Hematology Certification Practice Questions – Flashcards
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The mean value of a reticulocyte count on specimens of cord blood from healthy, full-term newborns is A. 0.5% B. 2.0% C. 5.0% D. 8.0%
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C
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What cell shape is MOST commonly associated with an increased MCHC? A. teardrop cells B. target cells C. spherocytes D. sickle cells
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C
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Hemolysis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH) is A. temperature-dependent B. complement-dependent C. antibody-mediated D. caused by a red cell membrane defect
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D
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The main function of the hexose monophospahte shunt in the erythrocyte is to: A. regulate the level of 2,3 DPG B. provide reduced glutathione to prevent oxidation of hemoglobin C. prevent the reduction of heme iron D. provide energy for membrane maintenance
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B
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A properly functioning cell counter obtains the following test results: WBC 5.1x103/uL RBC 4.87 x 106/uL Hgb 16.1 g/dL Hct 39.3% MCV 82.0 fL MCH 33.1pg MCHC 41.3% What is the most likely cause of these results? A. lipemia B. cold agglutinins C. increased WBC D. rouleaux
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A
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Which of the following types of polycythemia is most often associated with emphysema? A. polycythemia vera B. polycythemia, secondary to hypoxia C. relative polycythemia associated with dehydration D. polycythemia associated with renal disease
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B
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Anemia secondary to uremia characteristically is: A. microcytic, hypochromic B. hemolytic C. normocytic, normochromic D. macrocytic
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C
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The most appropriate screening test for hereditary spherocytosis is: A. osmotic fragility B. sucrose hemolysis C. heat instability test D. Kleihauer-Betke
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A
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Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase is marker found on: A. hairy cells B. myeloblasts C. monoblasts D. lymphoblasts
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D
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A test used to monitor streptokinase therapy is: A. reptilase time B. fibrin split products C. staphylococcal clumping test D. thrombin generation time
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B
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On setting up the electronic particle counter in the morning, one of the controls is slightly below the range for the MCV. Which of the following is indicated? A. call for service B. adjust the MCV up slightly C. shut down the instrument D. repeat the control
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D
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A 53-year-old man was in recovery following a triple bypass operation. Oozing was noted from his surgical wound. The following laboratory data were obtained: Hgb 12.5g/dL Hct 37% Prothrombin time 12.3 sec APTT 34 sec Platelet count 40.0 x 103/uL Fibrinogen 250 mg/dL The most likely cause of bleeding would be: A. dilution of coagulation factors due to massive transfusion B. intravascular coagulation secondary to microaggregates C. hypofibrinogenemia D. dilutional thrombocytopenia
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D
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In an automated cell counter with a three-digit readout capacity, the WBC printed result is 99.9. The next step is to: A. repeat after warming the sample to 37°C B. make an appropriate dilution of the sample C. recalibrate the machine from pooled samples D. request a new sample immediately
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B
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On an electronic cell counter, hemoglobin determinations may be falsely elevated owing to the presence of: A. lipemia or elevated bilirubin concentration B. a decreased WBC or lipemia C. an elevated bilirubin concentration or rouleaux D. rouleaux or lipemia
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A
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Aspirin affects platelet function by interfering with platelets metabolism of: A. prostaglandins B. lipids C. carbohydrates D. nucleic acids
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A
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Which one of the following hypochromic anemias is usually associated with a normal free erythrocyte protoporphyrin level? A. anemia of chronic disease B. iron deficiency C. lead poisoning D. thalassemia minor
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D
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Which of the following is characteristic of cellular changes as megakaryoblasts mature into megakaryocytes within the bone marrow? A. progressive decrease in overall cell size B. increasing basophilia of cytoplasm C. nuclear division without cytoplasmic division D. fusion of the nuclear lobes
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C
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Hageman factor (XII) is involved in each of the following reactions EXCEPT: A. activation of C1 to C1 esterase B. activation of plasminogen C. activation of factor XI D. transformation of fibrinogen to fibrin
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D
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What is the MCHC if the hematocrit is 20%, the RBC is 1.5 x 106/uL, and the hemoglobin is 6 g/dL? A. 28% B. 30% C. 40% D. 75%
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B
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Which of the following stains is most frequently used to differentiate acute myelocytic from acute lymphoblastic leukemia? A. alkaline phosphatase B. nonspecific esterase C. acid phosphatase D. peroxidase
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D
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Blood collected in EDTA undergoes which of the following changes if kept at room temperature for 6-24 hours? A. increased Hct and MCV B. increased ESR and MCV C. increased MCHC and MCV D. decreased retic count and Hct
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A
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Which of the following stains can be used to differentaite siderotic granules (Pappenheimer bodies) from basophilic stippling? A. Wrights B. Prussian blue C. crystal violet D. periodic acid-Schiff
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B
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Erythropoietin acts to: A. shorten the replication time of the granulocytes B. stimulate the RNA synthesis of erythroid cells C. increase colony stimulating factors produced by the B-lymphocytes D. decrease the release of marrow reticulocytes
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B
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The combination of increased capillary fragility and prolonged bleeding time suggests a deficiency in: A. thromboplastin B. prothrombin C. platelets D. fibrinogen
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C
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A patient has a high cold agglutinin titer. Automated cell counter results reveal an elevated MCV, MCH, and MCHC. Individual erythrocytes appear normal on a stained smear, but agglutinates are noted. The appropriate course of action would be to: A. perform the RBC, Hgb and Hct determinations using manual methods B. perform the RBC determination by a manual method; use the automated results for the Hgb and Hct C. repeat the determinations using a microsample of diluted blood D. repeat the determinations using a prewarmed microsample of diluted blood
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D
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On an electronic particle counter, if the RBC count is erroneously increased, how will parameters be affected? A. increased MCHC B. increased hemoglobin C. decreased MCH D. increased MCV
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C
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The prothrombin time test requires that the patient's citrated plasma be combined with: A. platelet lipids B. thromboplastin C. Ca++ and platelet lipids D. Ca++ and thromboplastin
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D
