Nutr quizzes – Flashcards
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The energy currency of living systems is called a) DNA b) RNA c) ATCG d) ATP
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ATP
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The heart and blood vessels are known collectively as the a) cardiovascular system. b) muscular system. c) digestive system. d) lymphatic system.
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cardiovascular system.
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The forces that hold together the atoms of a molecule or a compound are a) chemical reactions b) chemical bonds c) chemical compounds d) chemical elements
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chemical bonds
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Energy can be a) created b) destroyed c) converted from one form to another
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converted from one form to another
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Cells contain organelles that support life. All of the following are organelles except a) nucleus b) ribosome c) phospholipid d) mitochondria
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phospholipid
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A substance found in plants which cannot be made by the body and is not necessary to sustain life, but has healthful benefits, is: a) an herbal supplement. b) a phytochemical. c) an enzyme. d) a zoochemical.
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a phytochemical.
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When subjects do not know which treatment they are receiving in a clinical trial, but the researchers do, the study is called: a) anecdotal. b) collaboration. c) double blind. d) single blind.
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single blind.
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Which of the following is the BEST reason to include a placebo in the experimental design of a human intervention trial? a) The researchers do not know who is receiving an intervention and who is not. b) Placebos reduce the cost of the study. c) It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research. d) It makes it possible to include a larger number of subjects in the experiment.
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It helps prevent the expectations of the subjects from biasing the research.
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The energy provided by foods is measured in: a) BTUs. b) kilocalories. c) thermal equivalents. d) watts.
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kilocalories.
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Which of the following nutrients are NOT organic molecules? a) Carbohydrates b) Lipids c) Proteins d) Minerals
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Minerals
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Which of the following is LEAST likely to affect food choices? a) Cultural and family background b) Personal preference c) Weather d) Psychological and emotional factors
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Weather
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One important principle of a healthy diet is to eat a variety of foods. In this context, "variety" refers to: a) choosing at least one food from each food group in MyPlate daily. b) including low calorie food choices to balance high calorie foods at each meal. c) choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups. d) making sure portion sizes are matched to energy needs.
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choosing a variety of foods from within food groups as well as among food groups.
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Processed foods and convenience foods tend to ______ compared to freshly prepared foods. a) provide more kcalories b) contain fewer nutrients c) be higher in fat, sugar, or salt d) All of these statements are true
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All of these statements are true
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Which of the following yields energy but is not considered a nutrient? a) Alcohol b) Carbohydrate c) Fat d) Protein
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Alcohol
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A measure of the nutrient content of a food compared to its energy content is referred to as a) Healthy Food Index. b) nutrient score. c) dietary reference intake. d) nutrient density.
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nutrient density.
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The correct sequence of events in the scientific method is: a) conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, form a theory, and make an observation. b) develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, make an observation, and form a theory. c) form a theory, conduct the experiment, develop a hypothesis, and make an observation. d) make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.
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make an observation, develop a hypothesis, conduct the experiment, and form a theory.
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The recommendation to eat everything in "moderation" refers to: a) including each food group in the diet. b) including a variety of foods from within each food group. c) selecting appropriate portion sizes. d) varying the foods eaten from day to day, week to week and season to season.
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selecting appropriate portion sizes.
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Which of the following describes a hypothesis? a) A conclusion based on many studies with similar outcomes. b) An idea based upon no observable phenomena. c) A fact stated in a textbook. d) An educated guess made to explain an observation.
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An educated guess made to explain an observation
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Comparison of the amount of a particular nutrient consumed with the amount of the nutrient excreted is characteristic of a(an): a) balance study. b) collection study. c) depletion-repletion study. d) epidemiological study.
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balance study.
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Which of the following is NOT considered a macronutrient? a) Carbohydrate b) Fat c) Protein d) Vitamins
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Vitamins
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Which would most likely be used to plan menus for a school breakfast and lunch program? a) AIs b) DRVs c) RDAs d) ULs
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RDAs
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Tolerable Upper Intake Levels are most likely to be exceeded when: a) large quantities of food are consumed by highly trained athletes. b) people are recovering from surgery and need more kcalories. c) dietary supplements are taken. d) people eat meat from wild game animals.
