BRS Peds: Neurology – Flashcards

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
Hypotonia
answer
the decreased resistance of movement during passive stretching of muscles.
question
Weakness
answer
decreased or less than normal force generated by active contraction of muscles.
question
Classification of Hypotonia
answer
Cenral vs Peripheral
question
Central Hypotonia
answer
dysfunction ofupper motor neurons(i.e., cortical pyramidal neurons and their descending corticospinal pathways).
question
Peripheral Hypotonia
answer
dysfunction of lower motor neurons(i.e., spinal motor neurons and distally to the muscle fibers).
question
Risk factors for peripheral hypotonia:
answer
1) Decreased fetal movements 2) Breech Presentation
question
Risk factors for central hypotonia:
answer
Seizures in the neonatal period
question
Frog leg posture
answer
Externally rotated and flexed hips
question
PE findings of hypotonia:
answer
weak cry, decreased spontaneous movement, a frog-leg posture and muscle contractures. *** infant will slip through your hands when liftend up from under axillae
question
Clinical features in central hypotonia:
answer
altered level of consciousness and increased deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), often with ankle clonus.
question
Clinical features in peripheral hypotonia
answer
consciousness is unaffected, but muscle bulk and DTRs are decreased.
question
Etiology of hypotonia
answer
Systemic including sepsis, encepalaopathy and electrolyte abormalities or Neural Pathology
question
When evaluating hypotonia you must first rule out:
answer
Sepsis, Meningitis & Acute Metabolic Disorder
question
Evaluation of Central Hypotonia:
answer
a. Head computed tomography (CT) scan to rule out acute central nervous system (CNS) injury or congenital malformation b. Serum electrolytes, calcium and magnesium levels, and ammonia, lactate, and pyruvate levels to rule out metabolic disorders c. High-resolution chromosome studies and fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) tests for suspected genetic disorders (e.g., Prader-Willi syndrome)
question
Evaluation of peripheral hypotonia:
answer
a. Serum creatine kinase (CK) levels b. DNA tests for spinal muscular atrophy (see section F.1) c. Electromyography (EMG).Nerve conduction studies are crucial to identify myasthenic disorders. d. Muscle biopsy
question
Spinal Muscular Atrophy (SMA)
answer
anterior horn cell degeneration that presents with hypotonia, weakness, and tongue fasciculations.
question
Epidemiology of SMA:
answer
second most common hereditary neuromuscular disorder after Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
question
Classification of SMA:
answer
1. Type 1 or infantile form with onset 3 years of age
question
Etiology of SMA
answer
AR inherited mutation of survival motor neuron gene 1 on chromosome 5
question
Pathology of SMA
answer
Degeneration and loss of anterior horn motor neurons with infiltration of mcroglia and astrocytes
question
Clinical features of SMA
answer
1. Weak cry, tongue fasciculations, and difficulty sucking and swallowing 2. Bell-shaped chest 3. Frog-leg posture when in supine position, generalized hypotonia, weakness, and areflexia 4. Normal extraocular movements andnormal sensory examination
question
Diagnosis of SMA
answer
1. DNA testing for the abnormal gene is diagnostic in >90% of cases. 2. Muscle biopsy shows a characteristic atrophy of groups of muscle fibers that were innervated by the damaged axons.
question
Management of SMA:
answer
1) Gastrostomy tube feeding to ensure proper nutrition 2) Treating and preventing respiratory infections. This is the mCC of death ( < 1 yoa) 3) Physical therapy to prevent contractures and decreased range of motion
question
Infantile botulism
answer
bulbar weakness and paralysis that develops in infants during the first year of life secondary to ingestion ofClostridium botulinumspores and absorption of botulinum toxin.
question
Etiology of infantile botulism
answer
The source of the botulinum toxin is infected foods, such as contaminated honey, or spores unearthed from the ground. The toxin prevents the presynaptic release of acetylcholine.
question
Clinical features of infantile botulism:
answer
1. Onset of symptoms occurs 12-48 hours after ingestion of spores. 2. Constipation is the classic first symptom of botulism. 3. Neurologic symptoms follow, including weak cry and suck, loss of previously obtained motor milestones, ophthalmoplegia, and hyporeflexia. 4. Paralysis is symmetric and descending, and, at times, diaphragmatic paralysis may occur.
question
Diagnosis of infantile botulism
answer
1) Identification of the toxin/bacteria in stool 2) EMG: brief, small-amplitude muscle potentials ith an incremental response during high frequency stimulation
question
Management of infantile botulism:
answer
Treatment is supportive with nasogastric feeding and assisted ventilation as needed. 1. Botulism immune globulin improves the clinical course.( Passive immunity) 2. Antibiotics are contraindicated and may worsen the clinical course.