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Morphologic variants of plasma cells do NOT include: A. flame cells B. morula cells C. grape cells D. Gaucher's cells
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D
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The light colored zone adjacent to the nucleus in a plasmacyte is the: A. ribosome B. chromatin C. mitochondria D. Golgi area
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D
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Plasma from a patient with lupus coagulation inhibitor can show: A. a prolonged APTT and normal PT B. may exhibit bleeding tendencies C. no change with platelet neutralization D. complete correction when incubated with normal plasma
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A
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Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in granulocytes and giant platelets is: A. Gaucher's disease B. Alder-Reilly C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Pelger-Huet anomaly
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C
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Of the following, the disease most closely associated with cytoplasmic granule fusion is: A. Chediak-Higashi anomaly B. Pelger-Huet anomaly C. May-Hegglin anomaly D. Alder-Reilly anomaly
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A
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Coagulation factors affected by coumadin drugs are: A. VII,IX,X B. I,II,V and VII C. II,VII,IX and X D. II, V, and VII
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C
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The characteristic morphologic feature in lead poisoning is: A. macrocytosis B. target cells (codocytes) C. basophilic stippling D. rouleaux formation
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C
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What completes the circuit between the stationary and the moving electrodes in the fibrometer? A. fibrin strand B. cam sensing device C. third electrode D. turbidity of reaction
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A
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Megaloblastic asynchronous development in the bone marrow indicates which one of the following? A. proliferation fo erythrocyte precursors B. impaired synthesis of DNA C. inadequate production of EPO D. deficiency of G-6-PD
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B
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The bone marrow in the terminal stage of erythroleukemia is often indistinguishable from that seen in: A. myeloid metaplasia B. polycythemia vera C. AML D. aplastic anemia
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C
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A deficiency of protein C is associated with which of the following? A. prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) B. decreased fibrinogen level (less than 100 mg/dL) C. increased risk of thrombosis D. spontaneous hemorrhage
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C
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An automated leukocyte count is 22.5 x 103/uL. The differential reveals 200 normoblasts/100 leukocytes. What is the actual leukocyte count per microliter? A. 7500/uL B. 11,500 /uL C. 14,400/ uL D. 22,300/ uL
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A
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The chamber counting method of platelet enumeration: A. allows direct visualization of the particles being counted B. has a high degree of precision C. has a high degree of reproducibility D. is the method of choice for the performance of 50-60 counts per day
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A
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Which of the following tests can be useful in differentiating leukemoid reactions from chronic granulocytic leukemias? A. peroxidase stain B. Sudan black B stain C. surface membrane markers D. leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
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D
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The most frequent type of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is: A. T-cell childhood B. common childhood C. B-cell childhood D. undifferentiated childhood
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B
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In the French-American-British (FAB) classification, acute lymphocytic leukemia is divided into groups according to: A. prognosis B. immunology C. cytochemistry D. morphology
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A
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The manual or visual endpoint coagulation tests, duplicated are needed because: A. reagents and samples must be paired B. coagulation controls are expensive C. high precision is less attainable in manual methadology D. the CAP requires duplicate testing
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C
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The greatest activity of serum muramidase occurs with: A. cancer of the prostate B. chronic myeloproliferative disease C. acute monocytic leukemia D. Gaucher's disease
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C
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Which of the following is not useful in distinguishing thalassemia minor from iron deficiency anemia? A. free erythrocyte protoporphyrins (FEP) B. serum ferritin C. hemoglobin electrophoresis D. osmotic fragility
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D
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Which of the following is used to monitor red cell production? A. packed cell volume B. total iron-binding capacity C. Schilling test D. reticulocyte count
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D
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The characteristic erythrocyte found in pernicious anemia is: A. microcytic B. spherocytic C. hypochromic D. macrocytic
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D
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A bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 100 pm in size with vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is most characteristic of: A. Gaucher's disease B. myeloma with Russell bodies C. Di Guglielmo disease D. Neimann-Pick disease
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D
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In an uncomplicated case of infectious mononucleosis, which of the following cells are affected? A. erythrocytes B. lymphocytes C. monocytes D. thrombocytes
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B
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The most common form of childhood leukemia is: A. acute lymphocytic B. acute granulocytic C. acute monocytic D. chronic granulocytic
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A
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The morphologic feature most characterisic of hemolytic anemia is: A. spherocytosis B. rouleaux formation C. basophilic stippling D. target cells
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A
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The Prussian blue staining of peripheral blood identifies: A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. siderotic granules C. reticulocytes D. basophilic stippling
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B
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Which of the following will not cause erroneous results when using a phase optical system for enumerating platelets? A. incipient clotting B. decreased Hct C. Howell-Jolly bodies D. leukocyte cytoplasmic fragments
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B
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A sedimentation rate is set up 2 hours after the specimen is received by the laboratory. Ten minutes before the sedimentation rate is to be read, the technician notices that the tube was tilted. The technician should then: A. remix the blood and set up the procedure again B. report the result, after waiting 10 minutes C. obtain a new specimen and set up the sed rate again D. correct the sed rate for the degree of the angle
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C
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Higher levels of employee motivation occur when supervisor: A. sets goals to be accomplished B. provides all the details of the task C. constantly monitors progress D. immediately corrects every error
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A
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic usually associated with hairy cell leukemia? A. pancytopenia B. mononuclear cells with ruffled edges C. splenomegaly D. increased resistance to infection
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D
