who shows the new person around. True False
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T
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83. Responsibility for orientation is usually shared between the human resource department and the immediate supervisor. True False
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T
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84. Orientation programs are an occasion to communicate the culture of an organization. True False
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T
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85. Probably the single most useless method of evaluating the effectiveness of an orientation program is getting the reactions of new employees who went through the process. True False
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F
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86. Reactions from new employees, effects of socialization on job attitudes and roles, and a positive cost-benefit are all methods for measuring the effectiveness of an orientation program. True False
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T
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87. Canadian companies must increasingly compete in a global market and a fast-changing environment, which in turn makes training an important part of organizational strategy. True False
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T
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88. Although orientation may be important, employers seldom have an initial investment in a new employee. True False
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F
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89. Canadian managers will increasingly have to work with colleagues who often have very different cultural values. True False
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T
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90. Benefits of training for the individual can include skill improvement and self-development. True False
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T
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91. Benefits of training for the organization can include higher productivity, improved morale, and a better corporate image. True False
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T
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92. While training programs may benefit employees, it is generally agreed that it offers little specific benefit to the organization. True False
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F
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93. Knowledge management can be defined as the ability to utilize the information and knowledge stored in employees' heads. True False
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T
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94. The terms knowledge management and information management can be used interchangeably to describe the same concept and functions. True False
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F
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95. Training prepares people for their present jobs while development prepares them for future jobs. True False
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T
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96. Training and development are identical concepts, except that smaller organizations tend to use the word training while larger ones usually refer to the same activity as development. True False
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F
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97. Once human resource managers have determined the objectives and content of a training program they must do a needs assessment. True False
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F
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98. The order of activities in planning a training program is to decide on the content and learning principles to be used, then do a needs assessment, and finally determine objectives. True False
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F
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99. In training, needs assessment diagnoses present problems and environmental challenges that training might facilitate. True False
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T
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100. Supervisors can be a good source of recommendations for training as they tend to see daily performance and requirements. True False
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T
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101. Recommending a good employee for a training course as a reward is one reason why human resource departments regard supervisory suggestions for employee training as valid. True False
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F
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102. Training objectives should state three things: desired behaviour, conditions under which it should occur, and acceptable performance criteria. True False
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T
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103. Training objectives should clearly state both learning principles and content assessment. True False
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F
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104. Training objectives are necessary to give both the trainer and the trainee goals that can be used to evaluate program success. True False
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T
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105. Training program content is mainly shaped by the training objectives. True False
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F
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106. A training program's content is shaped by the needs assessment and the learning principles. True False
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T
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107. Though the learning process has been widely studied it is still not particularly understood. True False
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T
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108. One of the biggest recent developments for human resource specialists planning training programs has been the vastly increased understanding of the learning process. True False
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F
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109. Three of the five learning principles that can be included in training are participation, relevance, and transference.
