Test Answers on Exam 4 – Flashcard

1. The unique and relatively stable ways in which each individual thinks, acts, and feels is called ______.

a. personality
b. nurture
c. a trait
d. nature

2. Which of the following statements describes the relationship between temperament and personality?

a. Temperament and personality are the exact same thing.
b. Personality, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one’s temperament is built.
c. Temperament, which we are born with, is the basis upon which one’s personality is built.
d. Temperament refers to negative personal characteristics, while personality refers to positive personal characteristics.

3. The ________ theory of personality has its basis in the theories of learning, and focuses on the effects of environment on one’s personal characteristics and actions.

a. psychodynamic
b. humanistic
c. trait
d. behaviorist

4. Which theory of personality was a direct reaction against the psychoanalytic and behaviorist perspectives?

a. humanistic perspective
b. trait perspective
c. projective perspective
d. inventory perspective

5. Freud believed that the _______ was the most important determining factor in human behavior and personality.

a. id
b. preconscious mind
c. manifest awareness
d. unconscious mind

6. “If it feels good do it” best describes the _______.

a. id
b. ego
c. superego
d. preconscious

7. What is Freud’s term for the executive of the personality that has a realistic plan for obtaining gratification of an individual’s desires?

a. id
b. ego
c. superego
d. preconscious

8. The ______ controls the satisfaction of the id’s drives in the external world.

a. personal unconscious
b. ego
c. superego
d. persona

9. Which element in Freud’s personality theory is composed of the conscience and the ego ideal?

a. id
b. ego
c. superego
d. preconscious

10. According to Freud, the ______ acts as our conscience.

a. id
b. superego
c. ego
d. collective unconscious

11. For the behaviorist, personality is a set of learned responses or _______.

a. traits
b. conditions
c. stimuli
d. habits

12. A famous psychologist argues that there are three factors that influence personality: environment, person, and behavior. This psychologist is most likely a ______ psychologist.

a. psychodynamic
b. social cognitive
c. psychoanalytic
d. trait

13. What is Albert Bandura’s term for the relationship among the three factors that influence personality?

a. feedback loops
b. learned responses
c. reciprocal determinism
d. external expectancies

14. Albert Bandura’s notion that people are affected by their environment but can also influence that environment is known as ______.

a. self-efficacy
b. locus of control
c. phenomenology
d. reciprocal determinism

15. A baseball player’s son is quite talented; he has received lots of awards over the years. When he gets up to bat he expects to get a hit, and when he is in the field he expects to make every catch. According to Bandura, what characteristic does this young man seem to have?

a. self-regard
b. self-centeredness
c. self-efficacy
d. self-actualization

16. According to Albert Bandura, a person’s belief about his or her skills and ability to perform certain behaviors is known as _____.

a. self-efficacy
b. locus of control
c. phenomenology
d. reciprocal determinism

17. _____ theory is called the third force in personality theory.

a. Psychoanalytic
b. Behaviorist
c. Cognitive
d. Humanistic

18. What do Abraham Maslow’s and Carl Rogers’s theories have in common?

a. They are both stage theories.
b. They focus on unconscious motivation.
c. They believe that each human being is free to choose his or her own destiny.
d. They both fit in the learning/cognitive perspective.

19. Which of the following descriptions is likely to fit the quality of self-actualization?

a. shy, silent, and humorless
b. real self close to ideal self
c. ideal self dominating real self
d. superego dominating id

20. In Carl Rogers’s theory, our perception of our abilities, behaviors, and characteristics is known as ______.

a. personality
b. self-regard
c. self-esteem
d. self-concept

21. According to Carl Rogers, anxiety and neurotic behaviors occur when _______.

a. a person has low self-esteem
b. there is matching between the real self and ideal self
c. there is a discrepancy between the real self and ideal self
d. the individual receives too much unconditional positive regard

22. Carl Rogers emphasized accepting people for what they are, not for what you would like them to be. This acceptance is termed ______.

