Sports program and management Final

Approximately how many athletes are in the four (4) major sports leagues? A. 1,400 B. 4,300 C. 2,400 D. 3,200

In the four major sports leagues how many agents are registered or certified with the respective players associations? A. 1,600-1,800 B. 500-750 C. 4,500-5,000 D. 1,000-1,200

Who is often called the first sports agent? A. George Herman B. C. C. Pyle C. Christy Walsh D. Bill Hayes

The two players who staged a joint holdout for a higher salary were A. Red Grange and Jim Thorpe. B. Muhammad Ali and Joe Frazier. C. Mickey Mantle and Roger Maris. D. Sandy Koufax and Don Drysdale.

One of the first agents to represent individual athletes and a pioneer of the sport marketing industry is A. Edwin Land. B. David Falk. C. Mark H. McCormack. D. Walt Disney.

The first players association to negotiate the right for players to be represented by agents was the A. Major League Baseball Players Association. B. National Football League Players Association. C. National Basketball League Players Association. D. National Hockey League Players Association.

A collective bargaining agreement is A. A contract for all players in the league. B. Another term for a standard player contract. C. An agreement between a player and an agent. D. A statue that determines the rights of a player and league.

The reserve system in Major League Baseball was A. a rule that allowed the designated hitter to only hit and not field. B. a rule that limited a free and open market for players. C. a rule that allowed the players to serve in the army reserve. D. a rule that allowed arbitration of player disputes.

The three models for a sport agency business does not includes A. a freestanding sport management firm. B. a law practice only. C. a players association and a sport management firm. D. a sport management firm affiliated with a law firm.

Which one does not describe the ways that players associations support players? A. Providing them with salary and contract data. B. Providing them with information to support negotiations. C. Providing them with guidance in salary and labor arbitration. D. Providing them with equipment and instruction to enable them to perform at the highest possible level.

Which of the following does not describe the functions performed by a sport agent? A. Negotiating and administering the athlete’s or coaches contract B. Marketing C. Financial planning D. Negotiating the collective bargaining contract for the player or coach

The Professional Golf Association (PGA) restricts individual golfers from entering into endorsement unless it is A. related to golf only. B. with companies that sponsor the PGA tour. C. “in good taste.” D. does not conflict with the LPGA.

Five key problems in the sport agency profession do NOT include A. the agents’ lack of understanding of the rules of the game. B. income mismanagement. C. conflict of interest. D. overly aggressive client recruiting.

The most devastating problem that an athlete may have with his agent is probably A. inability to reach the agent when an important situation arises. B. the agent signs the player to an endorsement contract for a product or service he does not use. C. income mismanagement. D. the agent not being a lawyer.

Tank Black is A. the name of a team in the now defunct XFL Football League. B. the name of a famous football play executed by Red Grange at the height of his career. C. the name of a secret United States government weapon. D. a football agent who was sentenced to 5 years in prison for swindling NFL players he represented.

Who was the “endorsement king of the pre-Michael Jordan era?” A. Red Grange B. Carl Yastrzemski C. Arnold Palmer D. Bart Starr

All of the following are objectives of person-centered branding except A. contriving an image to fit a product or brand. B. capitalizing on an athlete’s recent performance. C. creating an authentic brand based on who a person is. D. focusing on a person’s identity to establish an enduring brand.

When negotiating an endorsement contract the agent should be certain to maintain the client’s exclusive rights and control over his or her A. uniform that they will wear. B. image and other endorsements. C. lines that they will speak in a commercial. D. None of these are correct.

An agent must help an athlete with the transition from a professional playing career as an athlete and with A. postcareer planning and retirement B. choosing the next sport to play C. family counseling D. reviewing tapes of his or her career

Public assembly facilities have existed since A. the early 1900s. B. the invention of baseball in the Elysian fields of the 1840s. C. ancient times. D. medieval times.

All of the following were publicly financed stadiums efficiently built with the intention of housing both a football team and a baseball team except A. Veterans Stadium (Philadelphia). B. Meadowlands (Northern New Jersey). C. Three Rivers Stadium (Pittsburgh). D. Riverfront Stadium (Cincinnati).

Modern arenas and stadiums have directly helped owners to maximize revenues through all of the following except A. preferred seating. B. parking. C. modernized locker rooms. D. additional sponsorship opportunities.

______ are indoor facilities with the primary purpose of hosting sporting and entertainment events. A. Stadiums B. Theaters C. Convention centers D. Arenas

______ are outdoor or domed facilities built with the intention of housing sporting and entertainment events. A. Stadiums B. Theaters C. Convention centers D. Arenas

______ are almost always publicly owned facilities built to lure business meetings to a municipality. A. Stadiums B. Theaters C. Convention centers D. Arenas

______ are public assembly facilities primarily utilized for the presentation of live artistic entertainment. A. Stadiums B. Theaters C. Convention centers D. Arenas

The main nonsport events for stadiums are A. political conventions. B. arts and crafts shows. C. the circus. D. concerts given by performers.

