Badm318 1-5 – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
1. Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management? a improving an existing work process b. installing a new computer system c. conducting a routine, standard customer service operation d. developing a new product
answer
C
question
2. Which of the following examples is NOT a typical or appropriate situation to employ project management? a. improving a soldering process in an assembly line b. processing deposits and withdrawals in a bank c. installing a new accounting application on to a server d. developing a new medical device for use by clinics
answer
B
question
3. All of the following factors have influenced the increased reliance upon project management in recent years EXCEPT: a. rapid growth and changes in the information technology and telecommunications industries b. realization that methods for large projects can be modified and used for small projects c. increased international competition and its influence on consumer demands d. the decreased demands of ongoing operational work
answer
D
question
4. Projects often require tradeoffs among all of the following EXCEPT: a. scope b. cost c. schedule d. programs
answer
D
question
5. Once projects are completed, they will typically yield all of the following results EXCEPT: a. a unique product, service or result b. make or buy decisions c. stakeholders whose interests are affected by the outcome d. a primary deliverable along with supporting deliverables
answer
B
question
6. In an adaptive or change - driven project life cycle: a. the product or deliverable is well understood. b. planning precedes all executing. c. early results lead into planning later work. d. the waterfall approach is commonly used.
answer
C
question
7. Which of the following statements correctly describes project management? a. Project management applies knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities. b. Project management should not involve tradeoffs between scope, schedule and cost. c. Project management only relies upon checklists to plan and execute the work. d. Project management's goal is to maintain efficiency of ongoing operations.
answer
A
question
8. Which of the following statements regarding project life cycles is most accurate? a. All research and development organizations rely upon a four-stage project life cycle that includes initiating, planning, executing and closing. b. The project life cycle is the same regardless of the type of projects managed by an organization. c. Many different project life cycle models are used, for different types of projects. d. All project life cycles are the same across every industry
answer
C
question
9. In the PMBOK, the five logical groupings of the project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs are called the: a. project management knowledge areas b. project management process groups c. life cycle stages d. phases and gates
answer
B
question
10. When applied to project management, the human resource management knowledge area typically involves which of the following activities? a. determining the work necessary for project completion b. estimating, budgeting and controlling project costs c. identifying, analyzing and controlling project risks d. organizing, managing and leading the project team
answer
D
question
11. Which of the ten knowledge areas defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully? *a. Project scope management b. Project quality management c. Project communications management d. Project stakeholder management
answer
A
question
12. Which of the ten knowledge areas defined in the Project Management Body of Knowledge includes the activities of purchasing or acquiring products, services or results from outside the project team? a. Scope management b. Quality management c. Communications management d. Procurement management
answer
D
question
13. Achieving project success is determined by all of the following EXCEPT: a. creating deliverables that include all required features b. involving only important key stakeholders c. completing the project on schedule and on budget d. providing outputs that please the project's customers
answer
B
question
14. Projects are considered successful for all of the reasons below EXCEPT:.. a. members of the team learn new skills working on the project. b. the organization captures lessons learned for future projects. c. the team has demonstrated heroics to meet project objectives d. the organization reaps business level benefits.
answer
C
question
15. Which of the following actions will likely cause a project to fail? a. dedicating valuable team member time to identify risk events b. spending project funding to procure needed tools and spare parts c. unclear or conflicting stakeholder expectations d. conducting a project audit to evaluate performance
answer
C
question
16. Project failure can result from all of the following causes EXCEPT: a. support of senior management b. changes in scope are not agreed upon by all parties involved. c. too little time is allowed for project completion. d. planning is not adequate.
answer
A
question
17. A project manager in agile projects who serves and leads in a collaborative, facilitation manner is called a: a. program manager b. scrum master c. sponsor d. functional manager
answer
B
question
18. Typically, a steering team or leadership team is responsible for all of the following project related roles EXCEPT: a. selecting, prioritizing and resourcing projects b. providing rigid policies, procedures, standards and guidelines c. ensuring accurate progress is reported and adjustments made d. aligning projects with the organization's strategic plans
answer
B
question
19. Which of the following roles is typically associated with the project manager? a. the person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives b. the person with management authority over a unit within a functional organization c. the person responsible for project methods, standards and training d. the person responsible for providing the financial resources and support for the project and is accountable for enabling success.