a. conditional esteem
b. unconditional esteem
c. conditional positive regard
d. unconditional positive regard

23. Which one of the goals of psychology would be most relevant in the trait perspective?

a. description
b. explanation
c. maintenance
d. control

24. Which theories are less concerned with the explanation for personality development and changing personality than they are with describing personality and predicting behavior based on that description?

a. trait theories
b. psychodynamic theories
c. archetype theories
d. behaviorist theories

25. Cattell and Allport are both prominent ______ theorists.

a. psychodynamic
b. trait
c. behavioral
d. humanistic

26. What are the Big Five personality traits?

a. conscientiousness, openness, agreeableness, extraversion, dominance
b. openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and neuroticism
c. sensation seeking, conscientiousness, openness, agreeableness, dominance
d. neuroticism, psychoticism, extraversion, agreeableness, and conscientiousness

27. Ellen has been described as creative, imaginative, curious, artistic, and nonconforming. She is likely to obtain an elevated score on a questionnaire designed to measure ________.

a. extraversion
b. agreeableness
c. conscientiousness
d. openness

28. Ted is friendly, loves to tells jokes at parties, and is perceived by others as warm and considerate. On which two of the Big Five traits would you expect Ted to obtain high scores?

a. agreeableness and extraversion
b. extraversion and conscientiousness
c. neuroticism and openness to experience
d. openness to experience and conscientiousness

29. When assessing personality, many psychologists take the eclectic view, which means they ________.

a. use only one specific approach
b. use a variety of approaches
c. focus on behavior
d. focus on unconscious motives

30. Which assessment technique requires people to respond to unstructured or ambiguous stimuli?

a. dynamic
b. projective
c. objective
d. predictive

31. A person’s responses to a projective test are thought to reflect ________.

a. current events
b. daydreaming themes
c. maladaptive patterns of behavior
d. unconscious thoughts and feelings

32. An assessment in which a numerical value is assigned to specific behavior(s) that is/are listed on the assessment is called a _______.

a. rating scale
b. frequency count
c. projective test
d. interview

33. Personality assessments conducted by behaviorists rely primarily on _______.

a. projective tests
b. direct observation
c. detailed analysis of dreams
d. interviews

34. Personality assessments conducted by behaviorists sometimes make use of _______.

a. projective tests
b. introjective tests
c. reports by friends
d. rating scales and frequency counts

35. As part of an application for a job, Dan is asked to complete some psychological tests including one in which he responds true or false to items such as “I feel sad most of the time,” or “I had a good childhood.” What type of psychological test is Dan taking?

a. a behavioral log
b. the TAT
c. a projective test
d. an inventory

36. What is the branch of psychology that is concerned with the study of abnormal behavior?

a. health psychology
b. psychopathology
c. psychobiology
d. developmental psychology

37. Which criterion would designate a person who never talks to anyone as abnormal?

a. dysfunctional
b. statistical definition
c. subjective discomfort
d. malnutritious

38. Which term refers to a way to define abnormality by comparing an individual’s behavior to the norms or standards of the society in which an individual lives?

a. social discomfort
b. social mores
c. social context
d. social norm deviance

39. What is the primary difficulty with applying the criterion of “social norm deviance” to define abnormal behavior?

a. Norms are difficult to enumerate.
b. Cultures accept and view all behaviors as normal.
c. Behavior that is considered disordered in one culture may be acceptable in another.
d. Norms do not guide behavior except in rare instances.