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T
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110. Repetition and relevance are learning principles, but feedback is not. True False
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F
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111. Active participation usually makes learning quicker and more long-lasting. True False
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T
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112. Explaining the overall purpose of a job to trainees before explaining specific tasks is an example of transference as a learning principal. True False
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F
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113. The use of feedback can allow motivated learners to modify their behaviour to achieve the quickest possible learning curve. True False
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T
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114. As the learning curve indicates, learning is not linear but takes place in bursts separated by plateaus. True False
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T
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115. In selecting a particular training technique no one technique is always best, for there are always trade-offs between desired content, cost, and personal capabilities. True False
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T
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116. Training techniques can be divided into two basic groups: on-the-job and off-the-job approaches. True False
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T
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117. On-the-job training techniques include job rotation, coaching, and role-playing. True False
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F
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118. Off-the-job training techniques include lecture and video presentations, apprenticeships, and self-study. True False
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F
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119. Off-the-job training techniques can include self-study, computer-based training, and role-playing. True False
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T
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120. Job rotation is an effective means of cross-training employees. True False
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T
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121. Coaching as a training technique is seldom if ever done by the immediate manager or supervisor, but rather by the human resource department. True False
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F
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122. One advantage of role-playing as a training technique is that can create greater empathy and tolerance of individual differences. True False
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T
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123. E-learning is different from internet or web-based training because while it is completed on a computer it does not involve the internet. True False
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F
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124. A competency framework is a list of skills and abilities that provide a competitive advantage to an organization. True False
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T
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125. A competency-based performance management allows trainers to offer programs that focus on specific employee strengths and invest training and development effort where it maximizes value for the company. True False
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T
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126. Strategic human resource development can be defined as the identification of essential job skills and the management of employee learning for long-range in relation to corporate strategy. True False
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T
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127. Because employee development is more future-oriented it can be considered to be a learning process rather than a training process. True False
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T
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128. An organization that plans to change its strategy should allocate funds for training. True False
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T
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129. Employee development can be defined as the process of enhancing an employee's future value to the organization through career planning. True False
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T
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130. One rule of employee development is that without short-term payoffs management must be very cautious about committing the firm's resources. True False
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F
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131. The three basic developmental strategies for organizations are cognitive, behavioural, and environmental. True False
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T
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132. Among the basic strategies an organization can use for employee development are managerial, normative, and participative. True False
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F
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133. Cognitive developmental strategies are concerned with altering employees' ideas and thoughts, mainly through knowledge and new processes. True False
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T
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134. Behavioural developmental strategies are concerned with altering employees' attitudes and values. True False
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F
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135. Because they use passive techniques, cognitive development strategies tend to be the most effective as a developmental tool. True False
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F
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136. Behaviour modelling and sensitivity training are two instruments used in behavioural strategies for employee development. True False
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T
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137. Behavioural developmental strategies are more concerned with changing employee behaviour than changing attitudes and values. True False
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T
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138. Team-building, modelling, and the managerial grid approach are all environmental strategies for employee development. True False
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F
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139. Job rotation, matrix management, and project teams are all environmental strategies for employee development. True False
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T
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140. The concept of human capital is meant to be a reflection of a person's talents, skills, and knowledge. True False
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T
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141. The human capital of employees is dependent upon, and defined by, their current job or employer. True False
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F
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142. A lateral transfer is the same as a promotion except that the pay seldom changes. True False
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F
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143. The learning organization creates a knowledge network where employees can share ideas and learn more about conent that is important to their development. True False
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T
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144. The fundamental learning unit within the modern "learning organization" is the individual rather than the team. True False
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F
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145. The lack of a good trainer may be the most serious flaw in training efforts. True False
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F
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146. There are three types of criteria on which to evaluate training plans: reaction, knowledge and behaviour. True False
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F
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147. It is generally agreed that one of the most serious flaws with training efforts is that too many organizations spend far too much time and money on post-training evaluation. True False
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F
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148. All the following are training evaluation criteria: reaction, knowledge, behaviour, and organizational results. True False
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T
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149. An investment in training should require a cost - benefit analysis. True False
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T
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150. To be ready for career opportunities, successful people develop career plans and then take action to achieve those plans. True False
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T
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151. Planning a career guarantees successful employee development. True False
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F
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152. Job performance, exposure, and organizational loyalty are all possible career development actions. True False
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T
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153. One advantage of career planning is that it gives the human resource department a larger pool of job applicants from which to fill internal job openings. True False
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T
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154. Career plateauing can be defined as a linear career progression without any levelling or downward movement. True False
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F
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155. The starting point for any career planning and development is the organization. True False
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F
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156. Organizationally sponsored career planning can further employee growth, tap employee potential, and satisfy employee needs. True False
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T
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157. No matter how professional they are, to be successful, career counsellors must first get employees to assess themselves and their environment. True False
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T
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158. Good career counsellors are those who can persuade employees that their career plan and their life plan should, and must, be one and the same. True False
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F