answer
A
question
20. Typically, the senior customer representative is responsible for which of the following project roles? a. develops the project schedule and budget b. determines how the project work will be accomplished c. ensures the needs of the customer's organization are identified and prioritized d. helps the project manager with running meetings and providing status reports
answer
C
question
21. From an agile project management perspective, which of these constraints are considered to be fixed? a. Quality and value b. Resources and schedule c. Scope and time d. Customer satisfaction
answer
B
question
1. Which of the following statements concerning strategic analysis is true? a. Strategic analysis focuses exclusively upon external analysis. b. External analysis focuses on the strengths and weaknesses of the organization. c. Internal analysis focuses on the threats and opportunities facing the organization. d. External analysis focuses on the threats and opportunities facing the organization.
answer
D
question
2. All of the following factors influence the opportunities and threats an organization must consider when performing a strategic analysis EXCEPT: a. competitors b. suppliers c. regulatory agencies d. employees
answer
D
question
3. A clear and compelling vision will have all the following characteristics EXCEPT: a. often requires extra effort to achieve. b. often requires several years to achieve. c. provides detailed roadmap for managing a project d. helps stakeholders to understand the direction of the firm.
answer
C
question
4. Which of the following responses most accurately depicts the correct sequence of activities in the strategic planning process? a. strategic objectives - strategic analysis - guiding principles - flow-down objectives b. guiding principles - strategic analysis - strategic objectives - flow-down objectives c. strategic analysis - guiding principles - strategic objectives - flow-down objectives d. guiding principles - strategic objectives - flow-down objectives - strategic analysis
answer
C
question
5. Many writers have stated that effective objectives should be: a. broad - to cover many dimensions of the business b. measurable - to track progress c. unachievable - to inspire maximum performance d. resource based - to focus on the inputs
answer
B
question
6. All of the following statements concerning project portfolios are true EXCEPT: a. The projects in a portfolio are grouped to be managed collectively. b. Portfolios cannot include operations and programs. c. Portfolios usually include a mix of high-risk and low-risk projects. d. All projects in a portfolio contribute to the organization's goals.
answer
B
question
7. Portfolios deal with all of an organization's projects, while programs deal with: a. ongoing operations b. a specific group of related projects c. resource availability d. tradeoffs between schedule, scope and quality
answer
B
question
8. Portfolio management helps an organization achieve its strategic goals in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. managing ongoing projects b. providing needed resources c. selecting the right projects d. prioritizing work to be done
answer
A
question
9. The document that describes why the project is needed, and may include estimated costs and benefits, is called a: a. program management plan b. business case c. SWOT analysis d. guiding principle
answer
B
question
10. All of the following factors should be assessed to determine an organization's ability to perform projects EXCEPT: a. Does the organization have free and open communication, creativity, and empowered decision making? b. Does the organization have a clearly defined project management process? c. Do teams and individuals follow instructions well? d. Does the organization monitor and understand it's external environment?
answer
C
question
11. All of the following represent appropriate sources to identify new potential projects EXCEPT: a. existing and potential customers b. the operations staff within the organization c. industry and trade journals d. lessons learned from previous projects
answer
D
question
12. Which of the following statements best describes the contemporary use of financial models and scoring models for project selection? a. These methods are often used together to ensure financial and non-financial factors are both considered. b. Financial methods are preferred because they ensure alignment with the organization's strategic goals. c. Scoring models are unreliable because they fail to consider financial factors. d. One of these techniques is typically used to the exclusion of the other, due to time demands.
answer
A
question
13. Which of the following statements correctly describes a weakness associated with the financial project selection model? a. The benefit-to-cost models favor projects which generate the smallest absolute return over a specified period. b. Payback period models do not consider the profit to be realized after the costs are paid. c. The Net Present Value (NPV) method does not consider the time value of money. d. The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method is difficult to use when a project has conventional cash flows.