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Which of the following is the formula for mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH)? A. Hct/(RBC x 1000) B. Hgb/Hct C. RBC/Hct D. (Hgb x 10)/RBC
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D
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vWF antigen can be found in which of the following? A. myeloblast B. monoblast C. lymphoblast D. megakaryoblast
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D
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The M:E ratio in erythroleukemia is usually: A. normal B. high C. low D. variable
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C
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A platelet count done by phase microscopy is 200 x 103/uL (normal, 150-450 x 103/uL). A standardized template bleeding time on the same person is 15 minutes (normal, 4.5 ± 1.5 minutes). This indicates that: A. the Duke method sound have been used for bleeding time B. the manual plateelt count is in error C. abnormal platelet function should be suspected D. the results are as expected
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C
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All stages of neutrophils are most likely to be seen in the peripheral blood of a patient with: A. chronic granulocytic leukemia B. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia C. erythroleukemia D. acute granulocytic leukemia
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A
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Which of the following is most closely associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. ringed sideroblasts B. disseminated intravascular coagulation C. micromegakaryocytes D. Philadelphia chromosome
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D
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The peripheral blood monocyte is an intermediate stage in the formation of the: A. plasmacyte B. Turk irritation cell C. histocyte D. hairy cell
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C
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Blood is diluted 1:200 and a platelet count is performed. 180 platelets were counted in the red cell counting area on one side of the hemocytometer and 186 on the other side. The total platelet count is: A. 146 x 103/uL B. 183 x 103/uL C. 366 x 103/uL D. 732 x 103/uL
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C
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The most appropriate screening test for detecting hemoglobin F is: A. osmotic fragility B. dithionite solubility C. Kleihauer-Betke D. heat instability
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C
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If a clot incubated at 37°C dissolves within 24 hours, which of the following should be suspected? A. fibrinolysins B. low fibrinogen level C. Factor VII deficiency D. thrombocytopenia
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A
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Of the following containers, the one best suited for collection of a cell count on peritoneal fluid is a : A. sterile plastic container B. test tube containing NaF C. capped syringe on ice D. tube containing EDTA
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D
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Which of the following is most closely associated with erythroleukemia? A. ringed sideroblasts B. disseminated intravascular coagulation C. micromegakaryocytes D. lysozymuria
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A
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A citrated blood specimen for coagulation studies is to be collected from a polycythemic patient. The anticoagulant should be: A. the standard volume B. reduced in volume C. changed to EDTA D. changed to oxalate
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B
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On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area. The first thing to do is: A. examine the slide for clumping B. obtain another smear C. perform a total platelet count D. request another finger stick
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A
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In normal adult bone marrow, the most common granulocyte is the: A. basophil B. myeloblast C. eosinophil D. metamyelocyte
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D
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A hemophiliac male and a normal female can produce a: A. female carrier B. male carrier C. male hemophiliac D. normal female
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A
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The M:E ratio in polycythemia vera is usually: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased D. variable
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A
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In the immunologic classification of ALL, the acid phosphatase stain is usually positive for: A. null cell ALL B. T-cell ALL C. common ALL D. B cell ALL
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B
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In addition to a Romanowsky stain, routine evaluation of a bone marrow should include which of the following stains? A. chloroacetate esterase B. periodic acid Schiff (PAS) C. Prussian blue D. sudan black B
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C
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A patient is diagnosed as having bacterial septicemia. Which of the following would best describe the expected change in his peripheral blood? A. granulocytic leukemoid reaction B. lymphocytic leukemoid reaction C. neutropenia D. eosinophilia
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A
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In von Willebrand's disease, platelets give an abnormal aggregation result in the presence of: A. adenosine diphosphate B. epinephrine C. collagen D. ristocetin
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D
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The anemia found in myeloproliferative disorders is usually: A. microcytic, hypochromic B. macrocytic, normochromic C. normocytic, normochromic D. microcytic, normochromic
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C
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Which of the following stains is used to demonstreate iron, ferritin, and hemosiderin? A. peroxidase B. Sudan black B C. periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) D. Prussian blue
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D
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A phase-platelet count was performed and the total platelet count was 356,000/uL. Ten fields on the stained blood smear were examined for platelets and the results per field were: 16, 18, 15, 20, 19, 17, 19, 18, 20, 16 The next step would be to: A. report the phase-platelet count since it correlated well with the slide B. repeat the phase-platelet count on a re-collected specimen and check for clumping C. check 10 additional fields on the blood smear D. repeat the platelet count using a different method
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A
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In the FAB classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would be: A. M1 and M2 B. M3 C. M4 D. M5
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C
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In synovial fluid, the most characteristic finding in traumatic arthritis is: A. monosodium urate crystals B. cartilage debris C. calcium phosphoate dihydrate crystals D. hemosiderin-laden macrophages
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B
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The following results are obtained: PT Normal APTT Prolonged Absorbed plasma Corrects APTT The factor deficiency is: A. VIII B. IX C. X D. V
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A
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The mean for hemoglobin is 14.0 and the standard deviation is 0.20. The acceptable control range is ± 2 standard deviations. What are the allowable limits for the control? A. 13.8-14.2 B. 13.6-14.4 C. 13.4-14.6 D. 13.0-14.0
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B
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To prepare 25 mL of 3% acetic acid, how much glacial acetic acid is needed? A. 7.5 mL B. 3.0mL C. 1.5mL D. 0.75mL
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D
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Which of the following stains can be used to differentiate siderotic granules (Pappenheimer bodies) from basophilic stippling? A. Wright's B. Prussian blue C. crystal violet D. periodic acid-Schiff
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B
