Respiratory Therapy Equipment and Procedures – Flashcards
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MDI, Jet nebulizers, untrasonic nebulizers, nasal spray pumps
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Aerosol drug delivery devices include:
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Inspiratory flow rate, flow pattern, respiratory rate, inhaled volume, I:E ratio, and breath-holding
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Deposition of therapeutic aerosols is affected by:
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Greater than 20 BPM
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Tachypnea
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When aerosol particles settle out of suspension and are deposited owning to gravity
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Sedimentation
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True
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Aerosol is the suspension of solids or liquid particles in gas
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The mass of drug leaving the mouthpiece as aerosol
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Emitted dose
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Medication
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Primary hazard of aerosol drug therapy is adverse reaction to:
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Nebulizer design, gas pressure, gas density, medication characteristics
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Factors affecting nebulizer performance are:
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Deposition of particles by collision
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MMAD
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Aerosol output
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The mass of aerosol generate per unit of time is called:
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20%
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The average pulmonary deposition of aerosol drug particles:
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SVN, MDI, DPI
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Pulmonary medications are usually delivered by:
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True
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When using a vibrating mesh nebulizer, the unit dose emitted is higher than standard nebulizers
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False
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Off label drugs are never given
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Aspiration pneumonia, stridor, chronic cough, reactive airways disease
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Respiratory associated problems for GERD include:
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True
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The respiratory syncytial virus causes bronchiolitis
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Prematurity, immunosuppressive systems, GERD, chronic lung disease
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RSV usually affects infants with:
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Viral infection
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Croup is caused by:
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Barking cough, steeple sign on X-ray
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Clinical manifestations of croup include:
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Haemophilus influenza B
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Epiglottis can be a life threatening emergency and is caused by:
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Is a terminal disease, produces copious secretions, affects the lungs, affects the pancreas
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Cystic fibrosis:
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Lung disease
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The leading cause of death in patients with CF is:
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False
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Steatorrhea means there's is not enough fat in the stool
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White
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Bones on X-rays appear
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True
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Digital technology has replaced traditional photographic film
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Dark
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Over penetration of a film leaves long shadows too:
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White
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Under penetration of a film leaves lung shadows too:
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PA
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X-ray beam that passes from posterior to anterior is called
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MRI
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Which X-ray procedure uses radio waves to make a picture?
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Pleural effusion
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Blunted costophrenic angles on X-ray indicates:
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True
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X-ray helps confirm tube or catheter placement in correct position
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Air, fat, water, bone
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4 tissue densities seen on an X-ray
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air (lungs)
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Which would be considered radiolucent?
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Bone, fluid in lungs, gastric bubble
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3 pieces of anatomy that we can readily identify on an xray
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Air bronchograms
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Air filled airways surrounded by infiltrates will cause this look on an X-ray
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Flattening of hemidiaphragms, narrowed mediastinum, increased AP diameter
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Signs of hyperinflation on an X-ray include:
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25%
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What percent of mechanically ventilated patients develop pneumonia?
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Source of pathogens, susceptible host, route of transmission
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Three elements must be present for infection to spread:
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True
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Prevention bundles are used for multiple evidence based best practices to prevent device related infection
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All microorganisms
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Sterilization destroys:
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All microorganisms except spores
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Disinfection destroys:
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Nebulizers, ventilator circuits, suction equipment, and stethoscope
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Respiratory care equipment that can spread pathogens include
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Respiratory rate x Tidal volume
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Minutes ventilation is comprised of:
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Mean lung volume
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The average amount of volume in the lung over one minute is called:
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Continuous positive airway pressure
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What do the letters in CPAP stand for?
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Ipap and Epap
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What are the 2 pressures used in bipap?
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EPAP
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What is the main determinant of MLV and therefore most affects oxygenation?
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IPAP
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What is the main determinant of tidal volume and therefore most affects ventilation?