The difference between the economic impact upon a municipality by a convention center as opposed to a stadium or arena built for housing sporting events is A. business events lead to higher spending. B. sporting events lead to higher spending. C. the increased presence of visitor spending within a municipality. D. visitors receive the benefits of a convention center.

All of the following are reasons for a municipality to subsidize stadium/arena construction except A. economic benefits. B. civic pride and community spirit. C. public relations boost of being “major league city.” D. improved quality of life in city.

The money to build facilities is usually obtained through A. bonds. B. taxes. C. corporate investment. D. facility revenues.

All of the following are major advantages to private management of public assembly facilities except A. easier event booking. B. operational efficiencies. C. better sport team performance. D. labor negotiation resources.

______ act primarily as in-house advertising agents for the various events booked into facilities. A. Public relations directors B. Event directors C. Booking directors D. Marketing directors

The _____ acts as the point person for the facility in managing each game or show. A. public relations director B. event director C. marketing director D. operations director

The ______ is responsible for landing and scheduling events for a facility. A. public relations director B. event director C. booking director D. marketing director

All of the following are part of a crowd management plan except A. using security personnel and ushers. B. knowing the location of and route to the nearest hospitals. C. categorizing the type of event. D. having an emergency plan.

A more professional focus of running events started to take place during the late 1800s. The catalyst for such a professional focus emphasis occurred due to A. the multitude of events that were occurring. B. the number of career opportunities. C. television’s impact on events. D. a desire to increase profits.

The touring of star athletes and teams to promote the popularity of a particular sport were A. baseball games. B. barnstorming tours. C. started by George Halas and the Chicago Bears. D. used to promote the sport of soccer in the early 1900s.

A sport management/marketing agency is defined as a business A. that acts on behalf of athletes only. B. that acts on behalf of sport teams only. C. initially established to represent the legal and marketing interests of athletes. D. that runs sports events only.

International Management Group (IMG) was founded in 1960 by A. Leigh Steinberg B. Arnold Palmer C. David Dunn D. Mark McCormack

IMG was originally formed to A. locate endorsement opportunities for a professional golfer. B. manage and promote events. C. organize televised events involving clients (athletes). D. increase revenue potential through additional activities surrounding the core sporting event.

The function of client marketing involves A. locating appropriate endorsement opportunities for clients. B. developing entertainment extensions for clients. C. booking personal appearances for clients. D. All of these are correct.

The growth in televised sports has led to A. the creation of television production divisions within some of the larger sport agencies. B. the creation of new sport events. C. the increase in potential revenue streams from television. D. All of these are correct.

Which of the following statements about market research is true? A. Sport organizations require market research to evaluate the success of events and initiatives. B. Market research is particularly crucial for corporations wanting to know the impact of their sponsorship activities. C. Market research is usually handled by sport marketing agencies that specialize in market research. D. All of these are correct.

The formation within major corporations of separate departments or divisions dealing with event management is called A. a full-service agency. B. a specialized agency. C. an in-house agency. D. an incorporated agency.

When a sport management/marketing agency limits either the scope of services performed or the type of clients serviced, it is known as A. a full-service agency. B. a specialized agency. C. an in-house agency. D. an incorporated agency.

Redmandarin is a London-based sport marketing agency that focuses on advising corporations on how to maximize their involvement with sponsorship opportunities. As such, Redmandarin is known as A. a full-service agency. B. a specialized agency. C. an in-house agency. D. an incorporated agency.

IMG operates divisions for athlete management services, event management services, licensing, broadcasting (both production and negotiation), Internet consulting, and marketing and consulting services. This firm covers the entire gamut of sport event and athlete functions. As such, IMG is known as A. a full-service agency. B. a specialized agency. C. an in-house agency. D. an incorporated agency.

Zero-base budgeting requires A. accounting for the receipt and timing of all sources and expenditures of cash. B. a review of all activities and related costs of an event as if it were the first time. C. informing the manager of the cash amount needed to pay expenses at predetermined times. D. usage of last year’s budget with only minor changes being allowed.

A common tool used by events to reduce the potential for a lawsuit is A. employing volunteers as full-time employees. B. not allowing minors to participate in the event. C. using a waiver and release of liability form. D. holding parents responsible for their child’s involvement in an event.

Numerous event organizers purchase insurance that can cover A. safety concerns. B. potential financial losses. C. None of these are correct. D. safety concerns and potential financial losses.

Sport events typically seek advertising of their event through A. purchasing on-air advertising time. B. none; costs too much money to advertise. C. in-house marketing strategies and activities. D. trade in-kind sponsorships with media outlets.

Hospitality is important to an event as it can A. provide a satisfying experience for stakeholders of the event. B. provide an opportunity to improve event loyalty. C. be used as a method to develop good working relationships with the media, thus attaining publicity for the event. D. All of these are correct.

What other channel can sport organizations and governing bodies use to access consumers other than traditional media broadcasting (TV and radio)? A. Broadcasting user-generated highlights via popular video-sharing sites such as YouTube B. Using social-networking sites such as Facebook, MySpace, and Second Life. C. Broadcasting over 350 live games on YouTube. D. All of these are correct.

