Psy 201 Midterm – Flashcards
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Professor Nelson wishes to investigate the relationship between stress and visits to the college mental health clinic. Which of the following research methods would be most appropriate? a) a naturalistic experiment b) a correlational study c) meta-analysis d) pseudoscientific research
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b) a correlational study
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Cognitive psychology focuses on the study of: a) the causes, diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of psychological disorders. b) children with special needs, such as autistic children or those suffering from learning disabilities. c) mental processes, including reasoning and thinking, problem solving, memory, perception, mental imagery, and language. d) how people are affected by their social environments.
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c) mental processes, including reasoning and thinking, problem solving, memory, perception, mental imagery, and language.
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Which of the following is TRUE regarding correlational research? a) Correlations are able to predict the cause-and-effect relationship between two or more variables. b) Correlations can tell you about relations between two variables but it is not possible to make predictions based upon correlational research. c) Correlational research indicates causality in either a positive or negative direction. d) You cannot use correlational research to draw conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships.
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d) You cannot use correlational research to draw conclusions about cause-and-effect relationships.
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Which of the following is a definition of the experimental method? a) a method of study that involves an intensive, in-depth investigation of a single individual or small group of individuals b) the systematic observation and recording of behaviors as they occur in their natural setting c) a research strategy that allows the precise conclusion of how strongly two factors are related to each other d) a research method used to determine a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effect that is produced on another variable
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d) a research method used to determine a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effect that is produced on another variable
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Axis IV in the DSM-IV-TR lists: Psychosocial and Environmental Problems. A) True B) False
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A) True
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Which of the following conditions would increase scientific confidence in a particular research finding? a) if the study was conducted by a well-known or famous psychologist b) if the study was reported by CNN, MSNBC, and other news agencies c) if independent researchers repeated the study using different participants and the same basic finding occurred again d) if other researchers felt that the finding fit with their personal experience
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c) if independent researchers repeated the study using different participants and the same basic finding occurred again
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The term _____ refers to the scientific study of the origins, symptoms, and development of psychological disorders. a) biosocial developmental pathology b) sociopathology c) comorbidity pathology d) psychopathology
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d) psychopathology
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The experimental group is the group of: a) psychologists who are collaborating on an experiment. b) variables that require operational definitions. c) participants exposed to the independent variable. d) participants exposed to the dependent variable.
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c) participants exposed to the independent variable.
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In a study on the effects of caffeine on memory, participants drank a bottle of tasteless water containing 100, 50, or 0 milligrams of caffeine. The participants assigned to the group that got bottled water with no caffeine represented the _____ in this study. a) dependent variable b) placebo control group c) meta-analysis d) experimental group
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b) placebo control group
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Which statement best characterizes the evolutionary perspective of psychology? a) As medical and technological advances have evolved, the biological basis of behavior should be the primary focus of contemporary psychology. b) Human behavior is best understood in terms of the individual capacity for growth, free will, and self-direction. c) A given psychological process exists in the form it does because the process solved a specific problem of individual survival or reproduction that repeatedly occurred over the course of human history. d) To fully understand human behavior, you must understand how behavior varies among different cultures.
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c) A given psychological process exists in the form it does because the process solved a specific problem of individual survival or reproduction that repeatedly occurred over the course of human history.
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The founder of behaviorism was: a) Carl Rogers. b) G. Stanley Hall. c) William James. d) John Watson.
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d) John Watson.
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Juanita participated in a psychology research project that involved answering a number of arithmetic problems. During the experiment, she was informed that her answers were incorrect. After the experiment was completed, a research assistant explained the purpose of the experiment. He told Juanita that she had actually answered all items correctly, and then explained why the experiment required that she be told that her answers were wrong. This stage of the research represents: a) voluntary participation. b) confidentiality. c) debriefing. d) informed consent.
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c) debriefing.
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Professor Lyon decided to study food preferences of U.S. college students, so he asked his students to volunteer to participate in a lengthy survey. Professor Lyon's survey results are probably invalid because he did not use: a) a valid hypothesis. b) random selection. c) independent and dependent variables. d) an operational definition.
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b) random selection.
