Health Midterm – Flashcards

Which of the following is currently America's number-one cause of death? cancer heart disease unintentional injuries suicide

The process of enabling people to increase control over their health and improve their health is disease prevention. environmental wellness. interpersonal wellness. health promotion.

The behavior one identifies for change is called bad news. enabling behavior. target behavior. predisposed behavior.

The seven dimensions of wellness include all of the following EXCEPT emotional wellness. environmental wellness. spiritual wellness. dietary wellness.

The average life span in the twentieth century did not change significantly. increased slightly. nearly doubled. nearly tripled.

In the past 100 years, the major causes of death have shifted from ______ to ______. infectious diseases; chronic diseases accidents; AIDS childbirth; infectious diseases heart disease; cancer

If you were born in 1900, your life expectancy was approximately 32 years. 47 years. 62 years. 77 years.

What are the top 3 causes of death in order from 1 to 3: cancer, stroke, lower respiratory diseases stroke, heart disease, cancer heart disease, cancer, lower respiratory diseases heart disease, diabetes, kidney disease

Optimism, trust, and self-confidence are components of physical wellness. emotional wellness. spiritual wellness. interpersonal wellness.

The complete set of genetic material in an individual's cells is referred to as his or her gene. genome. proteome. RNA.

The health determinant over which we have least control is diet. exercise. tobacco use. family history.

Income and education are closely linked with health status. The ______ the poverty rate and the ______ the education level, the better the health. lower; higher lower; lower higher; higher higher; lower

Which of the following are factors that influence wellness? access to health care environment behavior all of these

Those with an internal locus of control believe that events turn out as they do based on fate. heredity. their actions. luck.

The belief in one's ability to be successful in the performance of a given task is termed self-esteem. self-concept. self-efficacy. self-fulfilling prophecy.

Situations that trigger physical and emotional reactions are termed stress responses. stressors. unmanaged stress. distress.

The way in which an individual responds to stress is influenced by personality. past experiences. biological predispositions. All of these influence the way an individual responds to stress.

All of the following occur in non-REM sleep, EXCEPT the release of growth hormone. a drop in heart rate. slower and more even brain waves. the occurrence of dreams.

The autonomic nervous system controls all the following EXCEPT the ability to digest food. speed of your heart rate. ability to write. ability to alter your blood pressure.

Which one of the following is a stressor? bad grade sweaty palms rapid pulse high fever

The branch of the autonomic nervous system that activates when a person is exposed to a stressor is the _______________ nervous system. central somatic parasympathetic sympathetic

General exhaustion results when the fight-or-flight reaction is resolved. stress-related hormones are secreted. distress occurs. a stressor persists over a long period of time.

A common time-management stressor is procrastination. list writing. goal setting. overconfidence.

All of these are considered counterproductive coping strategies EXCEPT tobacco use. drug abuse. exercise. alcohol use.

All of the following are recommended by your text as time-management strategies, EXCEPT setting priorities. breaking down long-term goals into short-term ones. procrastinating. keeping track of tasks you put off.

Which one of the following has been linked to a high allostatic load? obesity hypertension reduced immune function All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of a high allostatic load? It is linked with physical wellness. It is linked with hypertension. It is linked with obesity. It is linked with heart disease.

An individual with a Type C personality is characterized by having a greater tolerance of others. being contemplative. having difficulty expressing emotions. being controlling.

The personality type associated with relaxation and contemplation is Type A. Type B. Type C. Type D.

About 90 percent of all headaches are tension headaches. migraines. cluster headaches. sinus headaches.

Which one of the following qualities contributes most to one's physical wellness? eating well and exercising maintaining an optimistic attitude being open to new ideas maintaining satisfying relationships

The seven dimensions of wellness affect health independently of each other. are interrelated. seldom influence one another. demonstrate the separateness of mind and body.

Spiritual wellness is best described as having a strong support network of family and friends. meaning and purpose in one's life. the ability to express oneself creatively. the ability to share one's feelings.

Which of the following body reactions is characteristic of the stress response? Your heart rate decreases. Your heart rate increases. Your digestion speeds up. Your respiration rate decreases.

Long-term overexposure to stress hormones has been linked to health problems. raises resistance to disease. disables eustress. enables eustress.

A person who suppresses anger and feels hopeless has characteristics of which personality type? Type A Type B Type C Type D

Which of the following systems are responsible for your body's physical response to stressors? cardiovascular and respiratory nervous and endocrine digestive and lymph muscular and skeletal

According to your text, which of the following are common sources of stress for most college students? academic demands and time management concerns children and pets laundry and dishes involvement in political causes

Which of the following would be the LEAST effective strategy for coping with stress? denying the reality of the stress exercising improving time-management skills maintaining a strong social support system

The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for mobilizing energy sources for use in a crisis. activates the endocrine system. is in control when one is frightened or angry. aids in digestion and promoting growth.

The long-term wear and tear of the stress response has been termed eustress. distress. homeostasis. the allostatic load.

The order in which a behavior change strategy is implemented is analyze data, monitor behavior, devise a plan of action, set goals, make a contract. monitor behavior, analyze data, set goals, devise a plan of action, make a contract. devise a plan of action, set goals, monitor behavior, analyze data, make a contract. make a contract, set goals, devise a plan of action, monitor behavior, analyze data.

Which of the following stress management techniques emphasizes the use of breathing, stretching, and balance? high impact aerobics hatha yoga visualization strength training

A key neurotransmitter that is important in the treatment of depression is called serotonin. acetylcholine. dopamine. leutein.

Attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: drowsiness aggression academic problems inability to focus

A person who expects failure and accepts it as deserved is called a(n) optimist. realist. masochist. pessimist.

A delusion is similar to an auditory hallucination. a form of disorganized thought. a firmly held false belief. an unwanted thought.

Which of the following is NOT a likely characteristic of a schizophrenic disorder? auditory hallucinations compulsive organization delusions deteriorating social functioning

Seasonal affective disorder is more prevalent during the summer months. is more prevalent among people living at higher latitudes. has no effective treatment. is more prevalent during seasons with more sunlight.

Which mental health professional is involved when a person requires medication? psychiatrist clinical psychologist licensed counselor Social worker

Expressing wishes forcefully, but not necessarily hostilely, describes being aggressive. assertive. passive. overbearing.

Symptoms of panic disorder typically include laughter. a loss of physical equilibrium. lethargy. a depressed heart rate.

Which of the following is a risk factor that increases the likelihood of suicide? multiple minor health problems suicide of a family member or friend increased social interactions obsession with social causes

Panic disorder is a form of depression. a mood swing a characteristic of bipolar disorder. a type of anxiety disorder.

An example of a compulsion is the impulse to hurt a family member. anxiety about contracting HIV from a sneeze. uncontrollable worry about an accident. constant and repetitive hand washing.

Religious belief undermines problem solving. is a substitute for a positive self-concept. promotes psychological health for some individuals. has little bearing on mental health.

Which of the following is a social phobia? fear of animals fear of high places fear of seeing blood fear of embarrassment

People usually develop panic disorder in their early twenties. teenage years. late adulthood. early childhood.