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Which of the following is associated with pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly? A. aplastic anemia B. iron deficiency anemia C. myelogenous leukemia D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
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C
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Precursors of tissue macrophages of the reticuloendothelial system most likely are: A. T lymphs B. B lymphs C. monocytes D. mast cells
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C
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Dwarf or micromegakaryocytes may be found in the peripheral blood of patients with: A. pernicious anemia B. DIC C. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia D. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
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C
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The specimen of choice for prepartion of blood films for manual differential leukocyte counts is whole blood collected in: A. EDTA B. oxalate C. citrate D. heparin
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A
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In order for hemoglobin to combine reversibly with oxygen, the iron must be: A. complexed with haptoglobin B. freely circulating in the cytoplasm C. attached to transferrin D. in the ferrous state
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D
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Which of the following laboratory findings is associated with Factor XIII deficiency? A. prolonged APTT B. clot solubility in a 5 molar urea solution C. prolonged thrombin time D. prolonged prothrombin time
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B
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The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin S is: A. Kleihauer-Betke B. dithionite solubility C. osmotic fragility D. sucrose hemolysis
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B
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The mean for hemoglobin is 13.0 and the standard deviation is 0.15. The acceptable control range is ± 2 standard deviations. What are the allowable limits for the control? A. 13.0-14.0 B. 12.9-13.1 C. 12.7-13.3 D. 12.5-13.5
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C
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Heinz bodies are: A. readily identified with polychrome stains B. rarely found in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient erythrocytes C. closely associated with spherocytes D. denatured hgb inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen
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D
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Of the following, the disease most closely associated with mucopolysaccharidosis is: A. Pelger-Huet B. Chediak Higashi syndrome C. Gaucher's disease D. Alder-Reilly
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D
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A patient with thalassemia minor characteristically has a(n): A. elevated A2 hemoglobin B. low fetal hemoglobin C. high serum iron D. normal red cell fragility
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A
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The preferred blood product for a bleeding patient with von Willebrand's disease is transfusion with: A. Factor II,VII,IX,X concentrates B. Platelet concentrates C. FFP and platelets D. cyroprecipitated AHF
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D
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Evidence of active red cell regeneration may be indicated on a blood smear by: A.basophilic stippling, nucleated red blood cells, and polychromasia B. hypochromia, macrocytes, and nucleated red blood cells C. hypochromia, basophilic stippling, and nucleated red blood cells D. Howell-Jolly bodies, Cabot rings, and basophilic stippling
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A
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A patient diagnosed with polycythemia vera 5 years ago now has a normal hematocrit, decreased hemoglobin, and microcytic, hypochromic red cells. What is the most probable cause for the current blood situation? A. phlebotomy B. myelofibrosis C. preleukemia D. aplastic anemia
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A
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A 20-year-old black man has peripheral blood changes suggesting thalassemia minor. The quantitative hemoglobin A2 level is normal, but the hemoglobin F level is 5% (normal = less than 2%). This is most consistent with: A. alpha thalassemia minor B. beta thalassemia minor C. delta-beta thalassemia minor D. hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
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C
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The following hemoglobin results were obtained for a patient: Monday morning 11.8 g/dL Monday afternoon 11.3 g/dL Tuesday morning 11.7 g/dL What can be concluded about the results? A. One value probably resulted from lab error B. There is poor precision; daily QA charts should be checked C. The patient was probably bleeding temporarily D. There is no significant change in the patient's hemoglobin
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D
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A 15-year-old girl is taking primaquine for a parasitic infection and notices her urine is a brownish color. A CBC shows mild anemia. The laboratorian performing the reticulocyte count notices numerous irregular shaped granules near the periphery of the RBC. These cellular inclusions are most likely: A. Howell-Jolly bodies B. basophilic stippling C. Heinz bodies D. Pappenheimer bodies
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C
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An automated platelet count indicates platelet clumping, which is confirmed by examining the smear. The technician should: A. repeat the count on the same sample B. report the automate count C. perform a manual count D. re-collect in sodium citrate
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D
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The cytoplasmic abnormality of the white blood cell of Alder-Reilly anomaly is found in the: A. endoplasmic reticulum B. lysosomes C. mitochondria D. ribosomes
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B
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Using automated coagulation instruments, duplication of normal tests is no longer appropriate because: A. the lab can document precision by collecting data to reflect precision performance B. all techs on all shifts can be taught QC C. it is difficult to have duplicates done in a blind fashion D. one tech can monitor quality control
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A
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The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin H is: A. dithione solubility B. osmotic fragility C. sucrose hemolysis D. heat instability test
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D
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The term "shift to the left" refers to: A. a microscopic adjustment B. immature cell forms in the peripheral blood C. a trend on a Levy-Jennings chart D. a calibration adjustment on an insturment
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B
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If a WBC count is performed on a 1:100 dilution and the number of cells counted in 8 squares is 50, the total count is: A. 5000/uL B. 6250/uL C. 50,000/uL D. 62,500/uL
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B
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If an RBC count is performed on a 1:200 dilution and the number of cells in one fifth of a square mm is 150, the total RBC count is: A. 1.5 x 106/uL B. 2.0 x 106/uL C. 3.0 x 106/uL D. 3.5 x 106/uL
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A
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Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is defined as: A. a malignancy of the thymus B. an accumulation of prolymphocytes C. an accumulation of hairy cells in the spleen D. an accumulation of monoclonal B cells with a block in cell maturation
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D
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A patient's thrombin time is 25.5 seconds, and the control is 11.5 seconds. The patient's plasma is mixed with an equal part of normal plasma. The thrombin time is rerun and is 28.0 seconds with a control of 11.5 seconds. These results indicate: A. fibrinogen deficiency B. thrombocyte antibodies present C. Factor VII deficiency D. circulating anticoagulant
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D
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Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is decreased in: A. acute infections B. pregnant women C. polycythemia vera D. PNH