40. Maria is a retired factory worker who lives with anxiety. Due to the fear of having anxiety attacks, she does not leave her house. This makes her feel trapped in her home, which creates distress. Which criterion would be most appropriate in deciding whether Maria’s case represents an example of abnormality?

a. statistical rarity
b. subjective discomfort
c. situational context
d. social norm deviance

41. One sign of abnormality is when a person engages in behavior that creates a great deal of emotional distress or ______.

a. subjective discomfort
b. social deviance
c. statistical rarity
d. situational context

42. Dave, a graduate student, has difficulty talking to groups. Unfortunately, he has chosen a career in which he must speak to large groups of people. The night before a presentation he tosses and turns, and the resulting lack of sleep makes the situation worse. When he makes a presentation, he often becomes confused and stumbles over his words. As a result, he feels worthless and miserable. Which two criteria of abnormal behavior are most useful in analyzing this case?

a. inability to function normally and statistical rarity
b. subjective discomfort and inability to function normally
c. statistical rarity and deviance from social norms
d. deviance from social norms and subjective discomfort

43. The ______ model of mental illness explains that disorders such as anxiety, depression, and schizophrenia are caused by chemical imbalances, genetic problems, brain damage or dysfunction, or some combination of those causes.

a. biological
b. psychodynamic
c. naturalistic
d. cognitive-behavioral

44. The psychoanalytic model of abnormal behavior is based on the work of ______.

a. Freud
b. Perls
c. Rogers
d. Skinner

45. The psychoanalytic model holds that abnormal behavior is the result of ______.

a. learning
b. repressed thoughts, memories, and concerns
c. biology
d. biochemical imbalances

46. According to the behaviorists, disordered behavior is a result of ________.

a. repressed thoughts and memories that try to resurface
b. a set of learned responses
c. illogical thinking patterns
d. chemical imbalances and brain damage

47. Linda is afraid of cats because when she was a little girl a cat scared her by jumping out of her closet and onto her face. As a result of this experience, Linda learned to be afraid of cats. Which model of abnormality offers the best explanation of Linda’s fear?

a. cognitive
b. behavioral
c. sociocultural
d. psychoanalytic

48. According to the cognitive perspective, disordered behavior is the result of ______.

a. repressed thoughts and memories that try to resurface
b. a set of learned responses
c. illogical thinking patterns
d. chemical imbalances and brain damage

49. A cognitive therapist is working with a depressed client. Which of the following causes is the likely focus of this therapist’s intervention?

a. learned behaviors of depression
b. unusual levels of neurotransmitters
c. negative interpretations of life events
d. a superego that is too harsh and strict

50. _______is used to help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders.

a. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)
b. The Physician’s Desk Reference
c. The Textbook of Psychological Disorders
d. The Textbook of Physiological Disorders

51. The primary purpose of the DSM-IV-TR is to _____.

a. help psychologists assess only normal behavior
b. keep the number of diagnostic categories of mental disorders to a minimum
c. help psychological professionals diagnose psychological disorders
d. describe the causes of common physiological disorders

52. How many axes of data are considered in a full DSM-based diagnosis?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10

53. When a psychologist or psychiatrist is using the DSM-IV-TR as a guide to evaluating a client, he or she would assess the client on each of five ______.

a. axes
b. stages
c. phases
d. steps

54. Which of the following is NOT an Axis I disorder of the DSM-IV-TR?

a. sexual and gender identity disorders
b. factitious disorders
c. personality disorders
d. substance-related disorders

55. Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR consists of _______.

a. global assessment of functioning
b. clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention
c. psychosocial and environmental problems
d. personality disorders and mental retardation

56. Axis II of the DSM-IV-TR consists of ________.

a. global assessment of functioning
b. clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention
c. psychosocial and environmental problems
d. personality disorders and mental retardation

57. Axis III of the DSM-IV-TR includes ________.

a. physical disorders that affect a person’s psychological adjustment
b. all psychological disorders except personality disorders
c. information about problems in the person’s life that might affect adjustment, such as death of a loved one
d. an overall judgment made by the psychological professional of the person’s mental health and adjustment based on a scale from 0 to 100

58. Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR includes ________.

a. all physical disorders that affect a person’s psychological adjustment
b. all psychological disorders except personality disorders
c. information about problems in the person’s life that might affect adjustment, such as death of a loved one
d. an overall judgment made by the psychological professional of the person’s mental health and adjustment based on a scale from 0 to 100

59. Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR contains an overall judgment made by the psychological professional of the person’s mental health and adjustment based on a scale from 0 to 100?