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dietary supplements are taken.
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Which of the following is NOT an authorized health claim associating intake with a health consequence? a) Soluble fiber and coronary heart disease b) Dietary fat and cancer risk c) Sodium intake and blood pressure d) Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts
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Vitamin A intake and risk of cataracts
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Which of the following is true of structure/function claims? a) FDA approval is required. b) They do NOT have to be accompanied by a disclaimer. c) Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease. d) Common examples are "high fiber" and "fat free".
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Some describe a benefit in relation to a nutrient-deficiency disease.
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The MyPlate plan separates foods into groups to help Americans apply the recommendations of the Dietary Guidelines to their individual diets. These groups are: a) milk, meat, grains, fruits & vegetables and legumes. b) meat, milk, beans & nuts, grains and fruits & vegetables. c) fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy. d) grains, vegetables, fruits, dairy and meat, beans & nuts.
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fruits, vegetables, grains, protein foods and dairy.
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Which of the following is true regarding the Dietary Guidelines for Americans 2010? a) Recommendations are made for specific amounts of individual nutrients. b) The DGA 2010 is based on the DRIs. c) They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease. d) These recommendations are designed for Americans 19 years and older.
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They are intended to promote health and reduce the prevalence of overweight and obesity and the risk of chronic disease.
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The recommendation of moderation in healthy diets: a) means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods. a) means choosing nutrient dense foods as often as energy-dense foods. c) relates to consuming moderate amounts of complex carbohydrates. d) All of these statements are true.
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means limiting portion sizes and choosing nutrient-dense foods.
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The sphincter that regulates the flow of chyme from the stomach into the small intestine is the __________ sphincter. a) gastroesophageal b) celiac c) anal d) pyloric
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pyloric
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How is the order in which ingredients are listed on a food label determined? a) By contribution to total weight b) By contribution to total volume c) By nutrient density d) In alphabetical order
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By contribution to total weight
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The primary function of the large intestine is to: a) prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion. b) absorb digested nutrients. c) neutralize chyme. d) All of these choices are correct.
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prepare and store unabsorbed food residue for excretion.
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Transit time is the rate at which food: a) moves through the digestive tract. b) is swallowed. c) is absorbed into the blood. d) is broken down into chyme.
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moves through the digestive tract.
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Metabolic reactions that build molecules and body structures are referred to as: a) catabolic. b) anabolic. c) hydrolytic. d) deamination reactions.
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anabolic
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Which structure prevents swallowed food from entering the trachea? a) Tongue b) Pharynx c) Esophageal sphincter d) Epiglottis
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Epiglottis
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Which of the following accessory organs releases its secretions into the GI tract? a) Gallbladder b) Pancreas c) Salivary glands d) All of these are correct
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All of these are correct
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"Heartburn" is typically: a) caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter. b) more common in men and those who are underweight. c) caused when the stomach bulges through the diaphragm. d) All of the choices are true.
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caused by acidic stomach contents leaking back through the pyloric sphincter.
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The formation of chyme occurs in which part of the GI tract? a) Small intestine b) Large intestine c) Gallbladder d) Stomach
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Stomach
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The stomach wall is protected from the acidity of the gastric juice by: a) the bacterium Helicobacter pylori. b) a viscous mucus layer. c) the action of gastrin. d) pancreatic secretions.
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a viscous mucus layer.
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A diseased gallbladder can interfere with: a) chyme formation. b) the ability to chew. c) the ability to regulate blood glucose levels. d) fat digestion.
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fat digestion.
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The most common cause of ulcers is: a) chronic use of the pain reliever Tylenol. b) eating large amounts of acidic foods such as peppers and tomatoes. c) a bacterial infection. d) stress.
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a bacterial infection
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The sum of the chemical reactions that occur inside body cells is collectively referred to as: a) digestion. b) absorption. c) metabolism. d) hydrolysis.
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metabolism.
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Dietary sources of cholesterol include all of the following EXCEPT: a) meat. b) eggs. c) fish. d) peanut butter.