Psychological health is another term for authenticity. positive psychology. psychological normality. mental health.

College students can typically find inexpensive mental health care through on-campus counseling centers. campus health services. support groups. all of the above.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? Psychological health is independent of physical health. Psychological health is a myth. Psychological health is freedom from disorders. Psychological health and physical health are intertwined.

Which of the following is a characteristic of depression? loss of pleasure in doing usual activities autonomy obsession with exercise increased social interaction

An obsession is a ______ thought. rational, unwanted cultivated, irrational cultivated, rational recurrent, unwanted

Though ______ attempt suicide more often, ______ succeed more often. blacks; whites adults; teenagers women; men Latinos; Asians

Repetitive, hard-to-resist actions associated with obsessions are delusions. phobias. hallucinations. compulsions.

Psychological disorders may be a result of all of the following EXCEPT genetic differences. exposure to traumatic events. good coping skills. life events.

An example of a specific phobia is fear of dogs. public speaking. interaction. embarrassment.

Which of the following plays a major part in psychological disorders? genetics culture biology all of the above

Which of the following professionals requires the most formal education? psychologist psychiatrist social worker counselor

Which of the following mental health professionals is a licensed physician? clinical psychologist psychiatrist social worker counselor

A person who is housebound because of severe anxiety has social phobia. agoraphobia. GAD. OCD.

A drug commonly used to prevent mood swings associated with bipolar disorder is thorazine. Haldol. amphetamines. lithium carbonate.

Schizophrenic disorders are characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT disorganized thoughts. inappropriate emotions. increased physical strength auditory hallucinations.

Which of the following statements about fear is false? It is a basic and useful emotion. It is considered to be a problem if it is out of proportion to real danger. It is another word for anxiety. It is a useful daily tool to cope with life.

Which of the following attributes best characterizes manic behavior? classical depression decreased sexual activity extraordinary appetite perpetual energy

Manic disorders are characterized by high energy levels. the individual's limited vision of his or her potential. slow, slurred speech. very focused thinking.

Which of the following statements is TRUE of schizophrenia? Medication is not effective in treating it. Schizophrenics can be logical in their thinking. Schizophrenia is another name for "split personality". An individual can manage schizophrenia without professional help.

Post-traumatic stress disorder is most likely to occur after which of the following? rape nightmares failure in school prolonged compulsive behavior

Biological researchers have found genetic influences on seasonal affective disorder. simple phobia. depression. post-traumatic stress syndrome.

An example of an obsession is constant hand washing. repeating someone's name five times every time you see her. concern of contracting syphilis from a handshake. repeatedly checking to see if the stove is turned off.

Symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder include re-experiencing the trauma in dreams and intrusive memories. include seeking out anything associated with the trauma. will often decrease in intensity, but will never go away. usually do not include symptoms of depression.

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for suicide? a history of previous attempts readily available means addiction to alcohol or drugs a high anxiety level

A condition that causes the sufferer to fear future threats, pushing out all other thoughts, is called obsessive-compulsive disorder. generalized anxiety disorder. panic disorder. simple phobia.

Which of the following are female sex hormones? estrogens and progestins androgens and progestins testosterone and progestins androgens and testosterone

The Apgar score that indicates a newborn baby is doing well 5 minutes after birth is 4-6. 7-10. 12-14. 16-19.

The earliest point in pregnancy in which a fetus might survive outside of the uterus is the end of the third trimester. end of the second trimester. beginning of the second trimester. middle of the third trimester.

The sperm-storing structure on the surface of the testicles is the glans. epididymis. seminal vesicle. Cowper's gland.

Each of the following is a cause of male infertility EXCEPT Hypothalamic pituitary disease irregular ejaculation testicular disease disorders of sperm transport

Hormones are produced by the testes. the ovaries. the adrenal glands. all of these.

The glans is the rounded head of the clitoris or the penis. the scrotum sac. the spongy component of the penis. another word for the prepuce.

The temperature of the testes is approximately ______ than the temperature of the rest of the body. 5°F cooler 5°F warmer 10°F cooler 10°F warmer

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of dysmenorrhea? lengthy menstruation infrequent menstruation painful menstruation interrupted menstruation

A(n) ______ pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg is implanted outside the uterus. ectopic aborted gestation peritoneal

The refractory period is the first phase of the sexual response cycle. fusion of the plateau and orgasmic phases. period between female orgasms. period during which the male cannot be restimulated to orgasm.

The fertilized egg is implanted in the ______, where it grows into a fetus. uterus vagina ovary cervix

The cessation of menstruation around age 50 is called menopause. menarche. senescence. midlife crisis.

Which one of the following is the most customary recommendation regarding exercise during pregnancy? Start a rigorous exercise program. Continue a moderate exercise program. Stop exercising. Increase the intensity of exercise.

Circumcision is the surgical removal of the testes. foreskin of the penis. penis. scrotum.

Suction curettage is the most common method of abortion during the first trimester. the second trimester. the third trimester. all trimesters.

For how long is Implanon effective? one month three months one year three years

The most common type of oral contraceptive is the minipill. combination pill. sequential pill. postcoital pill.

A contraceptive that physically blocks the sperm from reaching the egg is a barrier method. a hormonal method. rarely effective. irreversible.

Which currently available IUD is effective for up to ten years? Copper T-380A Lippes Loop Levonorgestral Progestasert

Which of the following is NOT considered a "natural" form of contraception? fertility awareness withdrawal abstinence tubal sterilization

The temperature method of birth control is based on the knowledge that a woman's body temperature rises slightly just before ovulation. decreases slightly just before ovulation. rises slightly just before menstruation. decreases slightly just before menstruation.

The benefit of lower doses of estrogen in oral contraceptives is higher effectiveness. a higher sperm "kill" rate. fewer health risks. a lower likelihood of contracting STDs.

Oral contraceptives prevent conception by reducing the number of sperm that penetrate the cervix. blocking sperm from reaching the ovum. changing the acidity of the vaginal canal. preventing ovulation by mimicking the hormonal activity of the corpus luteum.

The most important advantage of oral contraceptives is the high degree of effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. high continuation rate. low cost. regularity of periods.

The life span of an unfertilized egg is about ______ hours. 12 24 48 72

Douching is not recommended for women because it is too messy. can irritate vaginal tissue. is too expensive. can lead to infertility.

The Ortho Evra contraceptive skin patch is worn for ______ before being replaced. 3 days 1 week 2 weeks 1 month

How exactly does the IUD prevent pregnancy? It stops ovulation. It creates a sperm barrier. It causes a spontaneous abortion. It is not known with certainty exactly how IUDs prevent pregnancy.

Which of the following is probably the most serious disadvantage of oral contraceptives for most women? They provide no protection against STDs. They cause symptoms of early pregnancy. They cause vaginal bleeding (spotting) between periods. They can cause vaginal discharge.

Male sex hormones are androgens. estrogens. progestins. endorphins.

Fraternal twins share the same genetic code. are no more alike than other siblings. result from one egg fertilized by a single sperm. are always of the same sex.