The sale of licensed merchandise, items that display an event’s name or logo, is beneficial for the event promoter for what type of event? A. Small, local events such as a 10K road race B. Events involving popular sports such as a high school football game C. Large, televised, multiday events D. All events regardless of size or local, regional, or national appeal.

Fund-raising as a marketing tool is usually used and appropriate for what types of events? A. For-profit events B. Cause-related marketing efforts C. Charitable events D. Cause-related marketing efforts and charitable events E. For-profit events and charitable events

Providing a satisfying experience for all stakeholders (participants, spectators, media, and sponsors) of an event is called A. fund-raising. B. advertising. C. hospitality. D. public relations.

Perhaps no avenue within the sport industry holds more job opportunities, particularly at the entry level than A. communications. B. public relations. C. sales. D. finance.

Sales in the sport industry have shifted from A. a product-oriented approach to a consumer-oriented approach. B. a revenue source to a charitable promotional campaign. C. a concern among the major leagues to a concern among the minor league teams. D. a consumer-oriented approach to a product-oriented approach.

Sales in the sport industry places an emphasis on the importance of A. a given outcome. B. short-term day of game sales. C. sport sells itself. D. building long-term relationships with customers.

Historically, the sales process placed an emphasis on A. identifying and satisfying consumers’ wants and needs. B. developing long-term relationships with consumers and corporate partners. C. filling seats through the mass dissemination of free tickets to attract fans D. emphasized pre-sales training to sales personnel so they were properly trained before dealing with customers.

Today, there is a much higher level of sophistication and understanding of the sales process and its importance to the overall success of any sport organization due to A. the influx of professionally trained sport marketers. B. the continued evolution of sport management and marketing as a scientific discipline. C. the ever-increasing competition for the consumer’s entertainment dollar. D. All of these are correct.

Mark McCormack, founder of IMG, explained that selling consists of all of the following except A. having a winning team or product. B. getting through to your customers. C. the process of identifying customers. D. increasing customer awareness and interest in your product or services.

Each year, Team Marketing Report (TMR) publishes its Fan Cost Index (FCI). The FCI measures A. cost of facilities and rental costs to a team. B. cost of taking a family of four to a game (including tickets, parking, concessions, and souvenir costs). C. cost of player salaries per average fan attendance. D. cost of a mini-ticket plan versus season tickets.

In 2011, the average cost of tickets for a family of four to attend a professional sport game was lowest in which league? A. Baseball (MLB) B. Football (NFL) C. Basketball (NBA) D. All of the above had the same average cost of tickets

One element that distinguishes sport sales from the selling of other traditional consumer products or services is A. the value of the product or service. B. the price of the product or service. C. the presence of emotion. D. the facility in which the game is being held.

Sport organizations that collect demographic information (age, gender, education level, occupation, ethnicity) and psychographic (motivations, interests, and opinions) from customers are using which sales methodology? A. CRM system B. Direct mail solicitations C. Telemarketing D. Personal selling

When a sport organization wants to minimize expenses and reach only those people the organization wants to reach, they should use which sales method? A. Telemarketing B. Direct mail solicitations C. Personal selling D. On-site sales

Direct mail solicitations are advantageous in that they provide an opportunity to A. verbally explain the sales offer. B. counteract objections and answer questions. C. measure the effectiveness of the direct mail campaign. D. all of these are correct.

What approach should the sport organization follow when the product or service package the sport organization is selling does not meet the specific wants or needs of a consumer? A. Benefit selling B. Aftermarketing C. Up-selling D. Eduselling

When teams use Flex books, or undated coupons that can be redeemed for tickets to future games of the customers’ choosing, they are using which sales approach? A. Benefit selling B. Aftermarketing C. Up-selling D. Eduselling

The process of providing continued satisfaction and reinforcement to individuals or organizations who are past or current customers” is a definition of A. benefit selling. B. aftermarketing. C. up-selling. D. eduselling.

The “escalator concept” is used when the sport organization is participating in A. benefit selling. B. aftermarketing. C. up-selling. D. eduselling.

Remaining in constant communication with customers, and displaying a vested interest in achieving customers’ business goals is an example of a sport organization participating in A. benefit selling. B. aftermarketing. C. up-selling. D. eduselling.`

According to Mark McCormack, what is one of the most important assets a salesman can have? A. An awareness of when you are imposing B. An ability to look professional/look the part C. An ability to have an answer for any question D. An ability to frame your product/service any way in order to sell to anyone

Mullin, Hardy, and Sutton (2007) describe the game ticket inventory as a “club sandwich”. What “recipe,” or appropriate percentage of customers, do the authors suggest a sport organization should have as season ticket equivalencies to maximize ticket sales revenue? A. 50% B. 25% C. 20% D. 5%

When the Dayton Dragons opened the gates of their new field in April of 2000 with what the team dubbed the “world’s largest outdoor billboard” they were using the strategy of A. advertising clutter. B. representing 75-300 sponsors. C. dominant identity. D. sponsorship overload.