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D
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If the total leukocyte count is 20.0 x 103/uL and 50 NRBCs are seen per 100 leukocytes on the differential, what is the corrected leukocyte count? A. 6666/uL B. 10,000/uL C. 13,333/uL D. 26,666/uL
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C
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A patient with polycythemia vera who is treated by phlebotomy is most likely to develop a deficiency of: A. iron B. vitamin B12 C. folic acid D. erythropoietin
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A
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A useful chemical test for the diagnosis of hairy-cell leukemia is the: A. peroxidase test B. Sudan black B test C. periodic acid schiff test D. tartrate resistant acid phosphatase test
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D
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Which of the following bone marrow findings favor the diagnosis of multiple myeloma? A. presence of Reed-Sternberg cells B. sheaths of immature plasma cells C. presence of flame cells and Russell bodies D. presence of plasmacytic satellitosis
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B
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Which of the following cells are the atypical lymphocytes seen on the peripheral blood smear of patients with infectious mononucleosis? A. T lymphs B. B lymphs C. monocytes D. mast cells
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A
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Elevation of the lymphocyte percentage above 47% is termed: A. relative lymphocytosis B. absolute lymphocytosis C. leukocytosis D. absolute neutrophilic leukocytosis
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A
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The M:E ratio in acute granulocytic leukemia is usually: A. normal B. high C. low D. variable
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B
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In laser flow cytometry, histograms combining the data from forward-angle light scatter with the data from right-angle light scatter permit the operator to: A. quantitate cell surface protein B. determine absolute cell size C. distinguish internal cell structures D. differentiate cell populations from one another
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D
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If a blood smear is dried too slowly, the red blood cells are often; A. clumped B. crenated C. lysed D. destroyed
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B
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Hemorrhage in polycythemia vera is the result of: A. increased plasma viscosity B. persistent thrombocytosis C. splenic sequestration of platelets D. abnormal platelet function
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D
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Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency)? A. defective ADP release; normal response to ADP B. decreased amount of ADP in platelets C. absent aggregation to epinephrine, ADP and collagen D. normal platelet aggregation
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D
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Which of the following are found in association with megaloblastic anemia? A. neutropenia and thrombocytopenia B. decreased LD activity C. increased erythrocyte folate levels D. decreased plasma bilirubin levels
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A
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The disease most frequently present in patients with atypical lymphocytosis and persistently negative tests is: A. toxoplasmosis B. cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection C. herpes virus infection D. viral hepatitis
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B
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Abnormalities found in erythroleukemia include: A. rapid DNA synthesis B. marrow fibrosis C. megaloblastoid development D. increased erythrocyte survival
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C
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Which of the following may be used to stain glycogen, polysaccharides, and glycoproteins? A. peroxidase B. sudan black B C. PAS D. nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT)
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C
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Which of the following is a significant feature of erythroleukemia (Di Guglielmo's syndrome)? A. persistently increased M:E ratio B. megaloblastoid erythropoiesis C. marked thrombocytosis D. decreased stainable iron in the marrow
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B
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Patients with (A-) type G-6-PD deficiency are LEAST likely to have hemolytic episodes in which of the following situations? A. following the administration of oxidizing drugs B. the neonatal period C. during infections D. spontaneously
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D
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The stain that selectively identifies phospholipid in the membranes of primary and secondary granules within myeloid cells is: A. Sudan black B B. LAP C. PAS D. peroxidase
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A
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In an electronic or laser particle cell counter, clumped platelets may interfere with which of the following parameters? A. white blood cell count B. red blood cell count C. hemoglobin D. hematocrit
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A
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Hematology standards include: A. stabilized RBC suspension B. latex particles C. stabilized avian red blood cells D. certified cyanmethemoglobin solution
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D
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The APTT: A. tests the extrinsic coagulation pathway B. monitors Coumadin therapy C. requires tissue thromboplastin D. monitors heparin therapy
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D
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Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of hemoglobin H? A. it is a tetramer of beta chains B. it is relatively unstable and thermolabile C. electrophoretically, it represents a "fast" hemoglobin D. its oxygen affinity is lower than that of Hgb A
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D
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A patient has a tumor that concentrates erythropoietin. He is most likely to have which of the following types of polycythemia? A. polycythemia vera B. polycythemia, secondary to hypoxia C. benign familial polycythemia D. polycythemia associated with renal disease
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D
question
Aeur rods are: A. a normal aggregation of lysosomes or primary (azurophilic) granules B. predominantly found in AML C. peroxidase negative D. alkaline phosphatase positive
answer
B
question
Which of the following cell types is characteristic of Pelger-Huet anomaly? A. band form B. pince-nez form C. normal neutrophil D. myelocyte
answer
B
question
Peripheral blood smears from patients with untreated pernicious anemia are characterized by: A. pancytopenia and macrocytosis B. pancytopenia and leukocytosis C. leukocytosis and ovalocytosis D. pancytopenia and microcytosis
answer
A
question
The characteristic morphologic feature in folic acid deficiency is: A. macrocytosis B. target cells C. basophilic stippling D. rouleaux formation
answer
A
question
Which of the following is used for staining reticulocytes? A. Giemsa stain B. Wright's stain C. new methylene blue D. Prussian blue
answer
C
question
Cells that produce antibodies and lymphokines are: A. erythrocytes B. granulocytes C. lymphocytes D. thrombocytes
answer
C
question
When using the turbidity (solubility) method for detecting the presence of hemoglobin S, an incorrect interpretation may be made when there is a(n): A. unusually high concentration of Hgb B. glucose concentration greater than 150 mg/dL C. blood specimen greater than 2 hours old D. increased total serum protein
answer
D
question
The following results were obtained on an electronic particle counter: WBC: ++++ RBC: 2.01 x 106/uL Hgb: 7.7g/dL Hct: 28.2% MCV: 141fL MCH: 38.5 pg MCHC: 23.3% What step should be taken before recycling the sample? A. clean the apertures B. warm the specimen C. replace the lysing agent D. dilute the specimen
answer
D
question
Which of the following is a true statement about acute idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)? A. It is found primarily in adults B. Spontaneous remission usually occurs within several weeks C. Women are more commonly affected D. peripheral destruction of platelets is decreased