Which of the following strategies is not recommended to relieve PMS symptoms? limiting salt intake eating a diet higher in fat using relaxation techniques exercising

Rhythmical contractions of the male and female reproductive structures occur during the excitement phase. plateau phase. orgasmic phase. resolution phase.

Human chorionic gonadotropin is a hormone secreted by the implanted fertilized egg. that stimulates ovulation. that allows conception to occur. necessary for the success of in vitro fertilization.

To reduce the risk for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), parents should put babies to sleep on fluffy bedding. put babies to sleep on their backs. keep the baby's room warmer than the rest of the house. space children at least two years apart.

Hegar's sign is the purple coloration of the cervix. the softening of the uterus near the cervix. a home pregnancy test. the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin.

The menstrual cycle consists of four phases in the following order: estrogenic phase, menses, ovulation, progestational phase menses, estrogenic phase, ovulation, progestational phase progestational phase, ovulation, estrogenic phase, menses menses, ovulation, estrogenic phase, progestational phase

At what age is testicular cancer most frequently diagnosed? age 20 to 39 age 40 to 59 age 60 to 69 age 80 and older

Unusual facial features, a small head, and heart defects are characteristic of babies born to mothers who used heroin during pregnancy. used cocaine during pregnancy. were exposed to toxic chemicals during pregnancy. used alcohol during pregnancy.

The fetus is extremely vulnerable to environmental factors that can cause birth defects during the second trimester. third trimester. first trimester. none of the above

A spontaneous abortion is more commonly known as false labor. an ectopic pregnancy. a voluntary interruption of pregnancy. a miscarriage.

Areas of the body that are sensitive to touch are called erogenous zones. stimulators. estrogenic sites. orgasmic plateaus.

Ortho Evra is the brand name of which type of contraception? contraceptive skin patch minipill vaginal contraceptive sponge contraceptive implant

Oral contraception is NOT recommended for women with a low resting heart rate. an intense exercise regimen. a history of asthma. a history of blood clots.

Most condoms sold in the U.S. are made of lambskin. latex. polyurethane. polyisoprene.

Vaginal spermicides start drastically losing effectiveness ______ hour(s) after insertion into the vagina. one two three four

Which of the following is a post-abortion danger sign? abdominal tenderness nausea indigestion headaches

After insertion, the vaginal contraceptive ring is left in the vagina for ______ before removal. six hours one day one week three weeks

______ refers to the spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus with no causal intervention. Abortion Miscarriage Evacuation Aspiration

A small flexible cup that fits over the cervix and serves as a barrier to sperm is the NORPLANT. IUD. female condom. Cervical Cap.

Withdrawal has a relatively low effectiveness as a contraceptive method owing to epididymis. glans. prostate gland. preejaculatory fluid.

For emergency contraception to be most effective, the first dose must be taken within ______ hours of unprotected intercourse. 12 48 72 120

The belief that the decision to end or continue a pregnancy is a personal matter reflects which view? pro-life pro-choice pro-abortion pro-intervention

Ultrasonography is NOT useful in determining ______ of a fetus. genetic disorders the sex gestational age the position

Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes male? YY XY XX None of these choices is correct.

Pregnant women typically need to consume how many extra calories a day? 100-200 250-500 500-700 1000+

Male circumcision involves removal of the glans. the prepuce. the scrotum. erectile tissue.

Gonads are vaginal lesions. hormones. penises and vaginas. ovaries and testes.

Oral stimulation of the penis is called cunnilingus. masturbation. fellatio. orgasm.

The basic units of heredity that direct the structure and function of all body cells are chromosomes. trophoblasts. gametes. genes.

The Rh factor is a(n) hormone test. vitamin. Blood protein. environmental agent.

In females, the prepuce is also called the labia majora. glans. clitoral hood. uterus.

______ is the procedure in which the man's sperm is collected and concentrated and introduced by syringe into a woman's vagina or uterus. Gamete intrafallopian transfer Artificial (intrauterine) insemination Zygote intrafallopian transfer In vitro fertilization

Ovulation theoretically occurs at the beginning of the menstrual cycle. in the estrogenic phase of the menstrual cycle. at the end of the menstrual cycle. 14 days prior to the onset of menses.

An ovum or a sperm has ______ chromosomes. 22 23 44 46

The fallopian tubes link the uterus and urethra. uterus and bladder. ovaries and uterus. cervix and uterus.

Which of the following methods is considered a "contraceptive implant"? Depo-Provera Lunelle Implanon Seasonale

A contraceptive method that more or less permanently prevents transport of the sperm or egg to the site of conception is a surgical method. hormonal method. barrier method. natural method.

Which of the following is often characteristic of cervical secretions during ovulation? thick mucus cloudy, sticky mucus clear, slippery mucus with elastic threads relatively dry

Those who hold the pro-life position believe that the fertilized egg is not a human being until a certain stage of fetal development. should have the same rights as any human from the point of conception. is a human once a pregnancy test confirms the pregnancy. can be destroyed under certain circumstances.

Which of the following actions will reduce risks associated with the use of oral contraceptives? using a high-dosage pill having annual mammograms checking weight daily stopping smoking

The Supreme Court case that legalized abortion was Roe v. Wade. Knight v. U.S. Hart v. James. Webster v. Reproductive Health.

Spontaneous abortions are most commonly caused by chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. poor nutritional status of pregnant women. the use of cigarettes by pregnant women. the use of alcohol by pregnant women.

What are considered the basic units of reproduction in both males and females? germ cells gonads sex hormones chromosomes

The prostate gland has no known function in male reproduction. produces part of the seminal fluid. secretes a pre-ejaculatory fluid to neutralize the sperm passageway. is the site of sperm production.

The process that results in fertilization of an ovum in a laboratory dish is called artificial (intrauterine) insemination. in vitro fertilization. laparoscopic fertilization. surrogate pregnancy.

One of the leading causes of female infertility is age. thyroid disease. blocked fallopian tubes. endometriosis.

Pelvic inflammatory disease is most often the result of age. urinary tract infections. scarring from sexually transmitted diseases. scarring from abdominal surgery.

The hormone found only in pregnant women that, when detected, confirms pregnancy is estrogen. LHRH. prostaglandin. human chorionic gonadotropin.

Which of the following chromosomal configurations denotes female? YY YX XY XX

The most obvious and effective physical stimulation involves touching. seeing. hearing. smelling.

Pregnant women who smoke increase the risk of FAS. neural tube defects. miscarriage increased epinephrine levels.

Abortion was made legal by the U.S. Supreme Court in 1955. 1965. 1973. 1980.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of condoms? They are relatively inexpensive. The are available without a prescription. They are as effective as oral contraceptives at preventing unwanted pregnancy. The help prevent the transmission of HIV.

Most clinicians currently consider a fetus viable at ______ weeks of gestation. 48 36 24 16

The NuvaRing offers pregnancy protection for how long? one week one month six months one year

Surgical severing of the ducts that carry sperm to the seminal vesicles is called tubal ligation. tubal severing. vasectomy. circumcision.

Surgically placing eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes prior to fertilization is known as ZIFT. in vitro fertilization. artificial (intrauterine) insemination. GIFT.