The continuing influx of new sport leagues, teams, and events has created A. more and more options for companies large and small to engage in sport sponsorship. B. the growing need for sport organizations to think outside the box. C. the increasingly competitive sport marketplace for sponsorship dollars. D. All of these are correct.

The most successful sport organizations in attracting and retaining sponsorship partners are those that do all of the following except A. best meet the needs and objectives of companies. B. deliver on their promises. C. sign as many sponsors as possible. D. think of innovative strategies that provide unique sponsorship opportunities.

For the major professional sport leagues and associations, sponsorships involve A. a variety of marketing-mix elements designed to send messages to a targeted audience. B. one primary sponsor provided with exclusivity across all sponsorship categories. C. fees that usually never exceed $1,000,000 per year. D. one-year deals, as leagues and associations avoid multiyear commitments.

Sponsorship provides a company with all of the following except A. opportunities to leverage its affiliation in order to achieve marketing objectives. B. opportunities to generate incremental sales by entertaining key customers. C. opportunities to generate positive awareness for the company and its products or services. D. opportunities to receive revenue back from the team or league based on success on the field/court.

Which of the following has been described as a watershed in the evolution of sport sponsorship? A. Los Angeles Olympic Games B. Development of the X Games C. NFL’s Super Bowl D. College basketball’s March Madness

The man behind the success of the new commercial mind-set brought to the Los Angeles Olympics was A. Mark McCormack. B. Peter Ueberroth. C. Roone Arledge. D. Bill Veeck.

Reasons for the tremendous growth in sport sponsorship over the past three decades include A. the commercial success of the Los Angeles Olympics. B. the increased media interest in sport. C. sponsorship being viewed as a way for companies to break through the clutter of traditional advertising. D. All of these are correct.

Targeted sponsorships enable corporate marketers to reach A. specific segments, such as heavy users. B. shareholders and investors. C. specific groups that have similar demographics, psychographics, or geographic commonality. D. All of these are correct.

One major reason why Golden Flake Snack Foods selected the Southeastern Conference (SEC) as a sponsorship platform was the ability to tap into the A. male demographic. B. middle class demographic. C. female and family demographic. D. Southeast region of the United States

Today’s sport sponsorship can be described as A. companies delving into a sponsorship program because the CEO wants to. B. a discipline involving serious research, large investments, and strategic planning. C. a company’s CEO being knowledgeable about the sport sponsorship business and making the decision him- or herself. D. a company wanting to be associated with a sport team because of the interaction with professional athletes.

Return on investment (ROI) in the sport sponsorship world is defined as A. the interest rate and gain realized from financial investments. B. meeting the company’s specific marketing and sales objectives in some measurable way. C. financial gain the company realizes as a result of their sponsorship. D. financial gain the sport team realizes as a result of their sponsorship.

The concept requiring that the sponsor commit financial resources in support of its sponsorship through promotion and advertising that thematically includes the sport property’s imagery is known as A. activation. B. cross promotion. C. return on investment. D. sales promotion.

Sales promotions in sport sponsorships are designed to A. be long-term promotional activities. B. acquire customer loyalty among young fans. C. drive sales over the long term. D. stimulate immediate product demand.

Sales promotions may be aimed at A. increasing brand awareness. B. broadening the sales distribution channels for their product or service. C. getting new consumers to sample their product or service. D. All of these are correct.

A cereal company activates its NASCAR sponsorship by offering consumers a free mini-car for consumers who purchase specially marked boxes. This is an example of what type of promotion? A. Premium B. Point-of-sale C. Sampling D. Freestanding inserts

One of the most effective sales promotion tools often used with a new product to induce consumers to try a product is A. coupons. B. point-of-purchase displays. C. contests and sweepstakes. D. sampling.

The joining together of two or more companies to capitalize on a sponsorship is known as A. cross-promotion. B. team sponsorship. C. activation. D. return on investment.

Which of the following are typical of the contractual commitments made by sport sponsors? A. A rights fee in the form of a cash payment B. A single year commitment C. A promise to provide services at a discount to league employees and players D. All of these are correct.

Which type of sponsorship platform would be more appropriate for larger, international companies with large financial resources? A. Team sponsorship B. Broadcast sponsors C. Sport-specific sponsorship D. Governing body sponsorship

Which type of sponsorship platform would be more appropriate for local or regional companies or companies with smaller marketing budgets? A. Governing body sponsorship B. Team sponsorship C. Athlete sponsorship D. Facility sponsorship

One of the fastest-growing sponsorship platforms is A. athlete sponsorship. B. facility sponsorship, most notably in the form of naming rights agreements. C. team sponsorship. D. media channel sponsorship.

In measuring return-on-investment (ROI) from sport sponsorships, companies have used all of the following methods except A. periodic consumer surveys. B. professional research companies such as Sponsorship Research International (SRi). C. QScores scale. D. sales/promotion bounceback measures.

More and more corporations are directing a portion of their sport sponsorship spending to ethnic marketing because of A. the ability of international audiences to resonate with consumers both in the United States and foreign countries. B. the expanding market of ethnic consumers. C. the increasing globalization of sport. D. All of these are correct.