answer
B
question
14. All of the following criteria serve as a valid basis for identifying potential projects in most organizations EXCEPT: a. social need b. environmental considerations c. technological advances d. internal politics
answer
D
question
Figure 2-1 Project Selection and Prioritization Matrix 15. Based on the information provided in Figure 2-1, which criterion is most important to the leadership team? a. strategic fit b. risk c. market potential d. probability of success 16. Based on the information provided in Figure 2-1, which project has the highest probability of success? a. Project A b. Project B c. Project C d. Project D 17. Consider the information provided in Figure 2-1. Based on the results in the project selection and prioritization matrix, which project would you select if you were limited to selecting only one project? a. Project A b. Project B c. Project C d. Project D 18. Based on the information provided in Figure 2-1, which project is least attractive based on the strategic fit? a. Project A b. Project B c. Project C d. Project D
answer
A B B D
question
19. Once selected projects have been prioritized, it is time to assign resources to projects based on their order of priority. Resources could include all of the following EXCEPT: a. subject matter experts b. equipment c. quality metrics d. money
answer
C
question
20. Which of the following is NOT a typical source selection criterion that an organization would use to evaluate potential contractors? a. life cycle cost b. references c. personalities d. technical approach
answer
C
question
21. All of the following organizations can effectively use a scoring model to select and prioritize competing projects EXCEPT: a. the leadership team b. client companies c. contractor companies d. program management office
answer
D
question
22. All of the following may be negotiated between a client company and a contractor EXCEPT: a. the amount of money to be paid. b. quality standards c. selection criteria for scoring models d. personnel assignments
answer
C
question
1. Which of the following characteristics is NOT associated with a functional organization? a. Each employee has one clear superior. b. Resources are easily shared between departments and projects. c. Staff are managed by a person with expertise in their area. d. Staff are grouped by areas of specialization.
answer
B
question
2. Which of the following is an advantage associated with managing projects in a functional organization? a. Each unit contains a variety of specialists suited to solving complex problems. b. Unity of command - one clear supervisor for each worker. c. Rapid communication between the various functions working on the project. d. Combines task focus with technical capability.
answer
B
question
3. All of the following are advantages associated with managing projects in a projectized organization EXCEPT: a. One boss - the project manager b. Response times and decision making are swift. c. Departmental barriers are reduced. d. New assignment is guaranteed after the project ends
answer
D
question
4. Projectized organizations often adopt which of the following techniques where project team members are physically placed close to one another to improve communications and working relationships? a. collaboration b. co-location c. coordination d. consolidation
answer
B
question
5. Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with managing projects in a projectized organization? a. Response times and decision making are slow. b. Team members assigned to a project are often underutilized. c. Team members have difficulty focusing on project issues. d. Traditional department barriers are reduced.
answer
B
question
6. Which of the following organizational structures is designed to achieve a balance of task focus and technical capability? a. functional organization b. projectized organization c. matrix organization d. siloed organization
answer
C
question
7. Which of the following organizational structures runs contrary to the unity of command principle - that each employee works for a single supervisor? a. functional organization b. projectized organization c. matrix organization d. siloed organization
answer
C
question
8. Which of the following is an advantage associated with the matrix organization? a. Resources can be shared between departments and projects. b. Unity of command - one clear supervisor for each employee. c. Faster response times and decision making. d. Having multiple bosses.
answer
A
question
9. Through shared values, organizational cultures can informally do all the following EXCEPT: a. motivate the ethical actions and communications of managers and subordinates. b. determine how people are treated, controlled and rewarded. c. establish how cooperation, competition, conflict and decision making are handled. d. eliminate politics in the workplace
answer
D
question
10. When trying to understand a corporate culture, it is helpful to understand the types of power that are used. In "power cultures": a. workers closely follow their appointed roles. b. supervisors exert a great deal of economic and political power. c. deference is paid to knowledge rather than authority. d. collaboration is believed to be satisfying and stimulating.