Pregnant women with HIV are not likely to transmit the virus to the fetus. can reduce the risk of transmission to the baby with treatment. cannot reduce the risk of transmission to the fetus. will not infect the fetus if the delivery is by cesarean section.

Braxton Hicks contractions and lightening occur during the first trimester. the second trimester. the third trimester. labor.

The greatest degree of physical stress associated with pregnancy occurs during the first trimester. during the second trimester. during the third trimester. at different times depending on the age of the mother.

Which of the four phases of the menstrual cycle is characterized by menstrual flow? estrogenic menses progestational ovulation

The period during which both the male and the female reproductive system matures is called menstruation. puberty. growing pains. menopause.

______ is a condition in which the uterine lining grows outside the uterus. Pelvic inflammatory disease Endometriosis Infertility Ectopic pregnancy

The cell that is created from the fertilization of an ovum with a sperm is called a(n) embryo. zygote. blastocyst. fetus.

The Implanon implant is a(n) ______ contraceptive. barrier mechanical irreversible hormonal

After intercourse, the diaphragm must be left in place for at least 30 minutes. 1 hour. 2 hours. 6 hours.

The female condom is inserted completely into the vagina, with none visible outside. can be inserted up to 8 hours before intercourse. requires lubrication. can be washed and reused.

What percentage of all pregnancies are unintended? 10 percent 25 percent 50 percent 65 percent

Cigarette use during pregnancy increases the risk of low birth weight. mental impairment. anemia. the infant's addiction to nicotine.

The third stage of labor is characterized by intense uterine contractions. movement of the baby's head into the birth canal. delivery of the amniotic sac. delivery of the placenta.

The term impotence is also called erectile dysfunction. premature ejaculation. retarded ejaculation. orgasmic dysfunction.

What does QMS measure? maternal hormones gestational growth fetal reflexes blood gases of the fetus

The first stage of labor is characterized by delivery of the placenta. crowning. dilation of the cervix. lightening.

Depo-Provera is administered by mouth. administered by injection. a barrier contraceptive. a form of long-acting estrogen.

According to the Supreme Court, a state may not bar abortion in the third trimester. in the case of rape. in the case of incest. if the woman's health is in jeopardy.

Surgical removal of the uterus is called vasectomy. hysterectomy. laparoscopy. abortion.

Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy? a missed period insomnia breast tenderness fatigue

The first sign of female puberty is underarm hair. an increase in growth rate. the onset of menstruation. breast development.

Which of the following occurs during the first trimester? The heart begins to beat. A layer of fat accumulates beneath the skin. Fetal movement can be felt. Hair grows on the fetus.

The average age of menarche in the United States is about 8 years of age. 10 years of age. 12 years of age. 14 years of age.

The second stage of labor ends with slow cervical dilation. the delivery of the baby. transition. delivery of the placenta.

A male attempting to engage in intercourse after excessive alcohol consumption is likely to experience retrograde ejaculation. premature ejaculation. erectile dysfunction. an intense orgasm.

Which of the following is NOT an early sign of pregnancy? nausea fatigue Braxton Hicks contractions breast tenderness

______ is the natural process of fertilization of an egg by a sperm. Conception In vitro Genetic coding Insemination

Any agent or method that can prevent pregnancy is known as birth control. contraceptive. conception. prevention.

Cardiovascular benefits from moderate alcohol consumption may be due to reduced stress on the heart muscle. lower heart rates. increased levels of HDL cholesterol. sedation.

Which of the following lingers in the bloodstream for five hours after exposure to environmental tobacco smoke? carbon monoxide nicotine tar hydrogen cyanide

Respiratory cilia signal the body that respiratory poisons are present. absorb smoke. facilitate gas exchange. keep air passages free of dust and soot.

Which of the following does NOT influence how long it takes for alcohol to be absorbed in the stomach? carbonation time of day that alcohol is consumed food in the stomach proof of the beverage

White or red patches that appear in the mouth as a result of using spit tobacco are called leukoplakia. gingivitis. dental caries. cancer.

Heart disease caused by the deposit of fatty substances on the walls of arteries is called emphysema. myocardial infarction. atherosclerosis. high cholesterol.

What is the leading cause of cancer death in women? lung cancer breast cancer ovarian cancer cervical cancer

Which of the following is the most widespread cause of death among smokers? stroke coronary heart disease lung cancer emphysema

Alcohol dependence is also known as alcoholism. binge drinking. alcohol abuse. alcohol-related neurodevelopmental disorder.

The legal BAC limit in all 50 U.S. states and the District of Columbia is 0.02 percent. 0.05 percent. 0.08 percent. 0.16 percent.

Which of the following is an effect of environmental tobacco smoke? lung cancer sinus infections headaches All of these choices.

Which of the following is LEAST characteristic of an intoxicated person? sleepy improved problem-solving skills easily angered cries easily

The unpleasant physical and mental state experienced when abstaining from alcohol after heavy use is known as withdrawal. tolerance. drug potentiation. paranoia.

Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by elevated birth weight. impaired mental functioning. deafness. an extra chromosome.

Health consequences related to the use of spit tobacco are likely to include all of the following EXCEPT gum disease. oral cancer. bone loss around the teeth. lung cancer.

Early in a pregnancy, heavy drinking by the mother may cause spontaneous abortion or miscarriage. HIV transmission. cervical infection. emphysema.

The process of fermentation is utilized in making gin. wine. whiskey. vodka.

Initial effects of low concentrations of alcohol include all of the following EXCEPT relaxation. light-headedness. sleepiness. decreased inhibitions.

A disease of the liver caused by excessive and chronic drinking is atherosclerosis. hepatic sclerosis. hepatic myelopathy. cirrhosis.

Which of the following are effects of chronic alcohol abuse on the brain? shrinkage of both grey and white matter reduced blood flow slowed metabolic rates all of the above

One reason that women have higher BACs than men after ingesting the same amount of alcohol is that women have lower blood pressure. a higher percentage of body fat. higher weight. less drinking experience.

When particles of tobacco smoke condense, they form a brown sticky mass called snuff. tar. nicotine. stearic acid.

Which of the following cancers is linked with smoking? esophageal kidney pancreatic All of these cancers are linked with smoking.

The connection between the amount of alcohol or drug consumed and the type and intensity of the drug's effects is called the therapeutic index. multiple dose relationship. prescription standard. dose-response function.

Which of the following is associated with cirrhosis? destruction of digestive enzymes accelerated liver function increased metabolism of alcohol replacement of liver cells with scar tissue

Most of the symptoms of physical dependence on smoking pass in 10 to 12 hours. 2 to 3 days. 3 to 4 weeks. 3 to 5 months.

The primary reason people continue to use tobacco despite the health risks is because they lack the necessary knowledge to make an informed decision. they are addicted to nicotine. they do not perceive the risks to be as serious as the research suggests. carbon monoxide and tar produce extremely pleasurable sensations in the brain.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the relationship between food and alcohol consumption? Eating increases alcohol's intoxicating effects in men more than it does in women. Eating increases alcohol's intoxicating effects in women more than it does in men. Eating increases the amount of alcohol absorbed in the small intestine. Eating slows alcohol absorption.