answer
B
question
The anemia of chronic infection is characterized by: A. decreased iron stores in the reticuloendothelial system B. decreased serum iron levels C. macrocytic erythrocytes D. increased serum iron-binding capacity
answer
B
question
A common source of interference in the cyanmethemoglobin method is: A. hemolysis B. very high WBC count C. cold agglutinins D. clumped platelets
answer
B
question
A patient has been treated for polycythemia vera for several years. His blood smear now shows: Oval macrocytes Howell-Jolly bodies Hypersegmented neutrophils Large, agranular platelets The most probable cause of this blood picture is: A. iron deficiency B. alcoholism C. dietary B12 deficiency D. chemotherapy
answer
D
question
A patient is admitted with a history of chronic bleeding secondary to peptic ulcer. Hematology workup reveals a severe microcytic, hypochromic anemia. Iron studies were requested. Which of the following would be expected in this case? A. decreased serum iron, increased TIBC, increased storage iron B. increased serum iron, decreased TIBC, increased storage iron C. decreased serum iron, increased TIBC, decreased storage iron D. increased serum iron, normal TIBC, decreased storage iron
answer
C
question
A bone marrow report described cells containing 1-2 nucleoli, moderately coarse nuclear chromatin, a high N/C ratio, and a coarse staining pattern with PAS. These cells are most likely: A. myeloblasts B. lymphocytes C. monoblasts D. lymphoblasts
answer
B
question
A term that means varying degrees of leukocytosis with a shift to the left and occasional nucleated red cells in the peripheral blood is: A. polycythemia vera B. erythroleukemia C. leukoerythroblastosis D. megaloblastoid
answer
C
question
The white cell feature most characteristic of pernicious anemia is: A. eosinophilia B. toxic granulation C. hypersegmentation D. atypical lymphocytes
answer
C
question
Thrombocytosis would be indicated by a platelet count of: A. 100 x 103/uL B. 200 x 103/uL C. 300 x l03/uL D. 600 x 103/uL
answer
D
question
Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia? A. decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin B. defective ADP release; normal response to ADP C. decreased amount of ADP in platelets D. markedly decreased aggregation to epinephrine, ADP and collagen
answer
D
question
In most cases of hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH): A. Hgb F is unevenly distributed throughout the erythrocytes B. the black heterzygous has 75% Hgb F C. beta and gamma chain synthesis is decreased D. gamma chain production equals alpha chain production
answer
D
question
A patient has a normal prothrombin time and a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) using a kaolin activator. The APTT corrects to normal when the incubation time is increased. These results suggest that the patient has: A. hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) B. Hageman factor (XII) deficiency C. Fletcher factor deficiency (prekallikrein) D. Factor V deficiency
answer
C
question
Platelet aggregation is dependent in vitro on the presence of: A. calcium ions B. sodium citrate C. fibrinogen D. potassium
answer
A
question
A hypercellular marrow with an M:E ratio of 6:1 is most commonly due to: A. lymphoid hyperplasia B. granulocytic hyperplasia C. normoblastic hyperplasia D. myeloid hypoplasia
answer
B
question
Cells involved in hemostasis are: A. erythrocytes B. granulocytes C. lymphocytes D. thrombocytes
answer
D
question
Giant, bizarre-shaped, multinucleated erythroid precursors are present in which of the following? A. chronic granulocytic leukemia B. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia C. erythroleukemia D. acute granulocytic leukemia
answer
C
question
In an adult with rare homozygous delta-beta thalassemia, the hemoglobin produced is: A. A B. Bart's C. F D. H
answer
C
question
The most characteristic morphologic features of atypical lymphocytes include: A. coarse nuclear chromatin and basophilic cytoplasm B. blue-gray cytoplasm, fine nuclear chromatin C. nucleoli and deep blue RNA rich cytoplasm D. a stretched nucleus and cytoplasmic indentations
answer
A
question
Aliquots of plasma with a prolonged PT and prolonged APTT are mixed using various ratios of patient plasma and normal plasma. All samples are incubated at 37°C and tested at 10-, 30-, and 60-minute intervals. The PT and APTT results on all of the mixtures are corrected. The results would indicate the presence of: A. circulating anticoagulant B. factor deficiency C. contaminated reagent D. antibodies
answer
B
question
Laboratory tests performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have? A. anemia of chronic disease B. vitamin B12 deficiency C. iron deficiency D. acute hemorrhage
answer
B
question
Increased numbers of basophils are often seen in: A. acute infections B. chronic granulocytic leukemia C. chronic lymphocytic leukemia D. erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)
answer
B
question
Thalassemias are characterized by: A. structural abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule B. absence of iron in hemoglobin C. decreased rate of heme synthesis D. decreased rate of globin synthesis
answer
D
question
Which of the following will distinguish early myeloid metaplasia from chronic myelogenous leukemia? A. bone marrow hyperplasia B. bone marrow fibrosis C. increased LAP D. megaloblastosis
answer
C
question
Which of the following platelet responses is most likely associated with classic von Willebrand's disease? A. decreased platelet aggregation to ristocetin B. normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin C. absent aggregation to epinephrine, ADP and collagen D. decreased amount of ADP in platelets
answer
A
question
Prothrombin is: A. a protein formed by the liver in the presence of vitamin K B. an enzyme that converts fibrinogen into fibrin threads C. the end product of the reaction between fibrinogen and thrombin D. a protein released by platelets during coagulation
answer
A
question
Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions? A. membrane defect of lysosomes B. Dohle bodies and giant platelets C. two-lobed nucleus D. mucopolysaccharidosis
answer
D
question
The atypical lymphocyte seen in the peripheral smear of patients with infectious mononucleosis is reacting to which of the following? A. T lymphs B. B lymphs C. monocytes D. mast cells
answer
B
question
A platelet determination was performed on an automated instrument and a very low value was obtained. The platelets appeared adequate when estimated from the stained blood film. The best explanation for this discrepancy is: A. many platelets are abnormally large B. blood sample is hemolyzed C. white cell fragments are present in the blood D. red cell fragments are present in the blood
answer
A
question
A person has a leukocyte count of 9.4 x 103/uL on Saturday. On Monday he runs a marathon and his leukocyte count after the race is 14.8 x 103/uL. The difference of the two leukocyte counts is due to: A. fluid increase B. pathologic variation C. analytic difference D. physiologic variation
answer
D
question
Which of the following coagulation factors is considered to be labile? A. II B. V C. VII D. X
answer
B
question
Which one of the following is a true statement about megakaryocytes in a bone marrow aspirate? A. An average of 1 to 3 should be found in each low-power field (10x) B. The majority are the MK1 stage C. Morphology must be determined from the biopsy section D. Quantitative estimation is done using the 100x oil immersion lens
answer
A
question
A 60-year-old man has a painful right knee and a slightly enlarged spleen. Hematology results include: Hemoglobin 15 g/dL Absolute neutrophil count 10.0 x 103/uL Platelet count 900 x 103/uL Uncorrected retic count 1% Normal red cell morphology and indices A slight increase in bands Rare metamyeloctye and myelocyte Giant and bizarre-shaped platelets These results are most compatible with: A. congenital spherocytosis B. rheumatoid arthritis with reactive thrombocytosis C. myelofibrosis D. idiopathic thrmbocythemia
answer
D
question
Using a WBC pipet, blood is drawn to the 1.0 mark and diluted to the 11.0 mark. 182 cells are counted in 4 square millimeters. The count is: A. 4500/uL B. 9100/uL C. 45,500/uL D. 91,000/uL
answer
A
question
Which of the following is the most common cause of an abnormality in hemostasis? A. decreased plasma fibrinogen leve B. decreased factor VIII level C. decreased factor IX level D. quantitative abnormality of platelets
answer
D
question
Which of the following are characteristic of Auer rods? A. They contain lactoferrin B. They are lysosome and acid-phosphatase-positive C. They are found in the leukemic phase of lymphoma D. They are found in acute lymphocytic leukemia
answer
B
question
Which of the following stains is helpful in the diagnosis of suspected erythroleukemia? A. peroxidase B. nonspecific esterase C. PAS D. acid phosphatase