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peanut butter.
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Which hormone is most important for glucose uptake by body cells? a) Glucagon b) Insulin c) Prolactin d) Ghrelin
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Insulin
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The organ(s) which supplies enzymes required for starch digestion include(s) the: a) stomach. b) gallbladder. c) pancreas. d) All of these choices are correct.
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pancreas
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Which of the following foods are the best sources of complex carbohydrates? a) Milk and dairy products b) Meat, fish, and poultry c) Fats and oils d) Cereals and grains
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Cereals and grains
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A diet high in dietary fiber can help reduce the risk of developing: a) diverticular disease. b) anemia. c) Type 1 diabetes. d) lactose intolerance.
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diverticular disease.
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A well-documented health problem associated with excess sugar intake is: a) dental caries. b) Type 1 diabetes. c) diverticular disease. d) constipation.
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dental caries.
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Which of the following statements about Type 1 diabetes is correct? a) This type of disease occurs when cells are no longer sensitive to insulin. b) Obesity is a major risk factor for developing this disease. c) The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin. d) Type 1 is the most common type of diabetes.
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The immune system destroys the pancreatic cells that produce insulin.
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Which of the following types of diabetes is classified as an autoimmune disease? a) Gestational b) Type 2 c) Type 1 d) All of these choices are correct.
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Type 1
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An oligosaccharide is a: a) disaccharide found in fruits and vegetables. b) storage form of plant starch. c) carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units. d) form of artificial sweetener.
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carbohydrate containing 3-10 sugar units.
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Which of the following is the best source of dietary fiber? a) 2 scrambled eggs b) 1 small doughnut c) A 4 ounce salmon filet d) 1 cup of broccoli
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1 cup of broccoli
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Sucrose is composed of: a) many molecules of glucose linked together. b) two molecules of glucose. c) a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose. d) two molecules of fructose.
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a molecule of fructose and a molecule of glucose.
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Fish oils are a good dietary source of: a) emulsifiers. b) tropical oils. c) omega-3 fatty acids. d) trans fatty acids.
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omega-3 fatty acids.
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The end of a fatty acid chain containing a methyl group is also referred to as the __________ end. a) omega b) alpha c) delta d) acid
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omega
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__________ can help fat and water mix by breaking large fat globules into smaller ones. a) Bile b) Pancreatic lipase c) Eicosanoids d) Cholesterol
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Bile
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A fatty acid with only single bonds between carbon atoms is called a(n) ________ fatty acid. a) saturated b) unsaturated c) hydrophobic d) hydrophilic
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saturated
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Current recommendations regarding fat intake suggest a healthy diet should: a) contain at least 20% of total kcals from saturated fats. b) provide 20 to 35% of total calories (kcal) from fat. c) limit the intake of foods high in monounsaturated fatty acids. d) All of these are healthy recommendations regarding fat intake.
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provide 20 to 35% of total calories (kcal) from fat.
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Bile, vitamin D, and some hormones such as testosterone and estrogen are derived from: a) essential fatty acids. b) cholesterol. c) trans fatty acids. d) phospholipids.
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cholesterol.
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Chylocmicrons are formed in the: a) intestine. b) liver. c) lymph. d) blood.
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intestine.
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When energy is ingested in excess of needs, the excess: a) is lost as heat. b) is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue. c) is converted into cholesterol and stored in the liver. d) is metabolized by the muscles and stored as ATP.
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is converted into triglycerides and stored in adipose tissue.
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__________ fatty acids are not synthesized by the body. a) Nonessential b) Saturated c) Short chain d) Essential
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Essential
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To estimate protein requirements, you must know a person's: a) body weight. b) urinary ammonia output. c) height. d) All of these would be required.
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body weight.
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The amino acid pool refers to amino acids: a) which are soluble in bodily fluids. b) present in body tissues and fluids and that are available for protein synthesis or to generate ATP. c) which are used by the body for building muscle tissue. d) which the body is not able to make and must be supplied by the diet.
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present in body tissues and fluids and that are available for protein synthesis or to generate ATP.