A responsible party host will serve some nonalcoholic beverages. serve food along with alcohol. stop serving alcohol an hour or more before guests are scheduled to leave. make all of the above choices.

One reason that females usually become intoxicated more quickly than males is that they have a lower alcohol tolerance. the stomach enzyme that metabolizes alcohol is less active in women than in men. their livers metabolize alcohol more slowly. they metabolize more alcohol in the stomach.

What is the addictive drug in tobacco? THC benzopyrene eugenol nicotine

Loss of lung tissue elasticity is characteristic of emphysema. bronchitis. pulmonary edema. pneumonia.

The FDA has warned people not to use e-cigarettes because analysis shows that they contained carcinogens. they do not have enough nicotine to be effective. they compete with conventional cigarettes. the batteries could leak.

The amount of alcohol in the blood, which is used as a measure of intoxication, is called alcohol/blood displacement. alcohol impairment measurement. blood alcohol concentration. blood alcohol ratio.

Which of the following health concerns is associated with smoking? ulcers gum and periodontal disease reduced fertility in men and women All of these choices are correct.

Beer usually contains what percentage of alcohol? 3-6 percent 9-14 percent 20-25 percent 35-50 percent

Lowered sensitivity to a drug such that a given dose no longer produces the usual effect is called tolerance. withdrawal. therapeutic index. drug potentiation.

On average, a regular user of tobacco can go how long between dosages of nicotine? no more than 10 minutes no more than 20 minutes no more than 40 minutes no more than 75 minutes

Requiring more of a substance to get the same desired effect is known as withdrawal. tolerance. antagonism. inhibition.

Smoke exhale by a smoker is referred to as ______ smoke. mainstream primary sidestream secondary

All of the following are symptoms of a hangover EXCEPT diarrhea. nausea. happiness. fatigue.

The approximate concentration of alcohol in a hard liquor such as vodka or gin is 3-6 percent 9-14 percent. 20-25 percent. 35-50 percent.

Many states have zero-tolerance laws, in which drivers under age 21 will have their driver's license suspended after drinking any alcohol. cannot drive with a BAC above 0.08 percent. will have their license suspended if they have one alcohol-related accident. cannot drive without a designated driver.

A substance that directly causes cancer is called a(n) toxin. carcinogen. malignancy. infector.

Some alcoholics show a weakening of the heart muscle, called cardiac disintegration. cardiac atrophy. cardiac myopathy. cirrhosis.

Marketers of e-cigarettes say that the devices deliver only nicotine. tar. carbon monoxide. antifreeze.

Which of the following is an appropriate way to deal with an alcohol emergency? Talk to the person about his drinking problem. Give the person coffee. Make the person walk around. If unconscious, place the person on his side with his knees up.

A component of tobacco smoke that seriously limits the body's ability to use oxygen is benzopyrene. carbon monoxide. formaldehyde. tar.

Negative consequences associated with binge drinking include poor academic performance. violence. unplanned sex. all of the above.

Continued overuse of alcohol commonly causes scarring in the liver. cerebrum. lungs. vas deferens.

The main site of alcohol metabolism is in the small intestine. stomach. colon. liver.

The predominant psychoactive drug in tobacco is phenol. nicotine. benzopyrene. tar.

Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) is commonly called secondhand smoke. sidestream smoke. mainstream smoke. smog.

The average age for smokers and smokeless tobacco users to start is about 10. 15. 18. 21.

Wines with the highest concentration of alcohol are called concentrated. fermented. champagne. fortified.

. A heart attack is also called atherosclerosis. a myocardial infarction. an aortic aneurysm. an aortic coarctation.

Which of the following is a good strategy for protecting yourself if you suspect another driver is drunk? Stay close so you can read the license plate. Honk at them and get them to stop. Speed ahead and pass them. Maintain a safe distance and stay alert.

Smoke emitted from the burning end of a cigarette, cigar, or pipe is referred to as ______ smoke. mainstream primary secondary sidestream

Eating before and while drinking accelerates the peak blood alcohol concentration. slows the rate of alcohol absorption. transfers absorption of alcohol to the small intestine. prevents absorption of alcohol.

Clove cigarettes contain fewer toxic components than regular tobacco. contain more tar, nicotine, and carbon monoxide than conventional cigarettes. do not have the same health risks as regular tobacco. are a safe alternative to regular tobacco cigarettes.

Delirium tremens is associated with which of the following symptoms? fever nausea headache epileptic-like seizures

Alcohol may positively affect the cardiovascular system by reducing the risk of clot formation. lowering blood pressure. relaxing cardiac muscle tone. stimulating cardiac muscle.

Binge drinking is defined as drinking ______ drinks or more in about two hours, at least once within 30 days. 4 5 8 10

The proof value of an alcoholic beverage is two times the percentage of alcohol in the beverage. half the percentage of alcohol in the beverage. equal to the percentage of alcohol in the beverage. the percentage of blood volume that is alcohol.

People who quit smoking suddenly may have all of the following symptoms EXCEPT depression. muscular pains. nausea. increased attentiveness.

Smoking affects hunger by increasing a person's appetite. depressing hunger contractions. increasing the sensitivity of taste buds. decreasing blood sugar level.

What is the concentration of alcohol in table wines? 3-6 percent 9-14 percent 20-25 percent 35-50 percent

Human body weight is composed of approximately ______ percent water. 20-30 40-50 50-60 80-100

Minerals help regulate body functions. are found only in animal products. provide the body with four calories of energy per gram. make up about 60 percent of total body weight.

Which of the following vitamins is water soluble? vitamin D vitamin C vitamin E vitamin K

The building blocks of proteins are called hormones. minerals. amino acids. enzymes.

In what part of the body does digestion begin? mouth esophagus stomach pancreas

Meats, fish, poultry, and eggs are good sources of ______ . protein carbohydrate trans fat cholesterol

The major source of fuel for the body during rest and light activity is proteins. carbohydrates. fats. vitamins.

In order to determine the presence of trans fat in a given product, consumers should check the label for cholesterol content. unsaturated fat levels. partially hydrogenated oils. carbohydrate content.

Which of the following is NOT a function of fats? insulating the body supporting and cushioning organs increasing metabolism helping the body absorb some vitamins

Food irradiation is currently approved only for red meat. uses radioactive materials. does not require special labeling. extends the shelf life of a food.

Which of the following best describes a food that claims to be "light"? It has 50 percent less fat than a similar product. It has less than 0.5 grams of fat per serving. It is free of trans fats. It is low in sodium.

Nutrition is best described as the science of food. study of health. study of obesity. science of calories.

Which of the following describes the process by which the body breaks down and absorbs foods? respiration metabolism digestion catecation

A good source of omega-3 fatty acids is chicken. pork. spinach. salmon.

Which of the following describes lacto-ovo-vegetarians? They do not eat dairy products. They eat only plant foods. They do not eat eggs or egg substitutes.. They do not eat meat, but they do eat eggs and dairy products.

Which of the following statements best describes free radicals? They help prevent aging and many diseases. They enter the body through cigarette smoke and toxic fumes. They are produced by the body as a normal part of metabolism. They are often found in antioxidant-rich foods.