question
Myotonia
answer
inability to relax contracted muscles
question
Congenital Myotonic Dystrophy (CMD)
answer
autosomal dominant, trinucleotide repeat muscle disorder that presents in the newborn period with weakness and hypotonia.
question
How is CMD inherited?
answer
AS inheritance with variable penetrance due to mutation on chromosome 19. Transmission is through affected mother
question
Clinical features of CMD:
answer
1. Antenatal history may reveal polyhydramnios caused by poor swallowing in utero and decreased fetal movements. 2. Neonatal history is often significant for feeding and respiratory problems. 3. Physical examination of the neonate is notable for facial diplegia (bilateral weakness), hypotonia, areflexia, and arthrogryposis (multiple joint contractures). 4. Myotonia is not present in the newborn, but develops later, almost always by 5 years of age. 5. In adulthood, typical myotonic features include myotonic facies (atrophy of masseter and temporalis muscles), ptosis, a stiff, straight smile, and an inability to release the grip after handshaking (myotonia). 6. Additional problems include mental retardation, cataracts, cardiac arrhythmias, and infertility.
question
Diagnosis of CMD:
answer
1) Examine child AND MOTHER for features of CMD 2) DNA testing to identify gene EMG no longer indicated
question
Management of CMD:
answer
Ventilation and Gastrostomy tube feedings
question
Hydrocephalus
answer
increased cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) under pressure within the ventricles of the brain. Hydrocephalus results from blockage of CSF flow, decreased CSF absorption, or, rarely, increased CSF production
question
Types of Hydrocephalus
answer
1. Noncommunicating hydrocephalus refers to enlarged ventricles caused by obstruction of CSF flow through the ventricular system (e.g., aqueductal stenosis). 2. Communicating hydrocephalus refers to enlarged ventricles as a result of increased production of CSF (e.g., tumors) or decreased absorption of CSF (e.g., bacterial meningitis). 3. Hydrocephalus ex vacuo is not true hydrocephalus, but rather a term used to describe ventricular enlargement caused by brain atrophy.
question
COngenital causes of Hydrocephalus include:
answer
1) Chiari Type II Malformation 2) Dandy Walker Malformation 3) Congenital Aqueductal Stenosis
question
Chiari Type II Malformation
answer
characterized by downward displacement of the cerebellum and medulla through the foramen magnum, blocking CSF flow. This malformation is often associated with a lumbosacral myelomeningocele.
question
Dandy Walker Malformation
answer
combination of an absent or hypoplastic cerebellar vermis and cystic enlargement of the fourth ventricle, which blocks the flow of CSF.
question
Congenital Aqueductal Stenosis
answer
(some cases of aqueductal stenosis are inherited as an X-linked trait and these patients may have thumb abnormalities and other CNS anomalies such as spina bifida)
question
Acquired causes of hydrocephalus include:
answer
IV hemorrhage Bacterial Meningitis Brain Tumors
question
Clinical features of Hydrocephalus
answer
1 ) Head circumference >97% 2) Large anterior and posterior fontanelles and split sutures 3) Sunset Sign
question
Sunset Sign
answer
a tonic downward deviation of both eyes caused by pressure from the enlarged third ventricles on the upward gaze center in the midbrain
question
Signs and symptoms of increased intracranial P
answer
a. Headache b. Nausea and vomiting c. Unilateral sixth nerve palsy d. Papilledema e. Brisk DTRs but with a usually downward plantar response.
question
Evaluation of Hydrocephalus
answer
Urgent Head CT scan
question
Management of HYdrocephalus
answer
surgical placement of aventriculoperitoneal shunt to divert the flow of CSF
question
Complications of ventriculoperitoneal shunts
answer
Shunt Infection & Shunt Obstruction
question
Prognosis of Hydrocephalus
answer
Patients with aqueductal stenosis have the best cognitive outcome. 2. Patients with Chiari type II malformation may have low-normal intelligence and language disorders. 3. Patients with X-linked hydrocephalus may have severe mental retardation.
question
Spina Bifida
answer
general term that refers to any failure of bone fusion in the posterior midline of the vertebral column.
question
Epidemiology of Spina Bifida
answer
Incidence of neural tube defects varies with geographic location. The highest incidence is in Ireland (1 in 250 live births), and thelowest is in Japan (1 in 3, 000 live births).
question
How is spina bifida prevented?