a. Axis II
b. Axis III
c. Axis IV
d. Axis V

60. What of the following is the most commonly diagnosed psychological disorder in the United States?

a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. dysthymic disorder
c. substance-abuse disorder
d. schizophrenia

61. What is the most frequently diagnosed anxiety disorder in the United States?

a. specific phobia
b. social phobia
c. post-traumatic stress disorder
d. obsessive-compulsive disorder

62. Excessive or unrealistic fearfulness and worry are characteristic of ______.

a. mood disorders
b. dissociative neurosis
c. anxiety disorders
d. amnesia

63. An irrational, persistent fear of something is called a ______.

a. mania
b. obsession
c. phobia
d. compulsion

64. People who have a(n) ______ are afraid of being evaluated in some negative way by others, so they tend to avoid situations that can be embarrassing.

a. agoraphobia
b. social phobia
c. specific phobia
d. interactive phobia

65. Fears of snakes, thunderstorms, darkness, and water are classified as ______ phobias.

a. specific
b. social
c. primary
d. innate

66. Fear of being in a place or situation from which escape is difficult or impossible if something should go wrong is called ______.

a. agoraphobia
b. a social phobia
c. a specific phobia
d. trypanophobia

67. Which of the following is the term used to describe a sudden onset of extreme panic with various symptoms including racing heart, rapid breathing, and sweating?

a. phobia
b. compulsion
c. panic attack
d. affective disorder

68. A disorder in which intruding thoughts that occur again and again are followed by repetitive, ritualistic behavior meant to lower the anxiety caused by the thoughts is called ______ disorder.

a. obsessive-compulsive
b. delusional
c. post-traumatic stress
d. passive-aggressive

69. Intruding thoughts that occur again and again are called _________. Repetitive, ritualistic behaviors are called________.

a. intrusions; impulses
b. obsessions; compulsions
c. impulses; intrusions
d. compulsions; obsessions

70. The behavioral perspective views anxiety as ______.

a. a danger signal that repressed conflicts are threatening to surface
b. a learned reaction
c. the result of illogical, irrational thought processes
d. linked to an imbalance in several neurotransmitters in the nervous system

71. Sandy has the tendency to make everything seem so much worse than it actually is. Beck would say that Sandy has a tendency to engage in _______.

a. overgeneralization
b. minimization
c. all-or-nothing-thinking
d. magnification

72. Disorders characterized by disturbances in emotion are known as ______ disorders.

a. conversion
b. somatoform
c. mood
d. dissociative

73. The term affect is used by psychologists to refer to ______.

a. thought
b. emotion
c. behavior
d. intuition

74. Which of the following best describes dysthymia?

a. a mild, chronic form of depression
b. a severe, intermittent form of depression
c. a form of depression that affects biological functions such as appetite
d. a form of depression that is very responsive to electroconvulsive therapy

75. Severe depression that comes on suddenly and seems to have no external cause is called ______.

a. dysthymia
b. bipolar disorder
c. hypomania
d. major depression

76. A person who suffers from bipolar disorder alternates between ________.

a. anxiety and mania
b. depression and manic episodes
c. mania and schizophrenia
d. depression and schizophrenia

77. Which cognitive event, often attributed to the work of Martin Seligman, is hypothesized as contributing to the development and maintenance of major depression?

a. self-efficacy
b. learned helplessness
c. reciprocal determinism
d. all-or-none thinking

78. A person who is suffering from disordered thinking, bizarre behavior, and hallucinations and who is unable to distinguish between fantasy and reality is likely suffering from_______.

a. schizophrenia
b. bipolar disorder
c. a dissociative disorder
d. passive-aggressive personality

79. False beliefs held by a person who refuses to accept evidence of their falseness are known as ______.

a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. obsessions
d. compulsions

80. Delusions of ________are false beliefs held by a person who is convinced that others are trying to hurt them in some way.