The best source of vitamin C is a(n) orange. hamburger. glass of milk. slice of whole-grain bread.

Which of the following is NOT a leading source of saturated fat in the American diet? beef whole milk and cheese poultry pork

Phytochemicals may help prevent chronic diseases. may be linked to the development of some cancers. are best obtained through supplements not raw foods. are toxic if ingested in large amounts.

Amino acids are components of proteins. fats. lipids. carbohydrates.

Which of the following is a byproduct of hydrogenation? monounsaturated fats trans fatty acids cholesterol triglycerides

Alcohol provides ______ calories per gram. 4 7 9 12

The measure of how a particular food affects blood glucose levels is the ______ index. glycemic glucose glycogen glyceride

Protein provides ______ calories per gram. 4 7 9 12

Which of the following vitamins is NOT fat soluble? vitamin A vitamin B vitamin D vitamin K

The liver and muscles store carbohydrates in the form of glucose. glycogen. fructose. sucrose.

Consumption of whole grains has been linked to increased risk of heart disease. reduced risk of certain forms of cancer. increased risk of diabetes. reduced risk of dehydration.

Osteoporosis is associated with low intake of calcium. phosphorus. zinc. iron.

To control blood cholesterol levels, the most important action to take is limiting the amount of ______ fat(s) in your diet. polyunsaturated saturated and trans monounsaturated omega-3

Hydrogenation reduces the amount of cholesterol in saturated fats. increases the HDLs in the body. turns liquid oils into solid or semi-solid fats has been banned by the FDA.

Which of the following is NOT a good source of fiber? avocado hamburger oatmeal winter squash

If you consume more protein than your body needs, the extra energy from the protein is excreted not able to be burned for energy stored as fat stored as muscle

The primary function of vitamins is to serve as an important component of muscle. provide texture and flavor to foods. supply energy to body cells. regulate various chemical reactions within cells.

Fats are also called lipids. enzymes. glycogen. glycerol.

Carbohydrates provide ______ calories per gram. 4 7 9 12

Which of the following foods is a complex carbohydrate? potato orange juice table sugar milk

A food rich in calcium is green leafy vegetables. lean meat. nuts. apples.

Which of the following essential nutrients supplies energy? carbohydrates water minerals vitamins

Vegetarians who include milk and cheese products and small amounts of fish and poultry in their diets are called vegans. lacto-vegetarians. lacto-ovo-vegetarians. semivegetarians.

Most of the fats in food are in the form of cholesterol. low-density lipids. triglycerides. high-density lipids.

When reducing fat intake, the emphasis should be placed on lowering intake of omega-3 fatty acids. linoleic acid. trans fatty acids. monounsaturated fats.

Fiber can help prevent constipation by increasing fecal bulk. speed the movement of glucose into the blood. increase absorption of cholesterol. reduce intestinal gas.

Antioxidants can cause cancer in large doses. can help protect the body from damaging molecules. are a particular type of energy source. are a source of free radicals.

Which of the following are richest in complex carbohydrates? grains and legumes fruits, milk, and cheese milk and vegetables fruits and honey

Vegetarians who eat dairy products but not eggs are called vegans. lacto-vegans. lacto-vegetarians. lacto-ovo-vegetarians.

Which of the following statements best describes trans fatty acids? They lower levels of low-density lipoproteins in the blood. They raise levels of high-density lipoproteins in the blood. They increase one's risk of developing heart disease. They are a good source of omega-3 fatty acids.

The major source of fuel for the nervous system, brain, and red blood cells is proteins. carbohydrates. fats. vitamins.

The refinement of whole grains transforms whole-wheat flour into whole-wheat flour dust. white flour. unrefined whole-wheat flour. enriched whole-wheat flour.

Americans most often consume salt by eating herbs and spices. processed and prepared foods. potassium rich foods. fruit juices.

One practice that would help with building strong bones is to limit your sun exposure to less than 10 minutes per week. eat a diet high in protein. consume calcium from supplements to ensure better absorption. engage in weight-bearing aerobic activities.

Individuals with high blood pressure may benefit from dietary restriction of calcium. vitamin B-12. sodium. fiber.

The vitamin deficiency disease caused by lack of vitamin C is beriberi. anemia. gingivitis. scurvy.

Saturated fats are primarily found in ______ food sources and are ______ at room temperature. animal; liquid plant; solid plant; liquid animal; solid

Which of the following is NOT removed during the processing of whole grains? endosperm outer layer bran germ

Calorie is a commonly used name for kilocalorie. megacalorie. microcalorie. millicalorie.

______ refers to the spontaneous expulsion of an embryo or a fetus from the uterus with no causal intervention. Abortion Miscarriage Evacuation Aspiration

What 3 things influence the rate of absorption of alcohol?

What 3 factors affect BAC (blood alcohol concentration)?

Which 3 of the essential nutrients supply energy, and how much does each one yield per gram?

John, an African American student, has chosen to incorporate exercise into his daily routine and reduce the amount of salt in his diet after finding out that his blood pressure is high. His decision to make these lifestyle changes is most likely based on the following health concerns for African Americans. A. They have a higher incidence of tuberculosis than males in other population groups. B. They have higher rates of high blood pressure and obesity. C. They have higher rates of infant mortality. D. They have higher suicide rates.

When compared to the general U.S. population, Asian Americans have A. higher overall death rates. B. shorter life expectancies. C. higher rates of sickle cell anemia. D. lower overall death rates.

In the U.S., on average, A. women live about 15 years longer than men. B. men live about 15 years longer than women. C. women live about 5 years longer than men. D. men live about 5 years longer than women.

People with disabilities are more likely to A. have cancer. B. be obese. C. have HIV. D. die at a young age.

Homosexual teens are at greater risk for A. cancer. B. obesity. C. asthma. D. suicide.

The most important factor in determining an individual's level of wellness is A. genetics. B. environment. C. behavior. D. age.

Part of a successful plan to change an unhealthy behavior is to A. start small. B. pick your top three unhealthy behaviors. C. keep the plan to yourself. D. choose your most unhealthy behavior.

The least effective plan for starting to change health behavior is one that A. incorporates rewards for reaching goals. B. identifies cues to behaviors. C. makes slow, systematic changes in behavior. D. attempts to change more than one behavior at the same time.

Eduardo has identified gambling as a target behavior because it is interfering with his schoolwork. To help him stop this behavior, he may need to A. find outside help. B. use a self-management approach. C. spend more time with his friends. D. buy a self-help book.

When evaluating health topics on the Internet, check the A. qualifications of the people behind the site. B. latest media posts on the topic. C. testimonials for evidence. D. blogs first.

Donna is about 25 pounds overweight, has tried a variety of diets, and has repeatedly failed to maintain weight loss. She defends her weight with the explanation that most of her relatives are overweight, and none has ever been successful with attempts to lose weight. Donna can best be described as A. unmotivated. B. having an external locus of control. C. having an internal locus of control. D. a victim of genetics.