answer
Folic acid decreases the incidence but the exact mechanism is unknown
question
Management of Myelomingocele
answer
Myelomeningocele requires urgent surgical repair within 24 hours of birth to reduce the morbidity and mortality from infection and to prevent further trauma to the exposed neural tissue.
question
Prognosis of Myelomeningocele
answer
Ninety percent of patients survive to adolescence, but many are handicapped. Associated problems include wheelchair dependency, bladder or bowel incontinence, mental retardation, seizures, precocious puberty, pressure sores, and fractures.
question
Coma
answer
a state of unawareness of self and environment in which the patient lies with the eyes closed and is unarousable by external stimuli.
question
Etiology of coma in kids < 5 yoa
answer
nonaccidental trauma and near-drowning are the most common causes of coma.
question
Etiology of coma in older kids:
answer
drug overdose and accidental head injury are the most common causes of coma.
question
What do we use to measure and monitor the level of consciousness?
answer
Glasgow Coma Scale
question
CSF or blood draining from nose/ ear canal may indicate
answer
Basilar Skull Fracture
question
Abnormal motor responses to stimuli can indicate
answer
Location of Brain Damage
question
Decerebrate posturing (extension of arms and legs)indicates
answer
Subcortical Injury
question
Decorticate posturing (flexion of arms and extension of legs)suggests
answer
Bilateral cortical injury
question
Asymmetric responses suggest
answer
hemispheric injury.
question
Hypoventilation suggests
answer
opiate or sedative overdose.
question
Hyperventilation suggests:
answer
1) Metabolic Acidosis: Kussmaul respirations, rapid deep breathing 2) Neurogenic pumonary edema 3) Midbrain i njury
question
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
answer
alternating apneas and hyperpneas
question
Cheyne-Stokes breathing suggests
answer
bilateral cortical injury.
question
Apneustic breathing
answer
pausing at full inspiration
question
Apneustic breathing indicates
answer
Pontine Breathing
question
Ataxic or agonal breathing
answer
irregular respirations with no particular pattern
question
Ataxic or agonal breathing
answer
medullary injury and impending brain death.
question
Unilateral dilated nonreactive pupil suggests
answer
Uncal Herniation
question
Bilateral dilated nonreactive pupils suggest
answer
1) Topical application of a dilating agent 2) Postictal state 3) Irreversible brainstem injury
question
Bilateral constricted reactive pupils suggest
answer
opiate ingestion or pontine injury.
question
Oculocephalic maneuver (doll's eyes)
answer
When turning the head of an unconscious patient, the eyes normally look straight ahead and then slowly drift back to midline position because the intact vestibular apparatus senses a change in position. In an injured brainstem, movement of the head does not evoke any eye movement. This is termed a negative oculocephalic maneuver or negative doll's eyes.
question
Caloric Irrigation
answer
When the oculocephalic response is negative or cannot be performed because of possible cervical cord injury, caloric testing should be performed. This involves angling the head at 30° and irrigating each auditory canal with 10-30 mL of ice water. An intact (normal) cold caloric response is reflected by eye deviation to the irrigated side. An abnormal response suggests pontine injury.
question
Abnormal corneal and gag reflexes indicate
answer
signifcant brain stem i njury
question
Evauation of a Comatose Patient
answer
Glucose should be checked immediately in any comatose patient. 2. Urine toxicology screen, serum electrolytes, and metabolic panel should also be evaluated. 3. Head CT scan should be performed to identify mass lesions or trauma. 4. Lumbar puncture to rule out meningoencephalitis should be considered if the CT scan is negative. 5. Urgent electroencephalography (EEG) should be considered, even in patients without a history of clinical seizures.
question
Seizure
answer
transient, involuntary alteration of consciousness, behavior, motor activity, sensation, or autonomic function caused by an excessive discharge from a population of cerebral neurons.
question
Epilepsy
answer
occurrence of two or more spontaneous seizures without an obvious precipitating cause.
question
Status epilepticus
answer
seizure that lasts > 30 minutes during which the patient does not regain consciousness.
question
Epidemiology of Seizures
answer
Four to six percent of children have a single afebrile seizure before 16 years of age. Fewer than one third of children who have a single seizure go on to develop epilepsy, which has an incidence of 0.5-0.8% during childhood.
question
Etiology of seizures
answer
In 60-70% of cases, the cause is unknown. The seizure discharge is caused by an imbalance between excitatory and inhibitory input within the brain or abnormalities in the membrane properties of individual neurons.