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If Harold carefully read the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R) he would be justified in concluding that: a) many people who could benefit from mental health treatment don't receive it. b) some people lack awareness about psychological disorders or avoid seeking treatment for fear of being stigmatized. c) most people weather psychological symptoms without becoming completely debilitated or without needing professional intervention. d) all of these are legitimate conclusions.
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d) all of these are legitimate conclusions.
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A representative sample is a: a) group of subjects that closely parallels the larger group to be studied on all relevant characteristics, such as age, sex, and race. b) small group of volunteers who try to predict the survey results. c) sample questionnaire that represents the most likely set of survey responses. d) list of all the possible questions that might be represented on the final survey.
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a) group of subjects that closely parallels the larger group to be studied on all relevant characteristics, such as age, sex, and race.
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Which of the following is a key advantage of naturalistic observation? a) Researchers can study behavior that could not ethically be manipulated in an experiment. b) Operational definitions are not needed, since only natural behaviors are studied. c) Researchers can easily duplicate conditions that have been first investigated in laboratory settings. d) Researchers can manipulate animal and human behavior.
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a) Researchers can study behavior that could not ethically be manipulated in an experiment.
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One potential problem with surveys and questionnaires is that: a) people may misrepresent their personal characteristics or lie in their responses. b) random selection procedures are not possible with these forms of data collection. c) these techniques produce illusory correlations rather than true correlations. d) expectancy effects usually invalidate the findings.
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a) people may misrepresent their personal characteristics or lie in their responses.
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If a person suffered from problems with primary support group, this would be found on Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR. A) True B) False
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B) False
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Which of the following is an important advantage of surveys? a) If there are more than 3,000 participants, the results are likely to be valid no matter how the participants were chosen. b) Surveys can be developed by people with no scientific training. c) The dependent variable is more easily manipulated than in formal experiments. d) Researchers are able to gather information about a very large group of people based on a representative sample of that group.
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d) Researchers are able to gather information about a very large group of people based on a representative sample of that group.
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In order to test the hypothesis that premarital education enhances marital quality, Dr. Stanley should first: a) avoid operational definitions because they reflect preconceived ideas and biases. b) use naturalistic observation to observe happily married couples. c) conduct pseudoscientific research. d) operationally define the terms premarital education and marital quality.
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d) operationally define the terms premarital education and marital quality.
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Information from specialized cells in the sense organs is conveyed to the brain by: a) motor neurons. b) glial cells. c) sensory neurons. d) hormones.
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c) sensory neurons
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Which of the following best defines neurogenesis? a) the development of new neurons b) the first neuron to generate an action potential c) the influence of neurons on the formation of new genes d) the influence of genes on the firing rate of neurons
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a) the development of new neurons
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Neurons are: a) found only in the spinal cord and bone marrow. b) found in primates and humans, but not in other animals. c) highly specialized cells that produce myelin. d) highly specialized cells that receive and transmit information from one area of the body to another.
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d) highly specialized cells that receive and transmit information from one area of the body to another.
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In the _____, information is communicated along nerves. a) limbic system b) peripheral nervous system c) central nervous system d) endocrine system
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b) peripheral nervous system
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The primary function of the myelin sheath is to: a) insulate the axon and increase the speed at which neurons convey their message. b) inhibit the opening and closing of ion channels on the axon's membrane. c) reduce the speed of neurotransmitters crossing the synaptic gap. d) provide support and nutrition to the dendrites.
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a) insulate the axon and increase the speed at which neurons convey their message.
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What happens to the neurotransmitters that fail to attach to a receptor site? a) They bind with potassium ions. b) In a process called reuptake, they are reabsorbed by the sending neuron and recycled. c) In a process called depolarization, they are neutralized by negative ions. d) They are destroyed by glial cells.
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b) In a process called reuptake, they are reabsorbed by the sending neuron and recycled.
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The nodes of Ranvier: a) are small gaps in the myelin sheaths that cover some axons. b) are a type of neuron that communicates information from one neuron to another. c) are the synaptic vesicles that contain neurotransmitters. d) are the ion channels in the membrane of a neuron's axon that open and close during an action potential.