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False
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A reversible respiratory failure is not an indication for BiPAP
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Irritation, inspiration, compression, expulsion
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A normal cough reflects includes which of the following phases:
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Expiratory muscle contraction
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What occurs during the compression phase of a cough?
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Increased exploratory flows
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Partial airway obstruction can result in all of the following except:
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Irritation
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A patient recovering from anesthesia after abdominal surgery is having difficulty devolving an effective cough. Which of the following phases of the cough reflex are primarily affected in this patient?
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Use of respiratory stimulants
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All of the following can impair mucociliary clearance in intimated patients except:
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Foreign bodies, tumors, inflammation, bronchospasms
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Conditions that can affect airway patency and cause abnormal clearance of secretions include which of the following:
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Muscular dystrophy
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Conditions that can lead to bronchiectasis include all of the following except:
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Reverse the underlying disease process
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All of the following are goals of airway clearance therapy except:
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Bronchiectasis, CF, chronic bronchitis
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Which of the following conditions are associate with chronic production of large volumes of sputum?
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Prevent retained secretions in the acutely ill, maintain lung function in CF
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What are the best documents preventive uses of airway clearance therapy?
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Number of prior surgical procedures
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When assessing the potential need for postoperative airway clearance for a patient, all of the following are relevant factors except:
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Hematology results
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All of the following laboratory dats are essential in assessing a patients need for airway clearance therapy except:
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Lack of sputum, labored breathing, fever, increase inspiratory and expiratory crackles
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Which of the following clinical signs indicate that a patient is having a problem with retained secretions?
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Incentive spirometry
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All of the following are considered airway clearance therapies except:
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Postural drainage therapy
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The application of gravity to achieve specific clinical objections in respiratory care best describes which of the following:
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Pulmonary barotraumas
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Which of the following is not a hazard or complication of postural drainage therapy?
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Orthopnea, unstable BP, cerebrovascular disorder, hypertension
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In which of the following patients would you consider modifying any head down positions uses for postural drainage?
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Vital signs, auscultation
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Which of the following are mandatory components of the pre assessment for postural drainage?
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3-15 minutes
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If tolerated, a specified postural drainage position should be maintained for at least how long?
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Throughout expiration
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Properly performed chest vibration is applied at what point?
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Acute asthma
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Directs coughing is useful in helping to maintain airway clearance in all of the following cases except:
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High expiratory pleural pressures compress the small airways
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Strenuous expiratory efforts in some COPD patients limit the effectiveness of coughing. Why?
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Having the patient phonate or huff during expiration
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Maintains an open glottis during coughing can help to minimize increase in pleural pressure:
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All of the above
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A typical mechanical insufflation-exsufflation treatment session should continue until what point?
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All of the above
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Which of the following are potential indications for positive airway pressure therapies?
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Expiration against a variable flow resistance
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Best describes PEP therapy?
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Oscillation
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Movement of small volumes of air back and forth
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Postural drainage, percussion, and vibration
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Clearance technique for 15 month old CF patient
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PDPV
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Infants with CF therapy
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Repetitive, shallow breathing
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Major factor in the development of postoperative atelectasis
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Those with pneumonia
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Groups of patients not as risk for developing postoperative atelectasis
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Increasing the transpulmonary pressure gradient
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How do all modes of lung expansion therapy aid lung expansion?
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Increase alveolar pressure, decrease pleural pressure
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How can the transpulmonary pressure gradient be increased?
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Incentive spirometry
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Mode of lung expansion therapy that is physiologically most normal?
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20cm H2O
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Minimum airway pressure at which to esophagus opens, allowing gas to pass directly into the stomach
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Spontaneous respiratory rate
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Direct relationship between the degree to which atelectasis can prevent itself with a post operative patient
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Compression atelectasis
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Persistent breathing at small tidal volumes can result in
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All of the above
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Patient categories at high risk for developing atelectasis
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Opacified area on the chest X-ray, Tachypnea, diminished or bronchial breath sounds
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Clinical finding indicate the development of atelectasis