question
Classification of Seizures
answer
1) Generalised Seizures: Tonic Clonic Seizures & Absence Seizures 2) PartialFocal Seizures
question
Tonic Clonic Seizures
answer
characterized by increased thoracic and abdominal muscle tone, followed by clonic movements of the arms and legs, eyes rolling upward, incontinence, decreased consciousness, and a postictal state of variable duration.
question
Absence Seizures
answer
brief staring spells that occur without loss of posture and with only minor motor manifestations (e.g., eye blinking or mouthing movements). The seizure lasts < 15 seconds, and there is no postictal state.
question
Partial Focal Seizures are caused by:
answer
discharge from a group of neurons in one hemisphere. Seizure symptoms may have predominately motor, sensory, or psychomotor features.
question
Types of partial (focal) Seizures :
answer
Simple Partial Seizures and Complex Partial Seizures
question
Simple partial seizures vs Complex partial seizures
answer
1. In simple partial seizures, consciousness is not impaired. 2. In complex partial seizures, consciousness is decreased.
question
Is an EEG required for epilepsy ?
answer
EEG identifies the focus and particular pattern of the epileptic discharge. However, an abnormal EEG is not required for the diagnosis of epilepsy (i.e., a normal EEG does not exclude the diagnosis of seizures or epilepsy). 2. Video-EEG monitoring is a useful tool when clinical information is inadequate or incomplete(e.g., when patients are < 3 years of age, when seizurelike events occur during sleep, or when parents are poor historians).
question
Differential Diagnoses of Seizure like Events
answer
Breath-holding spells (in infants) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (Sandifer syndrome) Syncope Migraine Vertigo Movement disorder (e.g., tics, chorea) Sleep disturbances (e.g., night terrors, somnambulism) Transient ischemic attack Rage attacks Psychogenic seizures
question
What imaging studies are helpful for epilepsy ?
answer
Neuroimaging studies should be performed in all children with epilepsy, except those with absence seizures or benign rolandic epilepsy
question
Benign Rolandic Epilepsy
answer
Benign Rolandic epilepsy or benign childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BCECTS) is the most common epilepsy syndrome in childhood. Most children will outgrow the syndrome (it starts around the age of 3-13 with a peak around 8-9 years and stops around age 14-18), hence the label benign.
question
Evaluation of a first time afebrile seizure patient
answer
A first-time afebrile seizure in an otherwise healthy child with a normal neurologic examination does not warrant further investigation.
question
Evaluation of a patient with previous afebrile seizures:
answer
Serum electrolytes and neuroimaging should be performed in a child who has had prior afebrile seizures.
question
Evaluation of a febrile patient
answer
1) Rule out CNS infection by examination of CSF 2) CBC 3) Chest Radiograph 4) Urine & Blood Clultures
question
Management of Status Epilepticus
answer
Treatment of status epilepticus requires intravenous anticonvulsants, such as a short-acting benzodiazepine (e.g., lorazepam or diazepam) followed by a loading dose of either phenobarbital or phenytoin.
question
Pharmacological approach to Epilepsy
answer
Once the type of seizure has been determined, single-drug therapy is started with the antiepileptic drug that has the best combination of high efficacy and low toxicity.
question
Recommended therapy for Generalised Epilepsy
answer
valproic acid or phenobarbital
question
Recommended therapy for absence epilepsy
answer
Ethosuximide
question
Recommended therapy for partial epilepsy
answer
carbamazepine or phenytoin
question
Recommended treatment for medically intractable epilepsy
answer
surgery to remove epileptic tissue may be an option. ***The best prognosis is for patients with temporal lobe lesions, 75% of whom have complete seizure control or remission after surgery.***
question
Alternative treatments for poorly controlled seizures in patients for whom surgery is not an option:
answer
1. Vagal nerve stimulator is a pacemaker-sized device that sends an electrical impulse to the vagus nerve. A common side effect is hoarseness. 2. Ketogenic diet (a high-fat, low-carbohydrate diet) is thought to suppress seizure activity by producing a state of ketosis.
question
Prognosis of Epilepsy:
answer
Epilepsy is not a lifelong disorder. About 70% of epileptic children can be weaned off their medications after a 2-year seizure-free period and normalization of the EEG.
question
Febrile Seizure
answer
any seizure that is accompanied by a fever owing to a non-CNS cause in patients from 6 months to 6 years of age.
question
Etiology of febrile seizures
answer
a. The pathophysiologic mechanism is unknown. b. Febrile seizures can be inherited, and several gene mutations have been found.