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a) are small gaps in the myelin sheaths that cover some axons.
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The hippocampus plays a key role in: a) forming new memories. b) survival behaviors, including eating and drinking. c) regulating sleep and wakefulness. d) emotional responses, including fear, anger, and disgust.
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a) forming new memories.
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The electrical charge of a neuron when it is in the resting potential state is about: a) -70 millivolts. b) +30 millivolts. c) -10 volts. d) +2 volts.
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a) -70 millivolts.
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In general, the sympathetic nervous system _____, while the parasympathetic nervous system _____. a) arouses and mobilizes; maintains and conserves b) transmits motor information; transmits sensory information c) maintains and conserves; arouses and mobilizes d) transmits sensory information; transmits motor information
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a) arouses and mobilizes; maintains and conserves
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_____ are to the central nervous system as _____ are to the peripheral nervous system. a) Axons; dendrites b) Neurons; nerves c) Neurotransmitters; hormones d) Myelin sheaths; neurotransmitters
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b) Neurons; nerves
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The primary communication link between the left and right cerebral hemispheres is called: a) the hypothalamus. b) Broca's area. c) the corpus callosum. d) the hippocampus.
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c) the corpus callosum.
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Each cerebral hemisphere can be roughly divided into four lobes. Which lobe processes auditory information? a) the parietal lobe b) the occipital lobe c) the frontal lobe d) the temporal lobe
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d) the temporal lobe
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_____ convey information about the environment from the sense organs to the brain, and _____ communicate information to the muscles and glands. a) Sensory neurons; motor neurons b) Excitatory neurons; inhibitory neurons c) Interneurons; glial cells d) Motor neurons; sensory neurons
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a) Sensory neurons; motor neurons
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Which of the following statements about the properties of neurons is TRUE? a) The size and shape of neurons vary a great deal, reflecting their specialized function. b) All neurons are the same size and shape. c) Sensory and motor neurons are the same size and shape, and interneurons are long and thin. d) Motor neurons outnumber interneurons by almost 10 to 1.
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a) The size and shape of neurons vary a great deal, reflecting their specialized function.
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An action potential occurs when: a) polarized dendrites stimulate adjoining nodes of Ranvier. b) sodium ions enter the axon's interior and potassium ions enter the axon's exterior, causing a brief positive electrical impulse. c) potassium ions enter the dendrites and sodium ions exit the axon, causing depolarization and a brief negative electrical charge. d) potassium ions are electrically transformed into sodium ions.
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b) sodium ions enter the axon's interior and potassium ions enter the axon's exterior, causing a brief positive electrical impulse.
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The two main subdivisions of the peripheral nervous system are the _____ nervous system and the _____ nervous system. a) parasympathetic; somatic b) somatic; autonomic c) sympathetic; parasympathetic d) autonomic; sympathetic
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b) somatic; autonomic
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Researchers using PET scans to study the opioid system in long-distance runners are likely to find increased brain levels of _____ following a long run. a) GABA b) endorphins c) cerebrospinal fluid d) acetylcholine
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b) endorphins
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Like other people afflicted with _____, actor Michael J. Fox takes a medication that increases _____ levels to help control symptoms of the disease. a) obsessive-compulsive disorder; GABA b) Alzheimer's disease; GABA c) Parkinson's disease; dopamine d) depression; serotonin
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c) Parkinson's disease; dopamine
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You've been studying biology in the library for the last couple of hours when you realize that you're getting really hungry and thirsty. Which brain structure played a key role in triggering feelings of hunger and thirst? a) the pituitary gland b) the corpus callosum c) the hypothalamus d) the hippocampus
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c) the hypothalamus
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When sensory receptors convert different forms of energy into neural signals, the process is known as: a) transduction. b) sensory accommodation. c) kinesthesis. d) proprioception.
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a) transduction.
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The perceived color of an object is determined by the: a) activation of rods in the retina of the eye. b) wavelength of light that an object reflects. c) activation of bipolar cells in the cornea. d) intensity of the light wave that strikes the pupil
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b) wavelength of light that an object reflects.