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Protein-energy malnutrition is characterized by: a) increased susceptibility to food allergies. b) wasting and increased susceptibility to infection. c) excessive urinary output. d) hyperglycemia.
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wasting and increased susceptibility to infection.
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A limiting amino acid: a) does not supply the element nitrogen. b) is present in short supply relative to the body's need. c) cannot be used by the body during protein synthesis. d) is used to synthesize non-protein molecules that contain nitrogen.
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is present in short supply relative to the body's need.
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If the shape of a protein is altered due to a genetic mutation, the _______________ of the protein may be affected. a) nutritional value b) functionality c) taste d) texture
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functionality
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Complete protein sources can be found in which MyPyramid food group? a) Fats and oils b) Fruits and vegetables c) Dairy d) Grains
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Dairy
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Protein differs from carbohydrate and lipid in that protein: a) does not provide the body with a source of energy. b) is classified as an inorganic molecule. c) contains the element nitrogen. d) is not considered to be an essential nutrient.
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contains the element nitrogen.
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Protein denaturation can: a) alter the three-dimensional shape of a protein. b) decrease the nutritional value of a protein. c) alter the sequence of amino acids in a protein. d) break the peptide bonds holding a protein together.
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alter the three-dimensional shape of a protein
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Amino acids that cannot be made by the adult human body are termed: a) essential. b) hydrolyzable. c) incomplete. d) complete.
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essential
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Which of the following functions is performed by proteins in the body? a) Transport b) Structure c) Immunity d) All of these functions are performed by proteins.
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All of these functions are performed by proteins.
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Obesity is associated with an increased risk of: a) gallbladder disease. b) sleep apnea. c) arthritis. d) All of these choices are correct.
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All of these choices are correct.
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Which statement about BMI is correct? a) A BMI of 16-22 is defined as a healthy body weight. b) BMI is an excellent tool for predicting health risks for all body types. c) A BMI of ;20 is classified as underweight. d) A BMI over 30 is considered obese.
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A BMI over 30 is considered obese.
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Body fat is stored in cells called: a) adipocytes. b) enterocytes. c) hepatocytes. d) ? cells.
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adipocytes.
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The energy expended to digest and store nutrients is called: a) basal metabolic rate. b) digestive capacity thermogenesis. c) consumptive heat capacity. d) thermic effect of food.
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thermic effect of food.
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The three components of energy expenditure are: a) basal metabolism, energy consumption and protein metabolism. b) basal metabolism, physical activity and diet-induced thermogenesis. c) basal metabolism, resting heat conductance and consumptive capacity. d) physical activity, sleeping and eating.
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basal metabolism, physical activity and diet-induced thermogenesis.
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To provide glucose to the body between meals: a) fat is broken down. b) glycogen is broken down. c) internal organs are liquified. d) snacks must be consumed.
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glycogen is broken down.
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In order to lose fat, not lean tissue, what is the recommended rate of weight loss? a) 1/2 to 2 pounds per week b) 1 to 3 pounds per week c) 2 to 4 pounds per week d) No more than 30 pounds/month
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1/2 to 2 pounds per week
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Long term healthy weight loss is based on all the following principles EXCEPT: a) increasing physical activity. b) adopting lifelong changes in eating habits. c) eating foods in the "right" combinations to burn more calories. d) moderate portion sizes.
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eating foods in the "right" combinations to burn more calories.
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Which brain region regulates long-term food intake and energy expenditure? a) Cerebellum b) Cortex c) Frontal lobe d) Hypothalamus
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Hypothalamus
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What is a common outcome of "yo-yo" dieting? a) Decreased likelihood that future weight loss efforts will be successful b) Malnutrition c) Anorexia nervosa d) Redistribution of subcutaneous body fat
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Decreased likelihood that future weight loss efforts will be successful
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Which lifestyle factor increases the requirement for vitamin C? a) Drinking alcohol b) Exercising frequently and intensely c) Smoking cigarettes d) Eating a diet high in fiber
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Smoking cigarettes
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Choline deficiency may contribute to all of the following EXCEPT: a) neurological disorders. b) development of diabetes. c) atherosclerosis. d) liver disease.