question
Simple febrile seizure vs. complex febrile seizure
answer
a. A simple febrile seizure lasts less than 15 minutes and is generalized. b. A complex febrile seizure lasts more than 15 minutes, has focal features, or recurs within 24 hours.
question
What MUST be included in the criteria to diagnose febrile seizure?
answer
Exclusion of any CNS infection
question
When should a lumbar puncture be performed in febrile seizure?
answer
A lumbar puncture is necessary only if meningitis is suspected.
question
Imaging studies for febrile seizures
answer
Neither neuroimaging nor EEG is needed unless the neurologic examination is abnormal.
question
Management of patient who has previous history of febrile seizure
answer
Aggressive antipyretic treatment of subsequent febrile illnesses may help prevent febrile seizures.
question
Management of patients with frequent, recurrent febrile seizures
answer
1. Daily anticonvulsant prophylaxis with valproic acid or phenobarbital 2. Abortive treatment with rectal diazepam
question
Recurrence risk for epilepsy decreases with :
answer
increasing age
question
Epileptic Syndromes
answer
epileptic conditions characterized by a specific age of onset, seizure characteristic, and EEG abnormality.
question
Classification of Epipleptic Syndromes:
answer
More than 15 epileptic syndromes are recognized. Each syndrome has its own seizure severity and outcome.
question
The most common types of epilepsy are:
answer
1) Infantile Spasms 2) Absence Epilepsy of Childhood 3) Benign Rolandic Epilepsy
question
Age of onset of epipletic syndrome
answer
Age of onset is typically 3-8 months. Infantile spasms are rare in children older than 2 years of age.
question
The most commonly identifed cause of inflantile spasms is:
answer
Tuberous Sclerosis
question
Inherited/Acquired causes of infantile spasms:
answer
1)Phenylketonuria 2) Hypoxic ischemic injury 3) Intraventricular Hemorrhage 4) Meningitis 5) Encephalits
question
Clinical features of infantile spasms:
answer
1. Brief, myoclonic jerks, lasting 1-2 seconds each, occurring in clusters of 5-10 seizures spread over 3-5 minutes. 2. The jerks consist of sudden arm extension or head and trunk flexion (also known as jackknife seizures or salaam seizures).
question
Diagnosis of infantile spasm
answer
The EEG shows the characteristic hypsarrhythmia pattern, a highly disorganized pattern of high amplitude spike and waves occurring in both cerebral hemispheres.
question
Management of infantile spasm
answer
1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) intramuscular injections for a 4- to 6- week period are effective in more than 70% of affected patients. 2. Valproic acid is the second-line drug of choice. 3. Vigabatrin is the most effective drug for patients with infantile spasms associated with tuberous sclerosis.
question
Prognosis of Infantile Spasms:
answer
Outlook is poor. Despite the success of these different medications in suppressing seizures, children often develop moderate to severe mental retardation.
question
Epidemiology of Absence Epilepsy of Childhood
answer
Age of onset is between 5 and 9 years of age. There is a female-tomale predominance of 3:2.
question
Etiology for absence seizures
answer
Inheritance is autosomal dominant with age-dependent penetrance.
question
Clinical Features of absence seizures
answer
1. Absence seizures last 5-10 seconds. 2. They occur frequently—tens to hundreds of times per day. 3. They are often accompanied by automatisms, such as eye blinking and incomprehensible utterances. 4. Loss of posture, urinary incontinence, and a postictal state do not occur. COMORBIDITY: ADHD &/or Anxiety PMHx of Febrile Seizures is possible
question
Diagnosis of absence Seizures
answer
The EEG shows the characteristic generalized 3-Hz spike and wave discharge arising from both hemispheres.
question
Management of Absence Seizures
answer
Treatment includes ethosuximide (first-line drug) or valproic acid.
question
Benign Rolandic Epilepsy is also called
answer
Benign Centrotemporal Epilepsy
question
Benign rolandic epilepsy involves:
answer
nocturnal partial seizures with secondary generalization.
question
Epidemiology of Benign Rolandic Seizures
answer
1. Benign rolandic epilepsy is the most common partial epilepsy during childhood, accounting for 15% of epilepsy. 2. It commonly presents at 3-13 years of age. Peak incidence is at 6-7 years. Boys are more likely to be affected.
question
Etiology of benign rolandic seizures
answer
Inheritance is autosomal dominant with variable penetrance.
question
Clinical features of benign rolandic seizures:
answer
1. Seizures occur in the early morning hours when patients are asleep with oralbuccal manifestations (i.e., moaning, grunting, pooling of saliva). 2. Seizures spread to face and arm, then generalize into tonic-clonic seizures.