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X-rays, radio waves, microwaves, and ultraviolet waves are all forms of _____ that differ in terms of their _____. a) electromagnetic energy; absolute threshold b) wavelengths; intensity c) sensation; absolute threshold d) electromagnetic energy; wavelength
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d) electromagnetic energy; wavelength
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The sensory receptor cells for vision are sensitive to what kind of stimulus? a) heat b) chemical molecules c) airborne molecules d) light
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d) light
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The process by which physical energy, such as light, is converted into a coded neural signal that can be transmitted to and interpreted by the brain is called: a) sensation. b) the mere exposure effect. c) gate-control theory. d) transduction.
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d) transduction.
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The perception of different colors, such as red, green, or blue, is caused by: a) different wavelengths of light. b) the activation of specialized rods in the retina. c) the amplitude or intensity of light waves. d) the degree of saturation of the light wave.
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) different wavelengths of light.
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When psychologists refer to the visible spectrum, they mean: a) red, orange, and yellow light waves. b) the narrow range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye. c) the visual field, including peripheral vision. d) ultraviolet rays, gamma rays, and radio waves.
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b) the narrow range of wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum that are visible to the human eye.
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As you go to sleep at night, you realize that you can hear your roommate's wristwatch ticking. Out of curiosity, you keep a record of when you hear the watch ticking and find out that you can hear it about half the time. Your ability to hear your roommate's wristwatch about half the time is an example of: a) sensory adaptation. b) Weber's law. c) an absolute threshold. d) a difference threshold.
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c) an absolute threshold.
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Jill runs a hot bath. She starts to get into the tub but the water feels extremely hot. She stands in the hot water for a few moments, then slowly sits down, easing the rest of her body into the water. After a few minutes, she feels quite comfortable; the water no longer feels too hot to her. This decline in sensitivity to a constant stimulus that Jill has experienced is called: a) sensory saturation. b) sensory adaptation. c) bottom-up processing. d) transduction.
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b) sensory adaptation.
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Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the opponent-process theory of color vision? a) how we hear low frequency sounds b) afterimages c) red-green color blindness d) how we hear high frequency sounds
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b) afterimages
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According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Red-green color blindness is caused by the absence of the red-green opponent pair. b) Red and green receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. c) Cones are sensitive to either red, green, yellow, or blue. d) Red and blue receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited.
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b) Red and green receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. Incorrect Response
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A large group of students were tested for their ability to distinguish among different tones. Although tone A and tone B were slightly different, more than half of the group thought that they sounded exactly the same. The difference between tone A and tone B can be said to be less than the: a) Weber's threshold. b) difference threshold, or just noticeable difference. c) absolute threshold, or average absolute threshold. d) subliminal threshold.
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b) difference threshold, or just noticeable difference.
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Which theory best explains color vision in humans? a) the trichromatic theory b) both the place theory and the frequency theory c) the opponent-process theory d) both the opponent-process theory and the trichromatic theory
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d) both the opponent-process theory and the trichromatic theory
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According to the trichromatic theory of color vision, people who have red-green color blindness have: a) normal red-sensitive cones, but lack blue-sensitive cones. b) normal blue-sensitive cones, but their other cones are sensitive to either red or green but not both. c) far fewer cones than people with normal color vision. d) color receptors that are limited to the blue-yellow opponent pair.
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b) normal blue-sensitive cones, but their other cones are sensitive to either red or green but not both.
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The smallest possible stimulus that can be detected half the time, or the minimum level of stimuli that we can detect is called: a) the perceptual threshold. b) the just noticeable difference, or difference threshold. c) subliminal perception. d) the absolute threshold.
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d) the absolute threshold.
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John puts one toe into the swimming pool and shivers because the water is so cold. He grits his teeth and dives in anyway. After about ten minutes, the temperature of the water seems quite comfortable to him. This example illustrates the principle of: a) accommodation. b) sensory adaptation. c) just noticeable difference, or jnd. d) sensory difference.
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b) sensory adaptation.
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When you were younger, you probably had your hearing checked. Headphones were placed over your ears and you were to respond when you heard a sound. You were being tested for your hearing: a) threshold. b) accommodation potential. c) transduction. d) sensory adaptation.