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development of diabetes.
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The role of folate in DNA synthesis makes it particularly important in: a) lipid synthesis. b) rapidly dividing cells. c) nerve cells. d) old age.
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rapidly dividing cells.
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Which statement about niacin is true? a) There is no UL established for niacin intake. b) Niacin is important in the production of energy from dietary nutrients. c) Niacin deficiency causes adverse effects in limited areas of the body. d) Niacin is needed to synthesize tryptophan.
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Niacin is important in the production of energy from dietary nutrients.
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A person consuming a diet deficient in dairy products but otherwise adequate, would have the most difficulty obtaining sufficient amounts of which vitamin? a) Niacin b) Riboflavin c) Iron d) Vitamin C
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Riboflavin
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Which B vitamin decreases the risk of neural tube defects in developing babies? a) Riboflavin b) Biotin c) B12 d) Folic acid
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Folic acid
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Which term describes how well a vitamin is absorbed and used by the body? a) Adsorption b) Assimilation c) Bioavailability d) Functionality
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Bioavailability
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Symptoms of ariboflavinosis do NOT include: a) inflammation of the eyes and mouth. b) scaly, greasy skin eruptions. c) confusion. d) megoblastic anemia.
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megoblastic anemia.
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Vitamin B6 is NOT involved in which physiologic process? a) Formation of non-essential amino acids b) Hemoglobin synthesis c) Collagen formation d) Formation of white blood cells important for immunity
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Collagen formation
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Niacin supplements: a) are commonly used in the US since niacin deficiency is a public health concern. b) provide an essential energy boost. c) may decrease LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol. d) are associated with an increase in heart attacks.
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may decrease LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
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Which is NOT considered a good dietary source of vitamin E? a) Fortified breakfast cereals b) Soybean oil c) Peanuts d) Dark orange and yellow vegetables
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Dark orange and yellow vegetables
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A vitamin D-deficiency disease in adults which is characterized by weak or soft bones is called: a) keratomalacia. b) osteomalacia. c) rickets. d) osteoporosis.
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osteomalacia.
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Which statement about frozen foods is INCORRECT? a) Freezing vegetables causes nutrient losses. b) Fresh produce in grocery stores always has higher nutrient content than frozen produce. c) Produce is often frozen in the fields where it is grown. d) Freezing slows the loss of nutrients caused by exposure to heat, light and air.
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Fresh produce in grocery stores always has higher nutrient content than frozen produce.
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Which vitamin has the best known role in cell differentiation? a) A b) D c) E d) K
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A
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Beta-carotene is LEAST plentiful in which food? a) Mangos b) Mustard greens c) Kiwis d) Carrots
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Kiwis
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A vitamin D-deficiency syndrome characterized by bone deformities in children is called: a) rickets. b) xerophthalmia. c) scurvy. d) osteomalacia.
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rickets
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When consumption of __________is insufficient, vitamin A absorption is decreased. a) protein b) fat c) carbohydrate d) water
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fat
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The primary function of vitamin E is: a) to act as an antioxidant. b) to increase absorption of calcium in the small intestine. c) to regulate acid-base balance. d) to regulate glucose levels.
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to act as an antioxidant
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Excessive intake of vitamin A from supplements could cause all of the following EXCEPT: a) liver damage. b) birth defects. c) increased incidence of bone fracture. d) acne.
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acne.
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The actions of vitamin D do NOT include: a) regulating thyroid hormone synthesis. b) stimulating intestinal calcium absorption. c) breaking down of bone to release calcium into the blood. d) increasing calcium reabsorption by the kidneys.
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regulating thyroid hormone synthesis.
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Positively and negatively charged ions in water are called: a) solvents. b) non-polar. c) electrolytes. d) inert.
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electrolytes
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Fluid requirements for infants are proportionately greater than those for adults because: a) infants have less surface area for evaporation. b) infants are more active than adults. c) infants weigh less than adults. d) infants have immature kidneys that are not able to concentrate urine.