______ is the attempt by a person or organization to benefit from media coverage. A. Public relations B. Marketing C. Publicity D. Advertising

Stakeholders are groups and individuals who have an interest in an organization. Of the following, who are stakeholders? A. Media rightsholders B. Fans C. Sponsors D. All of these are correct. E. None of these are correct.

In times of crisis, why is the Internet a useful tool for a sport communications practitioner? A. It provides a location for stakeholders to receive accurate information. B. It allows the practitioner to reach the stakeholders in the timeliest manner. C. A corporate site has become the first location for stakeholders to look. D. All of these are correct.

The three disciplines integrated marketing communications combines are A. advertising, direct marketing, public relations. B. public relations, retailing, advertising. C. advertising, communications, retailing. D. marketing, communications, management.

Which of these statements about community relations is true? A. Objectives include the development of substantive programs to benefit charitable causes as well as educational and outreach programs in an organization’s local business area. B. Programs allow organizations and their athletes a chance to give back to the communities in which they live and work. C. Activities include in-kind contributions of licensed merchandise, game tickets, and autographed memorabilia to help a cause raise funds through auctions, special events, and raffles. D. All of these are correct.

Community relations activities are intended to A. generate significant and substantial publicity for a sport organization. B. create a benevolent reputation of an organization in the eyes of the public. C. make up for the high salaries that are always reported about in the news. D. be the most visible of all public relations activities.

A video news release (VNR) is A. identical to a b-roll. B. a preproduced piece that includes a written story summary or press release that is edited for broadcast, making it more attractive for a TV producer to air. C. used to supplement a press conference. D. All of these are correct.

______ combines elements of computing, technology, telecommunications, and content to create products and services to be used interactively by consumers and business users. A. Integrated marketing communications B. Internal marketing communications C. New media industry D. A website

An ______ is an interchange of information between two or more parties that has a specific purpose or goal. A. interview B. electronic newsletter C. integrated marketing communication D. internal marketing communication

A ______ is “the basic interpretive mechanism to let people know what an organization is doing and are sent out to editors and reporters in hopes of stimulating favorable stories about their organizations” (Seitel, 2001). A. media guide B. b-roll C. conference call D. press release

One of the most recent trends in public relations activities by sport teams, leagues, players associations, and college athletics is government relations. Government relations is another term for A. community relations activities done on a city, state, and federal level. B. lobbying of state and federal officials. C. tax benefits for teams, leagues, and college athletic organizations. D. free tickets given to elected officials.

The typical success rate of a direct marketing campaign is where a positive response comes from approximately ______ % of respondents. A. 50 B. 20 C. 2 D. 7

______ is “information placed in the media by an identified sponsor that pays for the time or space. It is a controlled method of placing messages in the media” (Cutlip, Center, and Broom, 20011). A. Advertising B. A direct mail campaign C. Media planning D. Direct marketing

Choosing the correct medium to place advertising requires a thorough examination of each potential outlet’s ability to reach the most people fitting a target audience’s demographic profile is known as A. advertising. B. media planning. C. direct marketing. D. external communications.

_____ is, according to Seitel (2001), the symbiosis of advertising, marketing, and public relations. A. Direct marketing B. Internal communications C. Integrated marketing communications D. The new media industry

______ contain all the statistical information and biographical information about two teams competing in a game, both from an individual and team perspective. A. Media guides B. Media notes packages C. Press releases D. Integrated marketing communications

A/an ______ can help a sport organization decide how its advertising dollars can be effectively spent in the media of TV, print, and the Internet. A. media planner B. outside public relations firm C. media buyer D. crisis team

One of the most overlooked forms of communication is internal communications. Internal communications involve A. communicating to the organization’s own staff. B. advertising on an organization’s website viewed by its valued fans. C. the symbiosis of advertising, marketing, and public relations. D. None of these are correct.

What statement below is not a true one regarding sport communications? A. All sport communications professionals should hold sport management degrees. B. The growth in popularity in sport organizations, partly due to the increased media coverage, has created a corresponding growth in positions available in the sport communications area. C. Sport communications has expanded into the areas of public relations, media relations, and community relations. D. Sport communications has seen dramatic changes over the past 20 years in terms of the number of stakeholders involved as well as the methods used to communicate with those stakeholders.

Sport communication professionals may find themselves or their organizations in some legal trouble if they commit ______ in the course of sharing “news” with a representative of the media. A. a contract violation B. defamation (libel and/or slander) C. a criminal act D. an antitrust violation

The financial success of a sport organization and the media are inextricably linked. In fact some sports teams are in fact owned by media conglomerates. Which of the following is not owned by a media conglomerate? A. The Boston Red Sox B. The New York Rangers C. The New York Knicks and Liberty D. The Mighty Ducks and Anaheim Angels

Which of these events happened in the early 1960s and changed both ABC and sport television profoundly? Choose all that apply. A. ABC purchased Sports Programs, Inc., an independent sport and production company that became ABC Sports. B. The Cleveland Rams became the first team to televise all of its home and away games. C. ABC acquired rights to the new American Football League (AFL). D. An innovative anthology series, ABC’s Wide World of Sports, debuted.