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a) threshold.
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Both theories (trichromatic and opponent-process) of color vision are accurate. A) True B) False
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A) True
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Sensory adaptation plays a role in which of the following visual phenomena? a) afterimages b) myopia or near-sightedness c) color blindness d) hyperopia or far-sightedness
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a) afterimages
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In contrast to sensation, the term perception is formally defined as the: a) active mental process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory data. b) active mental process of understanding the meaning of a difficult new concept. c) way in which different areas of the brain interact. d) the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure.
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a) active mental process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory data.
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Circadian rhythms that are drastically out of synchronization with daylight and darkness cues can produce: a) REM sleep behavior disorder. b) hypermnesia. c) narcolepsy. d) jet lag.
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d) jet lag.
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Tremaine complains about the quality or duration of his sleep, that he has difficulty going to sleep and staying asleep, and that he frequently wakes before it is time to get up. Tremaine has: a) REM sleep behavior disorder. b) obstructive sleep apnea. c) cataplexy. d) insomnia.
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d) insomnia.
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Narcolepsy is characterized by: a) the sleeper verbally and physically responding to the dream story and acting accordingly. b) overwhelming bouts of excessive daytime sleepiness and brief, uncontrollable episodes of sleep, which are called microsleeps or sleep attacks. c) episodes of increased physiological arousal, intense fear, panic, frightening hallucinations, and no recall of the episode in the morning. d) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
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b) overwhelming bouts of excessive daytime sleepiness and brief, uncontrollable episodes of sleep, which are called microsleeps or sleep attacks.
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Shortly after going to bed and as you are falling asleep, you experience the vividly realistic sensation that you are falling or tripping forward, which jolts you awake. This vivid sensation is a common example of: a) sleep apnea. b) delta brain wave activity. c) REM rebound. d) a hypnagogic hallucination.
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d) a hypnagogic hallucination.
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Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is therapy used to treat _____ and involves a special mask and a machine that gently blows air into the sleeper's throat, keeping the airway from becoming too narrow or blocked. a) sexsomnia b) obstructive sleep apnea c) cataplexy d) narcolepsy
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b) obstructive sleep apnea
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The sleep disorder that is characterized by the person moving about and acting out his dreams is called: a) cataplexy. b) REM sleep behavior disorder. c) somnambulism. d) narcolepsy.
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b) REM sleep behavior disorder.
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It was the famous American psychologist named _____ who described consciousness as being like a river or a stream. a) Ernest Hilgard b) William James c) J. Allan Hobson d) Sigmund Freud
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b) William James
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The neuroscientist who researched the neuropsychological events involved in sleep and dreaming, and who proposed the activation-synthesis model of dreaming are: a) Sigmund Freud. b) J. Allan Hobson. c) William James. d) None of the above.
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b) J. Allan Hobson.
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Mrs. Wilkinson notices that her middle-aged husband stops breathing in his sleep, awakens slightly to gulp in air, then goes back to sleep. This happens several times a night. Mr. Wilkinson is displaying symptoms of which of the following sleep disorders? a) REM sleep behavior disorder b) obstructive sleep apnea c) microsleeps d) narcolepsy
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b) obstructive sleep apnea
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Thomas has been diagnosed with a parasomnia that involves abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep. Thomas has a sleep disorder called: a) sleep paralysis. b) sleepsex or sexsomnia. c) somnambulism. d) REM sleep behavior disorder.
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b) sleepsex or sexsomnia.
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Observing a subject who is in REM sleep, a sleep researcher can conclude that all of the following are true of the subject EXCEPT: a) voluntary muscle activity is suppressed in the subject. b) the subject is dreaming. c) the subject's heart rate and blood pressure reach their lowest levels. d) the subject's brain becomes very active.
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c) the subject's heart rate and blood pressure reach their lowest levels.
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Sleepwalking, or somnambulism, is characterized by: a) episodes of going to the kitchen and eating compulsively during NREM sleep. b) an episode of walking or performing other actions usually during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep. c) increased physiological arousal and terrifying and frightening experiences that last for a few seconds. d) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
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b) an episode of walking or performing other actions usually during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep.