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infants have immature kidneys that are not able to concentrate urine.
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A water loss of _______ of body weight can impair physical and cognitive performance. a) 1-2% b) 5-7% c) 10% d) 20%
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1-2%
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Which is LEAST likely to be implicated as a contributor to hypertension? a) High levels of carbonated beverage consumption b) Stress c) Heavy alcohol consumption d) Lack of physical activity
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High levels of carbonated beverage consumption
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Good sources of potassium include all of the following EXCEPT: a) tomatoes. b) bananas. c) snack crackers. d) potatoes.
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snack crackers.
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Electrolyte deficiency most likely occurs: a) when people don't choose foods carefully. b) when losses are extreme. c) when fewer than 8 glasses of water are consumed per day. d) as a result of decongestant medications.
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when losses are extreme.
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Water found inside cells of the body is called: a) intercellular fluid. b) extracellular fluid. c) intracellular fluid. d) interstitial fluid.
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intracellular fluid.
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The shrinking of a strawberry from water loss after being sprinkled with sugar is an example of: a) condensation. b) osmosis. c) alkalosis. d) diffusion.
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osmosis.
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All of the following are ways to reduce sodium intake in your diet EXCEPT: a) replacing processed foods with unprocessed foods. b) choosing canned vegetables rather than frozen vegetables. c) choosing roasted turkey rather than bologna. d) preparing your meals at home.
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choosing canned vegetables rather than frozen vegetables.
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The risk of hypertension is lowest for which of the following groups? a) Non-hispanic whites b) Diabetics c) Obese individuals d) African Americans
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Non-hispanic whites
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Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium? a) Muscle contraction b) ATP stabilization c) Blood pressure regulation d) Neurotransmitter release
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ATP stabilization
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Which is the correct relationship between smoking and drinking and osteoporosis risk? a) Smoking increases risk while drinking decreases it. b) Smoking and drinking both increase risk. c) Smoking decreases risk while drinking increases it. d) Smoking and drinking both decrease risk.
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Smoking and drinking both increase risk.
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The following minerals all compete with each other for absorption EXCEPT: a) calcium. b) sodium. c) copper. d) zinc.
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sodium.
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All of the following decrease the risk of osteoporosis EXCEPT: a) weight bearing exercise. b) low body weight. c) increased muscle mass. d) high body weight and fat.
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low body weight.
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When blood calcium is low, parathyroid hormone raises levels by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a) increasing appetite for calcium containing foods. b) activating vitamin D. c) reducing calcium excretion by the kidney. d) stimulating calcium release from bone.
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increasing appetite for calcium containing foods.
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The most abundant mineral in the body is: a) calcium. b) sodium. c) potassium. d) magnesium.
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calcium.
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Phosphorus is essential for energy production since it is part of: a) ATP. b) NADH. c) FADH2. d) DNA.
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ATP.
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Which statement about vitamin D is correct? a) It promotes active transport of calcium across the intestine. b) It is required for the passive transport of calcium across the intestine. c) Vitamin D is most necessary when calcium intake is high. d) Adequate consumption increases the absorption of calcium to 50%.
answer
It promotes active transport of calcium across the intestine.
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After 35 to 45 years of age: a) bone formation exceeds bone breakdown. b) bone formation is equal to bone breakdown. c) bone breakdown exceeds bone formation. d) the skeleton is typically weak and fractures easily.
answer
bone breakdown exceeds bone formation.
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Whether an element is classified as a major or as a trace mineral is determined by: a) the amounts needed daily by the body. b) where they are absorbed in the digestive tract. c) how critical they are for metabolic processes. d) where they are found on the periodic table.
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the amounts needed daily by the body.
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Chromium is thought to work by: a) binding to insulin. b) slowing the absorption of glucose. c) interacting with the insulin receptor. d) stimulating the pancreas.
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interacting with the insulin receptor.
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Which statement about chromium supplementation is the most accurate? a) Supplementation may improve the symptoms of type 2 diabetes. b) Chromium supplementation increases lean body mass. c) It leads to weight loss. d) It may improve athletic performance.
answer
Supplementation may improve the symptoms of type 2 diabetes.
