HEIT 205 CH14 CD WORKBOOK – Flashcards
Unlock all answers in this set
Unlock answersquestion
Risk management and quality improvement programs are related because of which of the following reasons? a. They share similar underlying processes. b. They emphasize the reduction of liability. c. They are usually located in the HIM department. d. They lessen the chances of financial loss.
answer
A(They share similar underlying processes)
question
The systematic means of determining potential losses defines the process of: a. risk analysis. b. risk identification. c. risk financing. d. riskevaluation d. risk evaluation.
answer
B(risk identification)
question
A sentinel event in a Joint Commission accredited facility is: a. significant and should be investigated and evaluated every time it occurs. b. usually related to the structure of care and must be reported to The Joint Commission. c. a standard that measures the final outcome of care. d. an important situation that must be carefully documented in the progress notes.
answer
A (significant and should be investigated and evaluated every time it occurs)
question
Which of the following gives information to be classified as a reviewable sentinel event, according to The Joint Commission? a. patient fall from bed b. high readmission rate c. wrong leg amputated during surgery d. medication error
answer
C(wrong leg amputated during surgery)
question
The purpose of root cause analysis (RCA) is to: a. gather information for credentials files. b. understand the causes of a sentinel event. c. assure responsible individuals are held accountable. d. complete a full report for The Joint Commission.
answer
B(understand the causes of a sentinel event)
question
The Institute of Medicine objectives for improvement include: a. safety, timeliness, organization, measurement, patient-centered care (STOMP). b. safety, timeliness, efficiency, effectiveness, equitable, patient-centered care (STEEEP). c. safety, timeliness, utilization, measurement, patient-centered care (STUMP). d. safety, leadership, efficiency, effectiveness, equity, patient-centered care (SLEEEP).
answer
B(safety, timeliness, efficiency, effectiveness, equitable, patient-centered care STEEEP)
question
The EMTALA regulations include all but which of the following? a. transfers of non-stabilized patients must only occur under certain specific conditions b. Every patient arriving at the emergency department must receive an appropriate "medical screening exam" c. If an emergency medical condition exists, the hospital must treat and stabilize the emergency condition or transfer the patient. d. Non-Medicare, indigent patients must be transferred to the nearest Level 1 trauma center.
answer
d(Non-Medicare, indigent patients must be transferred to the nearest Level 1 trauma center)
question
Which of the following is not an example of a private or governmental group focused on quality? a. Institute for Healthcare Improvement b. Safe Practices for All c. Commonwealth Fund d. Leapfrog Group
answer
B(Safe Practices for All)
question
An example of a documentation indicator in a health record, signaling a problem, is: a. information regarding a patient's consent to a surgical procedure is described by the physician b. a correction in a record is obliterated so that only the newly added and correct information appears c. only factual information is recorded d. abbreviations used in the record appear on the approved abbreviations list of the health care facility
answer
B(a correction in a record is obliterated so that only the newly added and correct information appears)
question
Darling v. Charleston Community Memorial Hospital is most often credited for: a. creating quality improvement organizations. b. eliminating the doctrine of charitable immunity. c. challenging the authority of The Joint Commission. d. creating the risk management process.
answer
B (eliminating the doctrine of charitable immunity)
question
Quality improvement organizations (QIOs) are responsible for all of the following except: a. improving quality of care for Medicare beneficiaries. b. protecting beneficiaries by addressing complaints. c. ensuring that services paid for are medically necessary. d. requiring that personal health records are used by every facilities.
answer
D(requiring that personal health records are used by every facilities)
question
Risk analysis involves the consideration of: a. loss frequency. b. loss severity. c. quality thresholds. d.financial effect of a potential loss.
answer
C(quality thresholds)
question
After an adverse patient event, which of the following should occur with regard to the health record? a. documentation in the record should be clarified b. documentation in the record should be altered c. the health record should be secured d. the ability to edit a record should be maintained
answer
C (the health record should be secured)
question
The Joint Commission's safety goals include: a. time-outs prior to procedures. b. use of at least two patient identifiers. c. read-back of verbal orders. d. all of the above
answer
D(all of the above )
question
The Joint Commission's quality improvement activities for health record documentation include all but which of the following core performance measures for hospitals: a. acute myocardial infarction. b. hypertension. c. pregnancy and related conditions. d. heart failure
answer
B(hypertension)
question
The American Hospital Association's Patient Care Partnership was originally called the: a. Quality Healthcare Initiative. b. Patient Bill of Rights. c. Quality Improvement Organization. d. Joint Commission sentinel event.
answer
B (Patient Bill of Rights)
question
The Hill-Burton Act: a. provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization. b. decreased the obligation to provide uncompensated care. c. exempts hospitals from complying with EMTALA. d. was passed by Congress in 2000.
answer
A(provided hospitals with money for construction and modernization)
question
The National Practitioner Data Bank is associated most closely with which hospital function? a. billing b. coding c. credentialing d. surgeries
answer
C(credentialing)
question
The Americans with Disabilities Act: a. lists all impairments that are covered by the act. b. excludes mental conditions. c. prohibits discrimination in employment and transportation only. d. applies to impairments that substantially limit major life activities.
answer
D(applies to impairments that substantially limit major life activities)
question
With regard to seclusion and restraint, federal laws: a. encourage their use. b. restrict their use. c. prohibit their use. b. none of the above
answer
B(restrict their use)
question
Which of the following was a precursor to quality improvement organizations? a. Professional Standards Review Organization (PSRO) b. Medicare Utilization and Quality Control Peer Review Program c. Healthcare Quality Improvement Program (HCQIP) d. Leapfrog
answer
A(Professional Standards Review Organization PSRO)
question
Which of the following was a precursor to quality improvement organizations? a. Institute of Medicine b. Hospital Compare c. Peer Review Organization d. National Quality Forum
answer
C(Peer Review Organization)
question
Which of the following has/have initiatives in place to reduce medical errors and improve patient safety? a. private organizations b. state government c. federal government d. all of the above
answer
D(all of the above)
question
Pay for performance: a. is linked to reimbursement by all payers. b. applies only to nursing home reimbursement. c. will encourage better health outcomes. d. was eliminated by Medicare in 2006.
answer
C(will encourage better health outcomes)
question
Risk management programs are more commonly governed by: a. state law. b. federal law. c. accreditation standards. d. none of the above; risk management programs are never subject to legal requirements.
answer
A(state law)