a. persecution
b. grandeur
c. reference
d. influence

81. False sensory perceptions that often take the form of hearing voices are called ______.

a. delusions
b. hallucinations
c. obsessions
d. compulsions

82. Laurie, a 30-year-old homemaker, has delusions and hallucinations, often acts silly, giggles loudly and inappropriately, makes odd gestures, and does not bathe or change her clothes regularly. Her symptoms indicate she is suffering from ______ schizophrenia.

a. disorganized
b. catatonic
c. undifferentiated
d. paranoid

83. The primary feature of ______ schizophrenia is severe disturbance of motor behavior.

a. disorganized
b. catatonic
c. residual
d. paranoid

84. People with ______ disorders have an excessively rigid, maladaptive pattern of behavior and ways of relating to others.

a. personality
b. somatoform
c. affective
d. schizophrenic

85. John has made a career of stealing older people’s retirement money by taking advantage of their trust and selling them phony retirement investments. John explains that he has done nothing wrong—if these people were not so greedy, they would not be so eager to invest in his phony schemes. In his mind, his victims got exactly what they deserved. John’s behavior and attitude are typical of someone with ______ personality disorder.

a. schizoid
b. schizotypal
c. passive-aggressive
d. antisocial

86. Which of the following people would be most likely to receive a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder?

a. Marlon, who works as a long-distance truck driver so that he doesn’t have to interact with people more than necessary.
b. Monet, who cannot make a decision without first knowing what her boyfriend thinks is best.
c. Jared, who enjoys stealing cars and going for joy rides around his neighborhood.
d. Lizette, who has a history of multiple suicide attempts.

87. Marty is moody, manipulative, unstable, lacks a clear sense of identity, and often clings to others. He wants to have close relationships but is unable to do so because he is untrusting of others. Marty is suffering from ______ personality disorder.

a. antisocial
b. avoidant
c. dependent
d. borderline

88. The kind of therapy that involves talking things out with a professional is called _________.

a. psychotherapy
b. biomedical therapy
c. physical therapy
d. electroconvulsive shock therapy

89. Therapies aimed mainly at understanding one’s motives and actions are referred to as _________.

a. action therapies
b. insight therapies
c. biomedical therapies
d. relationship therapies

90. Therapies directed at changing the disordered behavior are referred to as _______.

a. action therapies
b. insight therapies
c. biomedical therapies
d. relationship therapies

91. A therapist is interested in helping his client change his disordered behavior. This therapist is most likely to be a/an _______.

a. action therapist
b. insight therapist
c. biomedical therapist
d. relationship therapist

92. The kind of therapy that uses biological treatments such as medication, surgical methods, and electrical shock treatments to bring about changes in the person’s disordered behavior is called ________.

a. psychotherapy
b. biomedical therapy
c. physical therapy
d. electroconvulsive shock therapy

93. Dr. Shedrika uses a form of therapy that emphasizes revealing his clients’ unconscious conflicts, urges, and desires, which he believes are the cause of his clients’ disordered emotions and behavior. This therapist is most likely using ______.

a. behavior therapy
b. psychoanalysis
c. Gestalt therapy
d. systematic desensitization

94. Which of the following is a key component of Rogers’s person-centered therapy?

a. cognition
b. resistance
c. dream interpretation
d. unconditional positive regard

95. What did Carl Rogers view as a cause of most personal problems and unhappiness?

a. reinforcement of maladaptive behavior patterns
b. unrealistic modes of thought employed by many people
c. mismatch between an individual’s ideal self and real self
d. unresolved unconscious conflicts occurring between the id and superego

96. What is the primary goal of the therapist in person-centered therapy?

a. to facilitate transference
b. to eliminate the client’s undesirable behaviors
c. to provide unconditional positive regard
d. to help the client become more aware of his or her own feelings

97. What is a major goal of the Gestalt therapist?

a. to facilitate transference
b. to eliminate the client’s undesirable behaviors
c. to provide unconditional positive regard
d. to help clients become more aware of their own feelings

98. In Gestalt therapy, the therapist is ______ and ______.

a. passive; nondirective
b. passive; directive
c. active; nondirective
d. active; directive

99. Your friend tells you that his therapist is a Gestalt therapist. You ask him to describe what might happen in one of his therapy sessions. Which of the following is his most likely answer?

a. “I am asked by the therapist to relax and meditate.”
b. “During the session I sometimes talk to an empty chair.”
c. “The therapist asks me to describe the details of the dreams I have had recently.”
d. “The therapist evaluates the factual basis of my statements to identify logical inconsistencies.”