answer
B
question
11. Some organizational culture characteristics make project success more likely. These characteristics include all of the following EXCEPT: a. collaboration to meet organizational goals b. lack of appreciation for project management c. engagement of stakeholders d. teamwork across cultures
answer
B
question
12. The project life cycle where the majority of the project work is conducted in iterations (sometimes called sprints) is called: a. Construction project life cycle b. DMAIC model c. Agile project life cycle d. R &D project life cycle
answer
C
question
13. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for construction projects? a. define - measure - analyze - improve - control b. concept definition - demonstration - development - production c. pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start up d. concept - requirements - design - code - test - turnover
answer
C
question
14. Project planning teams use project life cycle models because various types of projects have differing demands. Which of the following sequences of stages is most appropriate for a life cycle model for research and development (R&D) projects? a. define - measure - analyze - improve - control b. project envisioning - requirements gathering - incremental implementation - production release c. pre-planning - design - procurement - construction - start up d. idea generation - idea screening - concept development - validation - transition
answer
D
question
15. In agile projects, the individual who leads in a collaborative manner by guiding teams and removing obstacles to their progress is called the: a. project manager b. sponsor c. scrum master d. facilitator
answer
C
question
16. According to PMI's "Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct", project managers should exhibit all of the following behaviors EXCEPT: a. authority - exert economic and political power b. fairness - make decisions and act impartially c. honesty - understand the truth and act in a truthful manner d. responsibility - take ownership for decisions
answer
A
question
17. Which of the following executive roles is responsible for overall priority setting, project selection and prioritization, general guidance and encouragement? a. Steering Team b. Sponsor c. Project Management Office d. Chief Projects Officer
answer
A
question
18. During project execution, the project sponsor's responsibilities include all of these EXCEPT: a. ensure communications b. charter the project c. nurture key stakeholders d. ensure quality
answer
B
question
19. The Chief Projects Officer (CPO) is responsible for the individuals working on a project in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. that they follow the detailed project plan that the CPO has created. b. that they capture lessons learned from completed projects. c. that they use templates and standards when appropriate. d. that they receive the training they need.
answer
A
question
20. Which of the following are among the challenges faced by project managers? a. They frequently have more authority than responsibility. b. They must determine how networks of people function in the organization. c. They must learn how to accomplish project work unilaterally - on their own. d. They are not allowed to be flexible about how the project should be accomplished.
answer
B
question
21. There are several tasks that a project customer (or sponsor acting in that capacity) can do to enhance the probability of success. Which of the following are generally performed independent of the project contractor who will perform the work? a. conduct kick-off meeting b. develop clear requirements c. prioritize project d. write and sign the project charter
answer
C
question
22. There are several tasks that a project customer (or sponsor acting in that capacity) can do to enhance the probability of success. All of the following are generally performed jointly with the project contractor who will perform the work EXCEPT: a. terminate project if needed b. develop clear requirements c. use a control system d. conduct a kick-off meeting
answer
A
question
23. In agile projects, overall planning is at a high level, and only the near-term work is planned in detail. The project work is conducted in iterations (sprints) that are normally: a. no more than one calendar year b. a variable length depending on project scope c. a fixed length of two or four weeks d. assigned to one person on the team
answer
C
question
24. Which of the following roles and attributes do NOT describe the core team members on a project? a. Core team members often make project decisions jointly with the project manager. b. Core team members are the small group of people who are usually on the project from start to finish. c. Core team members join the project on a temporary basis to perform specific project activities as necessary. d. Core team members may supervise the work of subject matter experts.
answer
C
question
25. Subject matter experts often perform specific project activities when necessary. Which of the following statements regarding subject matter experts is accurate? a. The number of subject matter experts is generally limited to fewer than the number of core team members. b. The subject matter experts are typically assigned to the project from start to finish. c. The subject matter experts may not relate strongly with a project due to the temporary nature of their involvement. d. The subject matter experts should only be used for staff augmentation.
answer
C
question
1. Which of the following documents serves as an informal contract between the project team and the project sponsor? a. team members' employment contracts b. project charter c. project roadmap d. business case
answer
B
question
2. The project charter grants the project team the right to: a. begin project execution b. develop the project mission statement c. create a detailed project plan d. write a detailed business case
answer
C
question
3. The project charter serves all of the following purposes EXCEPT: a. authorizes the project manager to proceed b. develops a common understanding between the sponsor and the project team c. quickly screens out obviously poor projects d. describes skill sets needed for the project
answer
D
question
4. The project charter should help the project team and the project sponsor to develop a common understanding of what the project is all about. All of the following items are elements of that common understanding EXCEPT: a. understanding how the project aligns with the goals of the organization b. understanding the detailed project schedule c. understanding project success measures d. understanding what is included and excluded
answer
B
question
5. Within the project charter, the scope overview accomplishes all of the following EXCEPT: a. identifies the major schedule milestones for the project b. describes the work that must be performed to deliver a product, service or result. c. distinguishes between what the project will and will not do. d. describes at a high level what needs to be accomplished and how it will be done.