answer
C
question
Hairy cell leukemia (leukemic reticuloendotheliosis) is: A. an acute myelocytic leukemia B. a chronic leukemia of myelocytic origin C. a chronic leukemia of lymphocytic origin D. an acute myelocytic monocytic-type leukemia
answer
C
question
Thrombocytopenia is a characteristic of: A. classic von Willebrand's disease B. hemophilia A C. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia D. May-Hegglin anomaly
answer
D
question
Hemoglobins are read on a photoelectric colorimeter in the laboratory. While reading the hemoglobins, a problem of drifting is encountered. To assess the problem, the FIRST thing to do is: A. recalibrate the instrument B. check the filter C. set up new hemoglobin samples D. check the light source
answer
D
question
A prolonged thrombin time and a normal reptilase-R time are characteristic of: A. dysfibrinogenemia B. increased fibrin split products C. fibrin monomer-split product complexes D. therapeutic heparinization
answer
D
question
A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of: A. platelets B. prothrombin C. labile factor D. Factor XIII
answer
A
question
The ideal capillary blood collection site on a newborn is: A. tip of the thumb B. ear lobe C. plantar surface of the heal D. the great toe
answer
C
question
The leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increased in: A. erythroleukemia B. leukemoid reaction C. chronic granulocytic leukemia D. acute granulocytic leukemia
answer
B
question
A 20-year-old woman with sickle cell anemia whose usual hemoglobin concentration is 8 g/dL develops fever, increased weakness, and malaise. The hemoglobin concentration is 4 g/dL and the reticulocyte count is 0.1%. The most likely explanation for this clinical picture is: A. increased hemolysis due to hypersplenism B. aplastic crisis C. thrombotic crisis D. occult blood loss
answer
B
question
Which of the following is most closely associated with idiopathic hemochromatosis? A. iron overload in tissue B. target cells C. basophilic stippling D. ringed sideroblasts
answer
A
question
In polycythemia vera, the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased
answer
A
question
Which of the following is a characteristic of Factor XII deficiency? A. negative bleeding history B. normal clotting times C. decreased risk of thrombosis D. epistaxis
answer
A
question
A 56-year-old woman was admitted to the hospital with a history of a moderate to severe bleeding tendency of several years' duration. Epistaxis and menorrhagia were reported. Prolonged APTT was corrected with fresh normal plasma, adsorbed plasma, and aged serum. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely? A. Factor XII B. Factor VIII C. Factor XI D. Factor IX
answer
C
question
A patient has a history of mild hemorrhagic episodes. Laboratory results include a prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time. The abnormal prothrombin time was corrected by normal and adsorbed plasma, but not aged serum. Which of the following coagulation factors is deficient? A. prothrombin B. Factor V C. Factor X D. Factor VII
answer
B
question
The majority of the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of: A. hemoglobin B. hemosiderin C. myoglobin D. transferrin
answer
A
question
The absence of the Philadelphia chromosome in granulocytic leukemia suggests: A. rapid progression of the disease B. a polyclonal origin to the disease C. excellent response to therapy D. conversion from another myeloproliferative disroder
answer
A
question
Which of the following leukemias is characterized by immature cells that are Sudan black B positive with discrete fine granules, peroxidase negative, PAS variable, strongly alpha naphthyl acetate esterase positive, and muramidase positive? A. acute lymphocytic B. chronic lymphocytic C. acute myelocytic D. acute myelomonocytic
answer
D
question
Specific (secondary) granules of the neutrophilic granulocyte: A. appear first at the myelocyte stage B. contain lysosomal enzymes C. are formed on the mitochondria D. are derived from azurophil (primary) granules
answer
A
question
Which of the following is a congenital nonspherocytic henolytic anemia in which there are red cell inclusions when blood smears are stained with Prussian blue? A. PNH B. pyruvate kinase deficiency C. thalassemia D. G-6-PD deficiency
answer
C
question
A specimen run on an automatic cell counter has a platelet count of 19 x 103/uL. The first thing the technician should do is: A. report the count after the batch run is completed B. request a new specimen C. review the stained blood smear D. notify the laboratory manager
answer
C
question
Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease include: A. marrow hyperplasia B. ineffective erythropoiesis C. vitamin B12 deficiency D. increased EPO production
answer
B
question
Patients with chronic granulomatous disease suffer from frequent pyogenic infections owing to the inability of: A. lymphocytes to produce bacterial antibodies B. eosinophils to degranulate in the presence of bacteria C. neutrophils to kill phagocytized bacteria D. basophils to release histamine in the presence of bacteria
answer
C
question
Which of the following is most useful in differentiating hemophilias A and B? A. pattern of inheritance B. clinical history C. activated partial thromboplastin time D. mixing studied (substitution studies)
answer
D
question
Which of the following anomalies is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by irregularly sized inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, abnormal giant platelets, and often thrombocytopenia? A. Pelger-Huet B. Chedik-Higashi C. Alder Reilly D. May-Hegglin
answer
D
question
Which of the following is the standard calibration method for hematology instrumentation against which other methods must be verified? A. latex particles of known dimension B. stabilized red cell suspension C. stabilized 7 parameter reference controls D. normal whole blood
answer
D
question
Biochemical abnormalities characteristic oh polycythemia vera include: A. increased serum B12 binding capacity B. hypouricemia C. hypohistaminemia D. decreased LAP activity
answer
A
question
In polycythemia vera, the platelet count is: A. elevated B. normal C. decreased
answer
A
question
Elevation of the total white cell count above 12 x 109/jiL is termed: A. relative lymphocytosis B. absolute lymphocytosis C. leukocytosis D. relative neutrophil leukocytosis
answer
C
question
The laboratory tests performed on a patient indicate macrocytosis, anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Which of the following disorders is the patient most likely to have? A. iron deficiency B. hereditary spherocytosis C. vitamin B12 deficiency D. acute hemorrhage
answer
C
question
Which of the following characteristics are common to hereditary spherocytosis, hereditary elliptocytosis, hereditary stomatocytosis, and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria? A. autosomal dominant inheritance B. red cell membrane defects C. positive direct antiglobulin test D. measure platelet count
answer
B
question
Long-term exposure to certain antibiotics such as penicillin has been found to result in: A. leukopenia B. thrombocytosis C. lymphocytosis D. polycythemia
answer
A
question
Phagocytosis is a function of: A. erythrocytes B. granulocytes C. lymphocytes D. thrombocytes
answer
B
question
A differential was performed on an asymptomatic patient. The differential included 60% neutrophils: 55 of which had 2 lobes and 5 had 3 lobes. There were no other abnormalities. This is consistent with which of the following anomalies? A. Pelger Huet B. May Hegglin C. Alder Reilly D. Chediak Higashi
answer
A
question
A 10-year-old patient's bone marrow is classified morphologically by the French-American-British (FAB) system as an L3 ALL. Which of the following results supports this diagnosis? A. terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) positive B. Pelger Huet like neutrophils are found C. surface immunoglobulin positive D. E-rosette positive
answer
C
question
When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the presence of a cold agglutinin? A. increased MCV and decreased RBC B. increased MCV and normal RBC C. decreased MCV and increased MCHC D. decreased MCV and RBC
answer
A
question
A 40-year-old man had an erythrocyte count of 2.5 x l06/uL, hematocrit of 22%, and a reticulocyte count of 2.0%. Which of the following statements best describes his condition? A. The absolute reticulocyte count is 50 x 103/uL, indicating that the bone marrow is not adequately compensating for the anemia. B. The reticulocyte count is greatly increased, indicating an adequate bone marrow response for this anemia. C. The absolute reticulocyte count is 500 x l03/uL, indicating that the bone marrow is adequately compensating for the anemia. D. The reticulocyte count is slightly increased, indicating an adequate response to the slight anemia.