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The poorest source of fluoride among the following is: a) toothpaste. b) foods cooked with Teflon. c) tea. d) pork.
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pork
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Which of the following is an excellent source of selenium? a) Salmon b) Kiwi c) Potato d) Drinking water
answer
Salmon
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Which statement about fluoride is FALSE? a) Fluoride is poorly absorbed, with only ~20% transported across the intestine. b) Calcium containing foods decrease fluoride absorption. c) Fluoridated water typically contains 0.7-1.2 ppm fluoride. d) Fluoride has the greatest effect on caries prevention before age 13.
answer
Fluoride is poorly absorbed, with only ~20% transported across the intestine.
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Excess fluoride consumption may cause: a) arthritis. b) diarrhea. c) hives and dermatitis. d) mottled teeth.
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mottled teeth.
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Marginal chromium deficiency has been linked to: a) breast cancer. b) polio. c) strokes. d) type 2 diabetes.
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type 2 diabetes.
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Fluoride has shown to be most effective in preventing: a) colon cancer. b) dental caries. c) osteomalacia. d) obesity.
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dental caries
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Proteins containing selenium as a component of their amino acids are called: a) glutathione peroxidases. b) selenoenzymes. c) selenoproteins. d) superoxide dismutases.
answer
selenoproteins.
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Which statement about phytochemicals is correct? a) There are hundreds of them. b) They serve no purpose in the plants in which they are found. c) All plant chemicals have some beneficial properties for humans. d) Animal tissues form many different types.
answer
There are hundreds of them.
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Phytoestrogens include a) isoflavones and alliums. b) indoles and lignins. c) alliums and indoles. d) isoflavones and indoles.
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isoflavones and indoles.
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A high intake of carotenoid containing foods has been correlated with a reduced risk of all of the following except a) some cancers. b) cardiovascular disease. c) diabetes. d) age related eye disease.
answer
diabetes.
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The GRAS list was part of the 1958 Food Additives Amendment. GRAS stands for: a) Generally Recognized as Safe. b) Greatly Reduced Additive Supply. c) Green Resource Action Section. d) Generally Reputable As a Source.
answer
Generally Recognized as Safe
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Which statement about antibiotics is FALSE? a) Antibiotic use in animals may contribute to the creation of antibiotic resistant bacteria. b) Almost half of the antibiotics produced in the US are used to prevent disease in animals. c) Antibiotics are used to promote growth in animals. d) Antibiotic use in animals is not regulated.
answer
Antibiotic use in animals is not regulated.
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Wiping a soiled counter with a cloth, then wiping a cutting board with the same cloth is an example of: a) a critical control point transfer. b) cross-contamination. c) HACCP. d) a potentiated zone.
answer
cross-contamination.
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To limit the effects of nitrosamines, compounds known to be carcinogenic in animals, one should do all of the following EXCEPT: a) limit consumption of nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, such as hotdogs. b) limit consumption of dried fruits treated with sulfites. c) consume adequate amounts of antioxidants, such as vitamins C and E. d) limit consumption of cured meats to 3-4 ounces per week.
answer
limit consumption of dried fruits treated with sulfites.
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A "use by" date indicates: a) the last day that a product can be safely consumed. b) the last day the product is likely to be at peak flavor, freshness and texture. c) the last day that a store can sell a product. d) the date by which significant deterioration has already occurred.
answer
the last day the product is likely to be at peak flavor, freshness and texture.
question
Which legislative action prohibits the use of any food additive that has been shown to produce cancer in animals at any dose? a) Delaney Clause b) GRAS list c) Pure Food Act d) Standard of Identity Act
answer
Delaney Clause
question
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are a concern because of: a) their cancer-causing potential. b) their ability to bind nutrients in the food. c) their potential to cause heart attacks. d) the fact that they contain E. coli O157:H7.
answer
their cancer-causing potential.
question
A method that places sterilized food in a sterilized package using a sterile process is called: a) sterilized processing. b) aseptic processing. c) food preservation. d) bacterial elimination processing.
answer
aseptic processing.