answer
A
question
6. During iteration planning in an agile project, agreement is reached regarding: a. the length of the next sprint. b. detailed stakeholder requirements. c. the definition of done. d. positive and negative risks.
answer
C
question
7. Which of the following charter elements defines the project purpose and justifies the necessity of the project? a. scope control plan b. acceptance criteria c. business case d. scope overview
answer
C
question
8. Which of the following charter elements should inspire team members to develop a passion for the project and to work hard on it? a. the project vision statement b. the business case c. the project motto d. the team operating principles
answer
B
question
9. The milestone schedule in the project charter: a. is a schedule that provides detailed data for when each project activity should begin. b. is a detailed schedule that shows the planned duration for every activity in the project. c. is a summary-level schedule that identifies significant points or events in the project. d. is a summary-level schedule that shows how major project tasks are sequenced.
answer
C
question
10. The addition of acceptance criteria factors to the milestones in a project charter helps the team understand who will judge the quality of the deliverable associated with each milestone, and _____: a. that stakeholder's role on the team. b. the risk associated with each milestone. c. the penalties for not achieving the desired quality. d. the criteria or standards they will use.
answer
D
question
11. Project charters typically include all of the following elements EXCEPT: a. positive and negative risks b. project assumptions c. detailed resource requirements d. project constraints
answer
C
question
12. Project managers and teams should consider risks and include them in the project charter for all the following reasons EXCEPT: a. risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives should be identified and addressed. b. all project risks should be eliminated before the project charter is signed. c. risks that may have a positive impact on the project create opportunities and should be capitalized upon. d. the sponsor and core team should be aware of what could prevent them from successfully completing the project.
answer
B
question
13. Team operating principles are sometimes included in a project charter to enhance team performance. Which of the following statements accurately describes the value of establishing team operating principles? a. Operating principles that address the conduct of meetings and how decisions are made are especially useful in helping the team get off to a good start. b. Operating principles typically detail the specific work that each team member will perform and ensure a more complete understanding of the project. c. Operating principles identify the rules along with the punishments to be administered when the rules are broken. d. Operating principles are especially helpful for a routine project where participants have worked together before
answer
A
question
14. A project sponsor is wise not to sign a project charter authorizing work until the project manager and team show that they have ____: a. learned to work together well. b. gathered requirements from key stakeholders. c. reviewed lessons learned from previous projects in order to avoid similar mistakes. d. prepared a comprehensive schedule and budget.
answer
C
question
15. Which section of the project charter publicly acknowledges the commitment of the sponsor, managers and team members to the project? a. business case b. signatures and commitment c. decisions and findings d. contract section
answer
B
question
16. Which of the following statements most accurately identifies the typical contents of the project charter? a. requirements, specifications, test protocols and test results b. statement of work, terms and conditions, clauses and delivery instructions c. business case, milestone schedule, resource estimates and team operating principles d. purpose, literature review, methodology, results and conclusions
answer
C
question
17. Which of the following statements accurately describes the responsibilities typically associated with the development of the project charter? a. the project sponsor typically prepares the detailed first draft of the charter b. the project manager typically prepares the business case and scope overview c. the customer typically prepares and signs the charter d. the project manager and team typically prepare the majority of the rough draft for the project charter
answer
D
question
18. On agile projects the first iteration is planned as a milestone with acceptance criteria. However, subsequent milestones and acceptance criteria are determined on a ___: a. need-to-know basis c. just in time (JIT) basis b. first in first out (FIFO) basis d. first come first served basis
answer
C
question
1. Which of the following statements accurately describes a project management plan? a. a formal document that describes how the project will be initiated and planned b. a formal document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled c. a formal document that defines how the project will be terminated and closed d. a formal document that focuses on how the project's financial results will be tracked
answer
B
question
2. All of the following statements accurately describe a project management plan EXCEPT: a. It serves as an informal contract between the project team and the sponsor b. It may be a general, summary document or quite detailed. c. It may be composed of one or more subsidiary plans. d. It is developed iteratively, starting at a high level and becoming progressively more detailed as information becomes available.