answer
A
question
A blood smear shows 80 nucleated red cells per 100 leukocytes. The total leukocyte count is 18 x 103/pL. The true white cell count expressed in SI units is: A. 17.2x103/pL B. 9.0 x 103/pL C. 10.0 x 103/~iL D. 13.4x103/pL
answer
C
question
Muramidase (lysozyme) is present in: A. granulocytes and their precursors B. monocytes and their precursors C. granulocytes, monocytes and their precursors D. lymphocytes and their precursors
answer
C
question
A bedside test that can be used to monitor heparin activity is the: A. activated clotting time B. Stypven time C. reptilase time D. partial thromboplastin time
answer
A
question
The granules of Alder-Reilly anomaly will stain positively with: A. sudan black B B. periodic acid schiff C. myeloperoxidase D. napthol-AS-D chloroacetate esterase
answer
B
question
In the APTT test, the patient's plasma is mixed with: A. ADP and calcium B. tissue thromboplastin and collagen C. phosphlipid and calcium D. tissue thromboplastin and calcium
answer
C
question
Which of the following sets of laboratory findings is consistent with hemolytic anemia? A. normal of slightly increased erythrocyte survival; normal osmotic fragility B. decreased erythrocyte survival; increased catabolism of heme C. decreased serum lactate dehydrogenase activity; normal catabolism of heme D. normal concentration of haptoglobin; marked hemoglobinuria
answer
B
question
A heparinized blood sample is collected from a patient during open-heart surgery. The surgeon requests a complete blood count on the specimen. The most appropriate course of action is: A. perform the complete blood count as requested B. report only the hemoglobin and hematocrit on heparinized blood C. report only the white cell and platelet counts on heparinized blood D. report the white cell and red cell counts on heparinized blood
answer
B
question
Hemoglobin H disease results from: A. absence of 3 of 4 alpha genes B. absence of 2 of 4 alpha genes C. absence of 1 of 4 alpha genes D. absence of all 4 alpha genes
answer
A
question
Neutropenia is NOT usually associated with: A. viral infections B. Hodgkin's disease C. select antibiotics D. chemotherapy
answer
B
question
Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by: A. hypofibrigonemia B. thrombocytosis C. negative D-dimer D. shortened thrombin time
answer
A
question
Which of the following is the formula for manual white cell count? A. (number of cells counted x dilution x 10)/number of squares counted B. (number of cells counted x dilution)/10 x number of squares counted C. number of cells counted x dilution D. number of cells counted x number of squares counted
answer
A
question
The following results are obtained: PT Normal APTT Prolonged APTT with absorbed plasma Not corrected What is the deficient factor? A. antihemophilic facto (VIII) B. plasma thromboplastin component (IX) C. Stuart Prower factor (X) D. Hageman factor (XII)
answer
B
question
Auer rods are most likely present in which of the following? A. chronic granulocytic leukemia B. myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia C. erythroleukemia D. acute granulocytic leukemia
answer
D
question
Which of the following is most closely associated with iron deficiency anemia? A. iron overload in tissue B. target cells C. basophilic stippling D. chronic blood loss
answer
D
question
In acute granulocytic leukemia, the myeloblasts stain positive with all of the following EXCEPT: A. specific esterase B. Sudan black B C. peroxidase D. PAS
answer
D
question
The Philadelphia chromosome is formed by a translocation between the: A. long arm of chromosome 22 and long arm of chromosome 9 B. long arm of chromosome 21 and long arm of chromosome 9 C. long arm of chromosome 21 and long arm of chromosome 6 D. long arm of chromosome 22 and long arm of chromosome 6
answer
A
question
The hypoproliferative red cell population in the bone marrow of uremic patients is caused by: A. infiltration of bone marrow by toxic waste products B. decrease levels of circulating erythropoietin C. defective globin synthesis D. overcrowding of bone marrow space by increased myeloid precursors
answer
B
question
Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with a high incidence of leukemia? A. PNH B. Fanconi's anemia C. aplastic anemia D. megaloblastic anemia
answer
D
question
Heparin acts by: A. precipitating calcium B. binding calcium C. activating palsmin D. inhibiting thrombin
answer
D
question
Multiple myeloma is generally characterized by: A. plasmacytic satellitosis in the bone marrow B. many plasma cells in the peripheral blood C. many Mott cells in the peripheral blood D. rouleaux formation
answer
D
question
A patient has pancytopenia, decreased total serum iron, and decreased serum iron-binding capacity, and shows a homogeneous fluorescence pattern with a high titer on a fluorescent antinuclear antibody test. This is suggestive of: A. polycythemia vera B. lupus erythematosus C. iron deficiency anemia D. hemoglobin SC disease
answer
B
question
Mechanism of cortisol-induced neutrophilia includes: A. an acute shift in granulocytes from the marginating pool to the circulating pool B. an increased exit of granulocytes from the circulation C. a decreased exit of granulocytes from the bone marrow D. granulocyte return from the tissues to the circulating pool
answer
A
question
The cell series most readily identified by a positive Sudan black B is: A. erythrocytic B. myelocytic C. plasmocytic D. lymphocytic
answer
B
question
The electrical resistance method of cell counting requires: A. equal sized particles B. conductive liquid C. two internal electrodes for current D. three apertures for counting
answer
B