The YES network A. is a network launched by the New York Yankees in 2001. B. provides coverage of 125 Yankees games per season. C. features programming on the Yankees and programming of other sports during the baseball offseason. D. All of these are correct.

A television program’s “share” represents A. the division of revenues between the rightsholder and the network. B. the percentage of television households watching television at the time. C. advertising revenues generated by the program. D. All of the above.

Who is responsible for revolutionizing telecasts of sports by including close-up shots of cheerleaders, school bands, the crowd, and players and coaches on the sidelines? A. Howard Cosell B. Pete Rozelle C. Kenesaw Landis D. Roone Arledge

Alexander Graham Bell first demonstrated the telephone in what year? A. 1776 B. 1876 C. 1856 D. 1901

The first commercial radio broadcast was A. on November 2, 1920. B. on November 11, 1918 announcing the end of World War I. C. on January 1, 1900. D. None of these are correct.

In 1938, what company prevailed in a lawsuit against a broadcasting company when the court ruled that the home team controls all commercial broadcasting rights to a sport event—a core principal in the sport industry to this day? A. Twentieth Century Sporting Club, Inc. B. Philadelphia Athletic Co. C. Pittsburgh Athletic Co. D. Crosley Radio, Inc.

The Sports Broadcasting Act of 1961 A. provided an antitrust exemption for pooled media rights agreements by professional sport leagues. B. guarded against indecency and lead to larger and less revealing uniforms. C. mandated color television of sporting events by 1970. D. ensured that every single Notre Dame football game would be nationally televised.

Who produced the program that opened with the phrase “Spanning the globe to bring you the constant variety of sport—The thrill of victory, and the agony of defeat”? A. Pete Rozelle B. Roone Arledge C. Howard Cosell D. Joe Foss

In 1970, Monday Night Football debuted. It was the first sports programming series A. to have ex-players and broadcast journalists work together on-air. B. in primetime. C. produced by Roone Arledge that was not a ratings success. D. All of these are correct.

Which of the following is involved in a typical rights agreement? A. Number of commercials units to be included in telecast B. Procedures for preempting coverage in cases of inclement weather C. Territory of distribution D. All of these are correct.

A television program’s “rating” represents A. the percentage of an audience that is women. B. the percentage of households having at least one television set that are tuned in to a particular program. C. a system of critical acclaim first instituted by the Nielson Company. D. a form of financial support for an event or a telecast.

In a formal licensing agreement between a league or team and a manufacturer, which of the following describes the league or team? A. Licensee B. Licensor C. Royalty D. None of these is correct.

Who assumes the majority of the risk in most formal licensing agreements? A. Licensee B. Licensor C. Royalty D. None of these are correct.

Kevin Plank, a former University of Maryland athlete, founded what company by selling products out of the trunk of his car? A. Nike B. Hillerich & Bradsby C. Original Maple Bat Company D. Under Armour

Nike began as an offshoot of what company? A. Blue Ribbon Sports B. Spalding C. Hillerich & Bradsby D. Callaway

Albert G. Spalding gained credibility with consumers for his baseballs by obtaining what? A. A patent on the production of a baseball B. Official supplier status with the National League C. Taking out lots of advertisements D. Creating the first white baseball

Which professional league was the first to create a properties component in 1963? A. Major League Baseball B. National Basketball Association C. National Football League D. National Hockey League

The Federal Trademark Act of 1946 is commonly referred to by what other name? A. Sherman Act B. Lanham Act C. Intellectual Property Act D. None of these are correct.

Which company acts on behalf of more than 200 universities, bowls, and conferences to negotiate licensing agreements? A. University Licensing Company B. Collegiate Licensing Company C. NCAA D. Nike

Which sporting goods company promoted grassroots sports competitions as a means to boost sales? A. Brunswick B. Hillerich & Bradsby C. Spalding D. Callaway

Which of the following has occurred to the sales of licensed collegiate sports products since the 1980s? A. There has been significant growth in sales over the last 20 years to make collegiate sports products a billion dollar industry. B. Due to the economic downturn, sales have slowly decreased over the last 20 years, causing serious problems to the revenue stream of collegiate sports. C. Sales saw extreme growth until they hit a peak of $13.8 billion in 1996, but decreased to $11.8 billion in 2001. D. There has been no real significant change in sales of collegiate sports products over the last 20 years.

Which of the following organizations is considered a trade association for sporting goods professionals? A. National Basketball Association (NBA) B. Major League Baseball Players Association (MLBPA) C. Sports and Fitness Industry Association (SFIA) D. Collegiate Licensing Company (CLC)

Which company used techniques such as a profit distribution system, fixing retail prices, and endorsements and licensing connections to establish itself as an industry standard? A. Hillerich & Bradsby B. Spalding C. Original Maple Bat Company D. Old Hickory

Which of the following is not an example of a chain sporting goods store? A. Champs B. Dick’s C. Lady Foot Locker D. All of the above are chains.