question
Diagnosis of Benign rolandic Seizures
answer
The EEG shows biphasic spike and sharp wave disturbance in the midtemporal and central regions.
question
Treatment of benign rolandic seizures
answer
Treatment includes valproic acid (first-line drug) or carbamazepine. Prognosis is excellent
question
Ataxia
answer
inability to coordinate muscle activity during voluntary movement. It can involve the trunk or limbs and is caused by cerebellar or proprioceptive dysfunction.
question
Causes of unsteady gait:
answer
1) Cerebellar dysfunction 2) Weakness: ex. Guillan Barre 3)Encephalopathy as a result of infection, drug overdose or recent head trauma 4) Seizures 5) Vision problems can mimic the appearance of an unsteady gait 6) Vertigo from migraines, acute labrynthitis and brain stem tumors
question
Brain tumors that cause cerebellar ataxia
answer
1) Cerebellar astrocytoma 2) Medulloblastoma/ Cerebella primitive neuroectodermal tumor 3) Neuroblastoma
question
Traumatic causes of cerebellar ataxia
answer
Cerebellar contusion & Subdural Hematoma
question
Toxins that cause cerebellar ataxia
answer
Ethanol & anticonculsants
question
Vascular causes of cerebellar ataxia
answer
Cerebellar infarction or hemorrhage
question
Infectious causes of cerebellar ataxia
answer
Meningitis & Encephalitis
question
Inflammatory causes of cerebellar ataxia
answer
Acute cerebellar ataxia of childhood
question
Demyelinating causes of Cerebellar Ataxia
answer
Acute disseminated wncephalomyelitis 7 multiple sclerosis
question
acute Cerebellar Ataxia of childhood
answer
gait secondary to a presumed autoimmune or postinfectious cause.
question
Age of onset of acute cerebellar ataxia
answer
between 18 months and 7 years. Acute cerebellar ataxia rarely occurs in children older than 10 years of age.
question
Epidemiology Acute cerebellar ataxia
answer
MCC of ataxia in children
question
Infections which may cause acute cerebellar ataxia include:
answer
1) Varicella 2) Influenza 3) EBV 4) Mycoplasma ** Ataxia follows a viral illness by 2-3 weeks
question
Clinical features of acute cerebellar ataxia
answer
a. Truncal ataxia with deterioration of gait is characteristic. Young children may refuse to walk for fear of falling. b. Slurred speech and nystagmus are often present, although hypotonia and tremors are less common. c. Fever is absent.
question
Diagnosis of acute cerebellar ataxia
answer
An urgent neuroimaging study is necessary in all patients suspected of cerebellar ataxia to rule out acute life-threatening causes, such as tumors or hemorrhage in the posterior fossa. *******Head CT scan is normal in this disorder******
question
Management of acute cerebellar ataxia
answer
Treatment is supportive. Complete resolution of symptoms may take as long as 2-3 months. Physical therapy may be useful.
question
Guillain Barre syndrome is also called
answer
acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
question
Guillan Barre Syndrome
answer
demyelinating polyneuritis characterized by ascending weakness, areflexia, and normal sensation
question
Etiology of Guillan Barre
answer
Campylobacter jejuni, which causes a prodromal gastroenteritis. Many other infectious agents have been associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, such as cytomegalovirus, EBV, herpes zoster virus, influenza, varicella, and coxsackievirus
question
Pathophysiology of Guillin Barre Syndrome
answer
a. The principal sites of demyelination are the ventral spinal roots and peripheral myelinated nerves. b. Injury is triggered by a cell-mediated immune response to an infectious agent that cross-reacts to antigens on the Schwann cell membrane.
question
Clinical features of Guillain Barre
answer
a. Ascending, symmetric paralysis may progress to respiratory arrest. b. No sensory loss occurs, although low back or leg pain may be present in 50% of patients. c. Cranial nerve involvement. Facial weakness occurs in 40-50% of patients.
question
Miller Fisher Syndrome
answer
variant of Guillain-Barré syndrome, characterized by ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, and areflexia.
question
Diagnosis of Guillain BArre
answer
a. Lumbar puncture shows albuminocytologic dissociation (i.e., increased CSF protein in the absence of an elevated cell count), which is usually evident 1 week after symptom onset. b. EMG demonstrates decreased nerve conduction velocity or conduction block. c. Spinal MRI may be necessary in children younger than 3 years of age to rule out compressive lesions of the spinal cord because the sensory examination in children of this age is often difficult to evaluate.