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REM is an acronym that stands for: a) rapid eye movements. b) random eye motion. c) rapid ear movements. d) restless eye movements.
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a) rapid eye movements.
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Sleep-related eating disorder: a) first came to the attention of sleep researchers after several people with the disorder appeared on Oprah's television talk show. b) is much more common among people who are vegetarians. c) is the same thing as somnambulism d) is more likely to occur in women.
answer
d) is more likely to occur in women.
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A parasomnia called sleep terrors typically occurs during: a) stage 3 or 4 NREM sleep and lasts only a few seconds. b) REM sleep and lasts for many minutes. c) REM sleep and lasts for an hour or more. d) Stage 1 and 2 NREM sleep and lasts only a few seconds.
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a) stage 3 or 4 NREM sleep and lasts only a few seconds.
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Introspection: a) is a technique used to measure the strength of individual circadian rhythms. b) was a verbal self-report method used by the first psychologists to study the "structure" of conscious experiences. c) is a hypnotic technique used to enhance memory for details that were only briefly seen or heard. d) is an autogenic technique used to treat sleep disorders.
answer
b) was a verbal self-report method used by the first psychologists to study the "structure" of conscious experiences.
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Sleepsex is a parasomnia that involves: a) the person sleepwalking and eating compulsively during stage 3 or 4 NREM slow-wave sleep. b) sudden loss of voluntary muscle strength and control that is usually triggered by an intense emotion. c) a failure of the brain mechanisms that normally suppress voluntary actions during REM sleep d) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
answer
d) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
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Sleep disorders involving undesirable physical arousal, behaviors, or events during sleep, or sleep transitions are called: a) parasomnias. b) dissociative anesthesias. c) delirium tremens. d) dyssomnias.
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a) parasomnias.
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The sleep disorder characterized by episodes of walking or performing other actions, typically during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep, is called: a) sexsomnia. b) sleepwalking. c) REM sleep behavior disorder. d) sleepsex.
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b) sleepwalking.
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A sleep disorder characterized by overwhelming bouts of excessive daytime sleepiness and brief uncontrollable episodes of sleep is called: a) somnambulism. b) narcolepsy. c) transient insomnia. d) parasomnia.
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b) narcolepsy.
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Edward C. Tolman's concept of latent learning helps to demonstrate that: a) animals learn more by mental representation than by reinforcement. b) rewards affect performance of what has been learned rather than the process of learning itself. c) only people can develop cognitive maps of their environments. d) learning will not occur unless behavior is "stamped in" by a rewarding consequence.
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b) rewards affect performance of what has been learned rather than the process of learning itself.
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In psychology, the term conditioning refers to: a) a prior exposure to a stimulus. b) learning associations between environmental events and behavioral responses. c) enhanced performance due to extensive practice and training in a particular skill or sport. d) adaptation to specific environmental factors due to repeated exposure to those factors.
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b) learning associations between environmental events and behavioral responses.
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Most cases of specific phobia involve particular categories of objects or situations. Which of the following are people least likely to have a phobia of? a) thunderstorms, heights, water, or other features of the natural environment b) spiders, snakes, or other animals and insects c) household cleaners, such as dishwashing liquid, soap, toilet cleaners, mops and brooms d) particular situations, like flying, driving, or enclosed places
answer
c) household cleaners, such as dishwashing liquid, soap, toilet cleaners, mops and brooms
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The ability to learn a novel behavior through observation has been demonstrated in: a) adult humans and adolescents but not in children. b) all animal species, including insects, worms, and protozoa. c) animals as diverse as hamsters, starlings, Japanese quail, rats, chimpanzees, and humans. d) humans and other primates but not in lower animals.
answer
c) animals as diverse as hamsters, starlings, Japanese quail, rats, chimpanzees, and humans.
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Positive reinforcement is to negative reinforcement as: a) addition of a reinforcing stimulus is to removal of a reinforcing stimulus. b) increase in behavior is to decrease in behavior. c) primary reinforcer is to conditioned reinforcer. d) addition of a reinforcing stimulus is to removal of an aversive stimulus.
answer
d) addition of a reinforcing stimulus is to removal of an aversive stimulus.