Which of the following is a claim against sporting goods giants such as Adidas, Puma, and Nike and the conditions in their international manufacturing plants? A. The verbal and physical abuse of their workers B. The sexual harassment of female workers C. The illegal amount of work hours with extremely low wages D. All of the above are correct.

Which of the following products are included in the scope of the sporting goods industry? A. Fitness equipment B. Athletic footwear and hiking boots C. Yoga pans and bike shorts D. All of these answers are correct.

The game of golf originated in what country? A. Scotland B. Ireland C. Canada D. United States

The first golf course in the United States was built in A. New York City. B. Newport, Rhode Island. C. Yonkers, New York. D. Hartford, Connecticut.

In 1895, the ______ was formed, and contributed greatly to the transformation of golf from a purely recreational game to a competitive sport. A. Professional Golfers Association B. PGA Tour C. United States Golf Association D. National Golf Foundation

What was the first country club in the United States? A. Augusta National B. Country Club of Brookline C. Valhalla Country Club D. Pebble Beach

_____ are owned by the members and typically hold private nonprofit status. A. Equity clubs B. Non-equity clubs C. Exclusive clubs D. Country clubs

Private exclusive clubs are nonprofit 501(c)(7) clubs and are regulated by A. the Federal Trade Commission. B. antitrust legislation. C. Internal Revenue Service. D. Department of Commerce.

Which of the following will have a management team which reports to a parks and recreation director? A. Equity club B. Public course C. Non-equity club D. None of these are correct.

Which group establishes equity club policies and governs the club? A. Management team B. Board of directors C. Executive committee D. Parks and recreation department

A committee which is permanent with the organization and helps the club conduct ongoing business is a(n) A. ad hoc committee. B. standing committee. C. bylaws committee. D. association committee.

A committee that focuses on a specific problem or issue and remains in existence until that problem or issue is resolved is a(n) A. ad hoc committee. B. standing committee. C. bylaws committee. D. association committee.

Members of a club management team are endorsed by which trade association? A. United States Golf Association B. PGA Tour C. Club Managers Association of America D. National Golf Foundation

The official executive management position at a private golf club is A. golf pro. B. golf course superintendent. C. executive director. D. general manager.

What person is in charge of all activities related to the club’s golf program? A. golf pro B. golf course superintendent C. executive director D. general manager

Which person is in charge of maintaining the golf course’s green environment and playing areas in ideal playing condition? A. golf pro B. golf course superintendent C. executive director D. general manager

In addition to earning a college degree, a person in the club management career track should connect with which trade associations for further certification? A. PGA B. Club Managers Association of America C. United States Tennis Association D. All of these are correct.

Due to the economic recession in the late 2000s, approximately how many people in the United States played golf during the last decade? A. 15 million B. 20 million C. 25 million D. 40 million

Maturation and saturation of the golf market and the decrease of new courses being built occurred during which time period? A. 1930s-1940s B. 1940s-1950s C. 1970s-1980s D. 1990s-2000

Which of following correctly describes the average golfer in the United States? A. A male in his early 30’s with an average household income of over $100,000. B. A male in his early 40’s with an average household income of $85,000. C. A male in his early 50’s with an average household income of $50,000. D. A female in her early 40’s with an average household income of $85,000.

Professional success in the golf industry requires A. having extensive playing experience. B. club management skills and an understanding of business. C. membership at exclusive clubs. D. a teaching pro license.

Which of the following are initiatives being implemented in the golf industry to ‘grow’ and ‘expand’ the interest and participation in the sport? A. With a greater focus on family, clubs will change their traditional format to provide an opportunity for golf to develop as a more family friendly game. B. Due to the increase in female players, courses will implement programs that cater to women’s needs to create a more positive experience. C. To combat the time-consuming nature of traditional 18-hole play, courses will offer alternatives such as short courses and learning facilities to meet differing golfer’s level of play D. All of these answers are correct.

People seek recreational activity for which of the following? A. Excitement B. Relaxation C. Social interaction D. All of these are correct.

Indirect participation in the recreational sport industry is attributed to A. spectators. B. direct participants. C. sports marketers. D. corporate involvement.

Direct participation in recreational sport includes A. tourism. B. off-site merchandising. C. ambush marketing. D. a mountain bike race.

The recreation movement of the nineteenth century addressed what one major issue? A. Public intoxication B. The 66-hour work week C. Unions D. Child labor laws

What two youth organizations are examples of an increased acceleration of the recreation movement in the early twentieth century? A. YMCA and YWCA B. Boys Club and Girls Club C. Brownies and Cub Scouts D. Girls Scouts and Boys Scouts

Following World War II, what was the immediate reaction by local governments in response to the recreation movement? A. Addition of YMCAs and YWCAs B. To not provide any recreational opportunities C. The creation of local parks and recreation departments D. The building of camping facilities

Based on the text for this chapter, what does ACA stand for? A. American Cheerleading Agency B. American Camping Association C. All Camping Agency D. American Canoeing Association

According to the text, the number one outdoor recreation opportunity for people aged 16 and older is A. sightseeing. B. hiking. C. bird watching. D. walking.