question
Management of Guillain Barre
answer
Treatment should be initiated as soon as the diagnosis is established because of the risk of respiratory muscle paralysis. a. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG), given for 2-4 days, is the preferred treatment for children because of its relative safety and ease of use. The mechanism of action of IVIG is unknown. b. Plasmapheresis removes the patient's plasma along with the presumed anti-myelin antibodies and is performed over a 4- to 5-day period.
question
Sydenham chorea is also called
answer
St. Vitus' dance
question
Sydenham chorea
answer
self-limited autoimmune disorder associated with rheumatic fever presents with chorea (uncontrolled, restless proximal limb movements) and emotional lability.
question
Epidemiology of Sydenham chorea
answer
a. Sydenham chorea occurs in approximately 25% of patients with rheumatic fever. b. Onset is most common between 5 and 13 years of age.
question
Pathophysiology of Sydenham chorea
answer
occurs secondary to antibodies that cross-react with membrane antigens on both group A β-hemolytic streptococcus and basal ganglia cells.
question
Clinical features of Sydenham chorea
answer
a. Immunologic response usually follows the streptococcal pharyngitis by 2-7 months. b. Children appear restless. The face, hands, and arms are mainly affected, and the movements appear continuous, quick, and random. The chorea may begin as clumsiness of the hands. c. Speech is also affected and can be jerky or indistinct. d. Patients are unable to sustain protrusion of the tongue (chameleon tongue). e. The wrist is held flexed and hyperextended at the metacarpal joints (choreic hand). On gripping the examiner's fingers, patients are unable to maintain the grip (milkmaid's grip). f. Emotional lability is common. g. Gait and cognition are not affected.
question
DDX Chores
answer
1) Encephalitis 2) Kernicterus 3) SLE 4) Huntington's 5) Wilson's
question
Diagnosis of Sydenham chorea
answer
There is no single confirmatory test for Sydenham chorea. The diagnosis rests on presumptive evidence of rheumatic fever and the exclusion of other likely causes of chorea. a. Elevated antistreptolysin O (ASO) or anti-DNase B (ADB) titer may indicate a recent streptococcal infection.
question
What imaging should be done for evaluation of syndenham chorea
answer
1. Head MRI may show increased signal intensity in the caudate and putamen on T2-weighted sequences. 2. Single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may demonstrate increased perfusion to the thalamus and striatum.
question
Management of Syndenham chorea
answer
haloperidol, valproic acid, or phenobarbital.
question
Prognosis of Syndenham chorea
answer
Symptoms may last from several months to 2 years. Generally, all patients recover.
question
Tourette Syndrome
answer
chronic, lifelong movement disorder that presents with motor and phonic tics before 18 years of age.
question
Tics
answer
Tics are brief, stereotypical behaviors that are initiated by an unconscious urge that can be temporarily suppressed
question
How long must tics be present for a diagnosis of Tourette Syndrome ?
answer
Tics must be present ≥ 1 year, although their severity and frequency waxes and wanes.
question
Comorbidities of Tourette Syndrome
answer
learning disabilities, attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, and obsessive-compulsive traits.
question
Disorders that may cause tics include
answer
1) Wilsons 2) Syndenham chorea 3) Partial Seizures 4) Pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infection ( PANDAS)
question
Compare habits and tics
answer
Habits differ from tics in that habits are situation-dependent and are under voluntary control.
question
Management of Tourette Syndrome
answer
a. Pimozide is the drug of choice because it is effective with minimal extrapyramidal side effects. b. Clonidine is less effective than pimozide. The major side effect is sedation. c. Haloperidol was the first drug used to treat Tourette syndrome, but the risk of tardive dyskinesia has limited its use. d. Hypnotherapy has been effective in some patients.
question
Muscular Dystrophy
answer
progressive, X-linked myopathies characterized by myofiber degeneration. DMD is more severe than BMD.
question
The muscular dystrophies include:
answer
Duchenne and Becker Muscular Dystrophies (DMD, BMD)
question
Onset of symptoms for DMD and BMD
answer
2-5 yoa
question
Etiology of muscular dystrophies
answer
deletion in the dystrophin gene.