100. Gestalt therapy emphasizes ______.

a. the here-and-now
b. early childhood influences on adult behavior
c. the role of unsatisfactory relationships in the development of maladaptive behaviors
d. finding the initial causes of current problems

101. Craig is currently in therapy to help him stop smoking. His therapist is using learning techniques to help him modify his smoking habit and develop more desirable behaviors. Craig’s therapist is using________.

a. behavior modification
b. empty chair technique
c. reflection
d. selective thinking

102. The form of behavioral therapy in which an undesirable behavior is paired with an unpleasant stimulus to reduce the frequency of the behavior is called _______.

a. token economy
b. operant conditioning
c. aversion therapy
d. participant modeling

103. Therapy that depends on identifying and changing distorted thinking and unrealistic beliefs is ______ therapy.

a. cognitive
b. psychoanalytic
c. behavior
d. person-centered

104. Your friend has applied to several medical schools. After receiving one rejection letter, she concludes that she will not be admitted to any school and feels depressed. Your friend is engaging in _______.

a. arbitrary inference
b. overgeneralization
c. minimization
d. selective thinking

105. Azdah’s teenage son fails his mathematics exam due to lack of studying. She immediately assumes that it is her fault. Azdah is engaging in _______.

a. arbitrary inference
b. selective thinking
c. personalization
d. minimization

106. Therapies that focus on the present and assume that people observe the world and the people around them, make assumptions and inferences based on these observations, and then decide how to respond is called _______.

a. person-centered therapy
b. cognitive-behavioral therapy
c. behavior therapy
d. Gestalt therapy

107. Which of the following is a basic goal of cognitive-behavioral therapy?

a. to help clients uncover unconscious conflicts and sexual urges
b. to help clients develop a closer match between real and ideal selves
c. to help clients change irrational thoughts to rational thoughts
d. to help clients complete unfinished business and become whole

108. Rational-emotive therapy is a type of ______ therapy.

a. insight
b. cognitive-behavioral
c. psychoanalytic
d. humanistic

109. According to Albert Ellis, we become unhappy and depressed about events because of _______.

a. our behaviors
b. our irrational beliefs
c. the events that happen to us
d. other people’s irrational beliefs

110. In which form of therapy does the therapist take a directive role, challenging clients when they make “my way or nothing” statements?

a. psychoanalysis
b. behavior therapy
c. person-centered therapy
d. rational-emotive behavioral therapy

111. A type of therapy in which clients meet regularly in a group setting and discuss problems under the guidance of a single therapist is called ______ therapy.

a. social
b. informal
c. group
d. Gestalt

112. Family counseling is a form of ______ therapy.

a. organic
b. group
c. self-help
d. informal

113. A goal of family therapy is to ______.

a. change the needs of individual family members
b. improve family communication and interaction
c. identify and treat the person in the family who is the source of the majority of the family’s problems
d. teach family members to remain neutral on sensitive issues

114. Most family therapists who work with couples concentrate on ______.

a. exploring the marital partners’ childhoods to understand the source of the current conflicts
b. desensitization techniques to help the marital partners become more tolerant of each other
c. changing the behavior of the person in the marriage who is the source of the couple’s problems
d. improving the couple’s patterns of communication so they can find better ways of solving their problems

115. An advantage to group therapy is that groups ______.

a. are a source of social support
b. allow countertransference to occur
c. bestow unconditional approval on group members
d. allow an extremely shy person to feel more comfortable speaking up