The technique of visualization is one of the best ways to A. keep an eye on your future. B. boost your confidence. C. improve physical strength. D. expand your horizons.

A strategy to increase your chances of success in the pursuit of a new behavior is to A. rationalize temporary setbacks to minimize feelings of failure. B. stick with the program even during periods of high stress. C. find a new behavior to change if you experience a temporary failure. D. frequently visualize goal attainment and enjoy its benefits.

Barriers to behavior change A. are signs of failure in the pursuit of a new behavior. B. should be avoided, if possible, in the pursuit of a new behavior. C. can be a source of information used to boost your chance of success. D. often cause us to settle for a level of success that is less than our original goal.

The most constructive response to a temporary setback in the pursuit of a new behavior is A. not tolerating temporary failure. B. increasing rewards to make efforts more worthwhile. C. accepting the blame for failing if you return to your old behavior. D. accepting the fact that problems may periodically occur.

Teresa would like to begin eating healthier and has created a plan of action to help reach that goal. Her study group meets at a fast food restaurant twice a week, and she has asked them to meet at the library instead. Teresa understands that to meet her goal, she needs to A. reward herself. B. create a measureable goal. C. modify her environment. D. create a realistic time frame.

The precontemplation stage is characterized by A. an awareness of the problem. B. a modification of behavior. C. a belief that there is no need for change. D. planning for change.

During a "stages of change" behavior change program, some people may lapse. If this occurs, the best strategy for them is to A. learn from the lapse as they cycle back through earlier stages. B. give up. C. choose a different behavior for change. D. start over from the beginning.

Entries made into a health journal about a behavior should note all the following, EXCEPT A. what the activity was. B. when and where it happened. C. how you felt at the time. D. what your friends and family did.

Which of the following health journal information would be of little benefit in promoting personal behavior change? A. identification of other people's reactions to your behavior B. descriptions of exactly what your behaviors are C. identification of when and where activities occurred D. recording your feelings at the time you were engaging in the behavior

Anne wants to lose weight and is keeping a health journal to record her progress. Which of the following questions might be appropriately asked in the course of analyzing data from her health journal? A. When am I most likely to overeat? B. What behavior do I want to change? C. How many behaviors in my life are serious health threats? D. What will be the consequences of not changing my risky health behavior?

According to the "SMART" criteria, a behavior change such as "drink eight cups of water every day" is an example of being A. realistic. B. truthful. C. too easy. D. specific.

The best plan for behavior change A. begins with a self-assessment. B. concentrates on several behaviors. C. refuses to tolerate temporary setbacks. D. works at change systematically.

Chances of success in behavior management DECREASE if A. efforts are cost-effective. B. change in behavior is real and lasting. C. programs are those that can be followed over a long time. D. environmental cues are ignored.

To help ensure success with a behavior change program, you should A. consider potential genetic factors. B. develop a reward system. C. reevaluate your friendships. D. develop small punishments for relapses.

Rewards included in health action plans should A. reinforce your efforts. B. be provided only when you reach your overall goal. C. be meaningful and expensive. D. include limited participation in the behavior you are trying to eliminate.

A friend who is attempting to lose weight has been repeatedly "derailed" by coworkers who bring high-calorie snacks to work. An effective strategy for her would be to A. quit her job. B. create a specific lists of dos and don'ts for her coworkers. C. understand that she will have to eat foods she does not want to from time to time. D. choose new target behaviors.

A primary purpose of developing a personal contract for behavior change is to A. commit you to your word of behavior modification. B. notify others of your intent to change your behavior. C. prioritize the behaviors that you are considering changing. D. assess your motivation for changing a health behavior.

Writing a contract for behavior change involves all of the following EXCEPT A. setting a date to begin. B. clearly stating your goal. C. identifying the steps used to measure progress. D. identifying the consequences of failure to reach the established goal.

Information from a health journal maintained after a behavior change plan is put into action can be used to A. track progress. B. punish yourself for relapses. C. change target behaviors. D. identify new behaviors to change.

Maintaining good health is A. a short-term goal. B. an ongoing process. C. too hard for most people. D. important only in the college years.

With regard to one's health, which one of the following elements is most within an individual's control? A. heredity B. health care C. environment D. behavior

Which of the following is an example of taking action to modify the environment and support health behaviors? A. encouraging legislators to pass legislation increasing the number of public areas where smoking is prohibited B. serving nonalcoholic drinks at your parties C. voting for measures that reduce air pollution D. All of these are examples.

The system of glands, tissues, and cells that helps control body functions by releasing hormones is the A. central nervous system. B. endocrine system. C. reproductive system. D. digestive system.

During the stress response, the human adrenal glands release A. adrenocorticotropic hormone. B. epinephrine. C. endorphins. D. norepinephrine.

Homeostasis A. is a state of unmanaged stress. B. describes the body during the fight-or-flight reaction. C. is a state of stability in an individual's functions. D. is the response of the body to prolonged exposure to stressors.

The division of the autonomic nervous system that slows down the body as it recovers from exposure to a stressor is the ______ nervous system. A. central B. somatic C. parasympathetic D. sympathetic

Once a stressful situation ends, your parasympathetic nervous system A. increases heart rate. B. slows breathing. C. slows digestion. D. increases perspiration.

All of the following are TRUE regarding the fight-or-flight response, EXCEPT that A. it is a relatively new human adaptation. B. it enables our bodies to prepare to quickly escape from an injury. C. it prepares our bodies to engage in physical battle. D. it enables our bodies to prepare to quickly escape from an injury and engage in physical battle.

The somatic nervous system manages A. conscious actions. B. emotions. C. the fight-or-flight reaction to a stressor. D. hormones released in response to a stressor.

Which of the following nervous systems manages John's moves as he participates in a spinning exercise class? A. autonomic B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. somatic

The sum of cognitive, behavioral, and emotional tendencies refers to one's A. personality. B. wellness. C. happiness. D. ability to succeed in life.

Which one of the following characteristics is most closely associated with elevated risk of cardiovascular disease? A. hostility B. excitability C. lack of purpose D. procrastination

Behavioral responses to stressors are controlled by which division of the nervous system? A. autonomic B. sympathetic C. parasympathetic D. somatic

Which statement about people with hardy personalities is FALSE? A. They view stressors as challenges. B. They tend to perceive fewer situations as stressful. C. They tend to believe their lives are controlled by outside factors. D. They feel at least partly in control of their lives.

An example of a resilient person would be A. a low-income student graduating from college. B. a fit person completing a marathon. C. an intelligent person failing an exam. D. a person with a disability going undiagnosed.

According to the American Psychological Association, which percent of adult Americans suffer from stress-related health problems? A. between 10 and 20 percent B. between 20 and 30 percent C. between 40 and 50 percent D. between 70 and 80 percent

Which of the following is a hormone involved in the regulation of mood and social interaction? A. insulin B. oxygen C. niacin D. oxytocin

GAS is an acronym for A. genetically alleviated stress. B. growth adjustment of stress. C. general adaptation syndrome. D. general acceleration due to stress.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. All stress has a negative impact on physical health. B. The college years are often one of the most stressful periods of a person's life. C. Changes in one's life are significant stressors. D. Financial problems are significant stressors.