question
Pathophysiology of DMD and BMD
answer
1. Dystrophin is a high molecular weight cytoskeletal protein that associates with actin and other structural membrane elements to alpha and beta dystroglycan in skeletal and cardiac muscle fibers. 2. The absence ( secondary to truncation ) of dystrophin causes weakness and eventually rupture of the plasma membrane, leading to injury and degeneration of muscle fibers. * DMD is the longest coding region of any human gene thereby increasing the chance of spontaneous mutation
question
Pathology of DMD and BMD
answer
Both DMD and BMD have the same appearance on light microscopy. 1. Degeneration and regeneration of muscle fibers 2. Infiltration of lymphocytes into the injured area and replacement of damaged muscle fibers with fibroblasts and lipid deposits 3. Loss of dystrophin results in myonecrosis
question
Clinical features of DMD and BMD
answer
1. Slow, progressive weakness affecting the legs and pelvicgirdle first, progrssing superiorly 2. In DMD, children lose the ability to walk by 10 years of age. In BMD, patients lose the ability to walk by 20 or more years of age. 3. Pseudohypertrophy of calves is present because of the excess accumulation of lipids, which replace the degenerating muscle fibers. This is more common in DMD than in BMD. 4. Gowers' sign is present. Because of the weakness of pelvic muscles, patients arise from the floor in a characteristic manner by extending each leg and then "climbing up" each thigh until they reach an upright position. 5. Cardiac involvement (e.g., cardiomegaly, tachycardia, or cardiac failure) occurs in 50% of patients. 6. Mild cognitive impairment occurs in DMD, but normal intelligence is present in BMD.
question
Diagnosis of DMD & BMD
answer
1. The presence of enlarged calf muscles in a young boy with muscle weakness suggests the diagnosis. 2. CK levels are very high. 3. EMG shows small, polyphasic muscle potentials with normal nerve conductions. 4. Muscle biopsy shows the typical dystrophic pattern. 5. Absent or decreased dystrophin levels are present on immunocytochemistry or Western blot assay of muscle. 6. DNA testing may reveal the gene deletion in > 90% of patients.
question
management of DMD & BMD
answer
There is no cure but oral steroids can improve strength transiently when the disease is in the early stages. Gene replacement, myoblast transplantation, and dystrophin replacement have not been successful in clinical trials.
question
Prognosis of DMN & BMD
answer
1. In DMD, patients are wheelchair dependent by 10 years of age and often die in their late teens from respiratory failure. Assisted ventilation may help individuals live longer. 2. In BMD, patients become wheelchair dependent in their twenties. Life expectancy is in the fifties.
question
Genetic difference of DMD & BMD
answer
DMD is an X linked frame shift mutation (deletion) vs Becker's caused by an X linked point mutation
question
Myasthenia gravis
answer
autoimmune disorder that presents with progressive weakness or diplopia.
question
Etiology of MG
answer
caused by antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor (AChR) at neuromuscular junctions
question
Neonatal Myasthenia
answer
transient weakness in the newborn period secondary to transplacental transfer of maternal AChR antibodies from a mother affected with myasthenia gravis.
question
Juvenile myasthenia gravis
answer
presents in childhood secondary to AChR antibody formation.
question
Who is usually affected by juvenile MG
answer
affects girls two to six times more frequently than boys.
question
Clinical features of MG
answer
1. In neonatal myasthenia, hypotonia, weakness, and feeding problems are the most common findings. 2. In juvenile MG, several findings are characteristic. a. Bilateral ptosis is the most common presenting sign. b. Characteristic increasing weakness occurs later in the day and with repetitive or sustained muscle activity. c. Diplopia secondary to decreased extraocular movements may be the only manifestation. d. DTRs are preserved. e. Other autoimmune disorders, including juvenile rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes mellitus, and thyroid disease, may coexist.
question
Diagnosis of MG
answer
Tensilon test. Intravenous injection of edrophonium chloride, a rapidly acting cholinesterase inhibitor, produces transient improvement of ptosis. 2. Decremental response to low-frequency (3-10 Hz) repetitive nerve stimulation 3. Presence of AChR antibody titers
question
Management of neonatal myasthenia
answer
treatment is often symptomatic, because the disorder is self-limited. If respiration is compromised, cholinesterase inhibitors or IVIG may be indicated.
question
Management of Juvenile MG
answer
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors are the mainstay of treatment.Pyridostigmine bromide is the drug of choice. b. Immunotherapy 1. Corticosteroids are used when cholinesterase inhibitors fail. 2. Plasmapheresis lowers the level of AChR antibodies. It is useful when symptoms worsen, when respiratory effort is compromised, or when the patient is unresponsive to other therapies. 3. IVIG also may be effective. c. Thymectomy is often performed.
question
Prognosis of neonatal MG
answer
symptoms are mild and generally resolve within 1-3 weeks.
question
Prognosis of Juvenile MG
answer
remission of symptoms can be as high as 60% after thymectomy.
Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New