What percent of baby boomers say they will participate in recreational activities during their retirement? A. 18% B. 38% C. 68% D. 88%

In the near future, which of the following will be true of participants in outdoor recreation programs? A. They will be older. B. There will be more women. C. There will be more participants from ethnic minority populations. D. All of these are correct.

Community-based recreation is bound by the implication that people at what level are bound together in their common interests for recreation? A. Local B. State C. Regional D. National

Boys and Girls Clubs rely on which of the following revenue sources to fund their programs? A. Private donations B. In-house fund-raising C. User fees and membership sales D. All of these are correct.

State forests, state parks, national forests, and national parks are representative of what form of recreation? A. Boating B. Game trails C. Public recreation D. Private recreation

What is the primary reason for therapeutic recreation programs? A. To provide overall medical care B. To improve the patient’s physical, emotional, and mental health C. To provide unstructured recreation programs D. To improve a patient’s healthy through interactions with animals

A recreation manager wants employees who A. can create and execute programs. B. provide excellence in instruction. C. can communicate well with the public. D. All of these are correct

Therapeutic recreation centers often look for people who have experience in A. counseling. B. physical education. C. social work. D. A and C are correct.

Between 2000 and 2050, it is anticipated that the American population will increase by 129 million. The Hispanic population was responsible for 32% of the nation’s population growth from 1990 to 2000 and 39% from 2000 to 2010. It is expected to contribute 45% from 2010 to 2030. What percentage of this increase will be attributed to Hispanic Americans between 2030 and 2050? A. 40% B. 50% C. 60% D. 70%

State forest and parks departments, the National Park Service (a division of the U.S. Department of the Interior), and the National Forest Service (a division of the U.S. Department of Agriculture [USDA]) are examples of what kind of recreation? A. Community-based recreation B. Public recreation C. Outdoor recreation D. Therapeutic recreation

Which of the following describes an internship? A. Hands-on learning experience B. Allows students to establish a network C. Allows students initial access to the industry D. All of these describe an internship.

Approximately how many colleges and universities have degree programs in sport management? A. 50 B. 100 C. 150 D. 300

How long is a typical work week for an event coordinator? A. Less than 40 hours B. 40 hours C. 60-70 hours D. Only on event days

Which of the following should you do when going on an informational interview? A. Bring a copy of your resume. B. Wear business attire. C. Get business cards from people you meet. D. All of these are correct.

What happens during a behavioral interview? A. You fill out a lengthy survey. B. You are asked a series of yes-no questions. C. You are asked questions which probe for specific examples. D. All of these are correct.

What should a cover letter not do? A. Request an interview. B. Restate your resume. C. Explain why the position is of interest to you. D. Discuss your qualifications.

Which of the following is not a key to an effective interview? A. The interview itself B. Preparation C. Follow-up D. All of these are keys.

Questions regarding which of the following topics do not have to be answered in an interview? A. Marital status B. Previous experience C. How you found out about the job D. All of these must be answered.

Which of the following statements is not true regarding a cover letter? A. Use a similar letter for all job applications. B. Use the letter to enhance your resume. C. Address the letter to a person. D. All of these are true

What should a student do to prepare for an interview? A. Think of anecdotes regarding your experience to share with the interviewer. B. Bring extra resumes. C. Arrive early. D. All of these are correct.

A good resume has all of the following characteristics except which one? A. Is printed on good paper. B. Is two-pages long. C. Contains an objective statement. D. Quantifies work experience.

What is an acceptable way of writing a thank you note? A. Handwritten B. E-mail C. Typed D. All of these are acceptable.

Which of the following is not one of the three phases of an effective interview? A. Prospect B. Preparation C. The interview D. Follow-up

Which of the following is not true of the objective section of a resume? A. It is optional. B. It should include short- and long-term goals. C. It should be well thought-out and constructed. D. All of these are true.

The textbook suggests not all jobs are in professional and college sports. Which of the following segments of the sport industry do the authors suggest is a viable career option? A. Sporting goods B. Health and fitness C. Recreation D. All of these were suggested.

Which of the following should you list under the education section of a resume? A. Scholarships received B. International student-exchange experience C. Dean’s list D. All of these should be listed under education.

Which of the following is not true of the experience section of a resume? A. Experience should be listed in reverse chronological order B. Begin each line with a noun C. Quantify work D. All of the above are true

On average, _______ job openings are posted each year at the Professional Baseball Employment Opportunities (PBEO) Job Fair that is held in conjunction with the Winter Baseball Meetings. A. less than 300 B. 350 to 450 C. 450 to 550 D. more than 600

Which of the following is required reading for any sport management student or professional? A. Sports Daily B. Sports Illustrated C. ESPN The Magazine D. Street & Smith’s SportsBusiness Journal

A sport-related job website is A. TeamWorkOnline.com B. JobsInSports.com C. SportsRecruitment.com D. All of these are correct