Which one of the following is NOT a stage of GAS? A. alarm B. acceleration C. resistance D. exhaustion

The fight-or-flight reaction occurs during which stage of GAS? A. alarm B. resistance C. exhaustion D. recovery

om is very anxious about an upcoming exam. He has no appetite, is easily distracted, and has a headache. In which stage of GAS is Tom? A. alarm B. acceleration C. resistance D. exhaustion

During the resistance stage of GAS, the body A. is in a relaxed state. B. responds to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. C. readjusts, regulating body systems to establish a new level of homeostasis. D. can no longer react effectively to normal life situations.

Psychoneuroimmunology (PNI) is the study of the interaction among all the following systems, EXCEPT the ______ system. A. nervous B. endocrine C. immune D. respiratory

Which of the following statements is NOT true of a high allostatic load? A. It is linked with physical wellness. B. It is linked with hypertension. C. It is linked with obesity. D. It is linked with heart disease.

Shauna expects all of the following to happen when she is stressed, EXCEPT A. an increase in heart rate. B. dilation of her blood vessels. C. an increase in blood pressure. D. an increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease.

Which one of the following has NOT been linked to unmanaged stress? A. psychological problems B. premature labor C. digestive problems D. glaucoma

The majority of migraine sufferers are A. men. B. women. C. teenagers. D. elderly.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? A. Personality and coping skills can moderate the stressful effects of life changes on health. B. A strong support network can moderate the stressful effects of life changes on health. C. Behavior, immune functioning, and mood together can affect the way stress affects health. D. Acute stress and chronic stress similarly affect the immune system.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding exercise and its ability to help manage stress? A. Exercise enhances one's sense of general well-being. B. Exercise reduces energy levels. C. Exercise reduces anxiety levels. D. Exercise decreases tension.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding exercise and its ability to help manage stress? A. A long walk can help increase blood pressure. B. A brisk 10-minute walk can relax and energize you for up to 10 hours. C. Three 45-minute walks per week can increase your sense of wellness. D. A and C

Peak concentrations of the levels of stress hormones in the bloodstream occur A. just before dinner. B. just after lunch. C. just before bedtime. D. during the final stages of sleep.

Which one of the following statements reflects your text's recommendations regarding the prioritization of tasks? A. Tasks should be divided into two groups: hard and easy. B. Tasks should be divided into three groups, and you should ignore the least important group. C. Some attention should be paid to all tasks, even if it is only a few minutes. D. Priorities should be based on whether you like performing the task.

According to your text, one strategy to improve time-management problems is to A. avoid asking others for help. B. do favorite tasks first to build up momentum. C. make narrow time frames to complete tasks. D. divide tasks into groups that can be prioritized.

In terms of time-management strategies, which one of the following is NOT considered helpful to improving your efficiency at completing tasks? A. aiming for realistic goals B. writing down your goals C. memorizing your goals D. allowing more time to achieve your goals than you expect you will need

All of the following are recommended by your text as time-management strategies, EXCEPT A. setting priorities. B. breaking down long-term goals into short-term ones. C. avoiding unstructured time. D. keeping track of tasks you put off.

Which of the following would NOT be helpful to you in attempting to improve your productivity? A. Focus on long-term goals only. B. Visualize achievement of your goals. C. Delegate responsibility. D. Say "no" when necessary.

Because watching television is usually a "time sink" when you are on a deadline, it is wise to A. limit your television break to 5 to 10 minutes. B. avoid turning on the television. C. realize you need a break and watch only a few programs. D. surf the Internet for a few minutes instead.

Which one of the following is a cognitive technique for stress management? A. progressive relaxation B. imagery C. meditation D. thinking constructively

Which one of the following is NOT a cognitive technique for stress management? A. solving problems B. setting moderate expectations C. maintaining positivity D. using imagery

Philip is attempting to lessen his feelings of stress. Which of the following would NOT be helpful? A.thinking and acting constructively B. keeping his expectations at moderate and achievable levels C. trying to remember as much information as possible D. cultivating a sense of humor

Laughter does all of the following EXCEPT A. aid digestion. B. increase pulse rate. C. ease pain. D. lower blood pressure.

Laughter may be the best medicine for stress, because after a good laugh your A. heart rate is lowered. B. muscles are relaxed. C. blood pressure is increased. D. stress levels return to their pre-laughter level.

A helpful behavior in dealing with stressful situations is to A. keep a mental log of past mistakes and errors as an instant reference. B. cultivate the ability to laugh at yourself. C. attempt to fulfill others' expectations. D. work hard so that you can play hard.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE regarding the relaxation response? A. Metabolism and oxygen consumption are reduced. B. Brain waves shift from an alert beta rhythm to a relaxed alpha rhythm. C. Blood flow to the brain and skin is reduced. D. You may feel an overall warmth and quiet mental alertness.

Progressive relaxation techniques A. involve tensing and then relaxing muscles in your body. B. increase your heart rate. C. involve a lot of imagination and willpower. D. can be quite complex and difficult to master.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE of progressive relaxation? A. It is based on the use of your imagination and skill at imagery. B. It requires no willpower or imagination. C. It increases oxygen consumption to the muscles. D. It is the only relaxation technique that also permits you to achieve cardiovascular fitness benefits.

Progressive relaxation is best described by which one of the following statements? A. It is a mental exercise to address stress that requires special training. B. It is a form of cognitive development. C. It is a process that uses simple tensing and relaxing of muscles. D. It is an aerobic exercise.

Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. Visualizing yourself performing a task can help improve performance. B. Imagery can be an aid in changing habits. C. Imagery can enhance physical performance. D. Imagery is a cognitive technique designed to change typical patterns of thinking.

Carey would like to use meditation to help manage the effects of stress. Which of the following is likely to happen as a result of her use of this technique? A. It will help her tune out the world, temporarily removing sources of stress. B. It will help her rehearse upcoming events so that stress in her life will be reduced. C. It will help her to analyze the stressors in her life more effectively. D. It will help her visualize her tasks in a more efficient way.

Which of the following stress management techniques emphasizes the use of breathing, stretching, and balance? A. meditation B. hatha yoga C. visualization D. progressive relaxation

A stress management technique that focuses primarily on your breathing pattern is called A. hatha yoga. B. deep breathing. C. t'ai chi ch'uan. D. laughter.

Tai chi can be an effective stress reducer because it A. teaches students to remain calm and centered. B. is an excellent cardiovascular workout. C. aids the student in working against various stressors. D. is easily self-taught.

All of these are considered counterproductive coping strategies EXCEPT A. tobacco use. B. drug abuse. C. multivitamin use. D. alcohol use.

Which of the following is INCORRECT? A. Caffeine is mildly addictive. B. Caffeine is associated with irritability. C. Caffeine might cause sleeplessness. D. Caffeine acts as a sedative.

Approximately ______ of Americans use food as a coping device against stress. A. 5 percent B. 25 percent C. 50 percent D. 75 percent

The first step in creating a personal plan for managing stress is to A. design your plan. B. identify your stressors. C. seek professional help. D. investigate support groups.