answer
A
question
3. A project communications management plan generally includes all of the following information EXCEPT: a. communication methods b. communication timing c. communication cost d. communication purpose
answer
C
question
4. Project management plans generally include all of the following elements EXCEPT: a. schedules and budgets b. business case and recommendations c. risks and quality considerations d. communications and stakeholders
answer
B
question
5. Stakeholders include all of the following people EXCEPT: a. those who work on the project b. those who provide people or resources for the project c. those whose routines may be disrupted by the project d. those who will not be impacted by the project
answer
D
question
6. The process of "systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project" is called: a. develop project management plan b. stakeholder analysis c. communications management d. i.d. stakeholders
answer
B
question
7. Project stakeholders can be prioritized based on a number of factors, including one of the following: a. fame b. impact c. tenure d. personality
answer
B
question
8. By identifying stakeholders and their needs, project managers can be more effective in all the following ways EXCEPT: a. prioritize among competing objectives. b. derive the final budget c. serve as good stewards of the organization's resources. d. develop a shared sense of risk.
answer
B
question
9. Which of the following activities can be used to build relationships within the core project team? a. emphasize individual learning opportunities b. establish independent agendas c. regularly celebrate small successes d. use conflict resolution techniques
answer
C
question
10. The final item to be recorded on the project meeting minutes is an evaluation of both good and poor points from the meeting. On agile projects, this evaluation is called the ____: a. stakeholder analysis b. lessons learned c. plus-delta process d. retrospective
answer
D
question
11. Which of these is not one of the primary types of information captured in a project meeting? a. action items agreed to. b. evaluation of the meeting. c. new issues raised and old issues closed. d. assumptions and constraints.
answer
D
question
12. Project managers can encourage open communication by employing all of the following tactics EXCEPT: a. demonstrating that the inputs from others are valued b. using group decision making techniques in every case c. keeping people informed d. respecting confidentiality
answer
B
question
13. Several factors can contribute to building relationships among project team members. Which of the following is NOT a contributor to relationship building within the core team? a. Ensure team members understand what is expected of them. b. Foster a closed environment of secrecy. c. Ensure team member's opinions are considered. d. Provide opportunities to grow and develop.
answer
B
question
14. A principal idea in agile is that relationships with stakeholders need to be based on collaboration, communications and ____. a. trust b. power c. confidentiality d. urgency
answer
A
question
15. The sponsor, project manager and team can establish powerful relationships with key stakeholders. This starts with an understanding of what motivates each stakeholder, which can be summarized by the old saying ______: a. the early bird catches the worm. b. what gets planned gets done. c. you get what you pay for. d. what's in it for me?
answer
D
question
16. Communications to stakeholders are necessary for which of the following reasons? a. to help them take ownership of the project and make timely decisions b. to keep them at arms length so progress can continue c. to shift the burden of risk from the project team to the stakeholders d. to provide input to team performance reviews
answer
A
question
17. A project communications matrix includes all of the following information EXCEPT: a. Who b. Why c. What d. When
answer
B
question
18. In the project communications matrix, all of the following "who" items are typically included EXCEPT: a. Who does the project team need to learn from? b. Who does the project team need to share with? c. Who take the minutes at the next status meeting? d. Who on the project team is responsible for a communication?
answer
C
question
19. In order to plan for a project meeting, project managers should develop an agenda. All of the following statements accurately describe the development and use of a project meeting agenda EXCEPT: a. the agenda should only be shared with senior management b. the agenda should provide time to summarize decisions made c. the agenda should provide time to evaluate the meeting d. the agenda should state the purpose of the meeting
answer
A
question
20. A point or matter in question or in dispute, not settled or over which there are opposing views or disagreements is called a(n) _____: a. constraint b. issue c. risk d. assumption
answer
B
question
21. Virtual project teams often encounter increased challenges. All of the following items are among these increased challenges EXCEPT: a. it is more difficult to understand the stakeholders b. it takes more time to build relationships c. differences in time zones are an advantage d. change control must rely more upon facilitating than directing
answer
C