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The phenomenon called learned helplessness was identified by two young psychology graduate students named: a) Robert Rescorla and Edward C. Tolman. b) John Garcia and Albert Bandura. c) B. F. Skinner and John B. Watson. d) Martin Seligman and Stephen Maier.
answer
d) Martin Seligman and Stephen Maier
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Normal anxiety is to _____ as pathological anxiety is to _____. a) reasonable and infrequent; irrational and persistent b) irrational and intense; reasonable and mild c) severe and global; mild and specific d) disruptive and uncontrollable; adaptive and irrational
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a) reasonable and infrequent; irrational and persistent
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The early "school" or approach to psychology called behaviorism emphasized which of the following ideas? a) the scientific study of observable behaviors rather than mental processes b) the scientific study of mental processes in humans and animals c) the scientific study of how associations are formed between mental events and overt behaviors d) the scientific study of the cognitive process involved in human and animal intelligence
answer
a) the scientific study of observable behaviors rather than mental processes
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Which of the following involves the development of a phobia through operant conditioning? a) As a result of a stimulus being associated with an unpleasant event, this previously neutral stimulus now becomes a conditioned stimulus and elicits a fear response. b) The person has a predisposition to develop a phobia about objects or situations that represented a threat to survival in our evolutionary past. c) The person learns to fear a particular object or situation by observing another person reacting fearfully to it. d) Avoiding the feared object or situation is negatively reinforcing, so the person is more likely to avoid the feared object or situation again in the future.
answer
d) Avoiding the feared object or situation is negatively reinforcing, so the person is more likely to avoid the feared object or situation again in the future.
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A young child has learned to associate the sight of a nurse's white uniform with the fear and pain of getting an injection. Using Pavlov's terminology, when the white uniform elicits a fear response, it would be termed a(n): a) unconditioned response (UCR). b) unconditioned stimulus (UCS). c) conditioned stimulus (CS). d) conditioned response (CR).
answer
c) conditioned stimulus (CS).
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Which of the following is an example of the development of a phobia through observational learning? a) After eating a big spaghetti dinner, John gets sick and can no longer stand the smell of spaghetti. b) Joe was bitten by a dog when he was a child and as a result he now gets nervous whenever he sees any dog. c) After being attacked by a man in an elevator, Evelyn developed a phobia of elevators and other small, confined spaces. d) Matilda develops a fear of spiders after years of seeing her mother and older sister react with extreme fear whenever they see a spider.
answer
d) Matilda develops a fear of spiders after years of seeing her mother and older sister react with extreme fear whenever they see a spider.
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding the development of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? a) When people undergo multiple traumas, the incidence of PTSD can be quite high. b) People with a personal or family history of psychological disorders who are exposed to an extreme trauma are more likely to develop PTSD. c) Men are twice as likely as women to develop PTSD. d) The magnitude of the trauma affects the development of the disorder, with more extreme stressors being more likely to produce PTSD.
answer
c) Men are twice as likely as women to develop PTSD.
question
Six-year-old Blair liked going to school right up until her first-grade teacher, Ms. Hanemayer, took maternity leave. The substitute teacher, old Mrs. Snarly, was strict and scolded Blair on several occasions, making her cry. On one Saturday morning as Blair was helping her father with grocery shopping, she suddenly came face to face with old Mrs. Snarly. Blair instantly burst into tears. Blair's crying at just the sight of Mrs. Snarly is an example of: a) instinctive drift. b) an unconditioned stimulus. c) an unconditioned response. d) a conditioned response.
answer
d) a conditioned response.
question
After she realized that the mosquito had bitten her and her hand was starting to itch, Akai rubbed some cortisone cream on the swollen spot, and the itching stopped. The next time a mosquito bit her, she applied cortisone cream immediately to relieve the itching. Using operant conditioning terms, this is an example of: a) negative punishment. b) negative reinforcement by escape. c) negative reinforcement by avoidance. d) positive reinforcement.
answer
b) negative reinforcement by escape.
question
The basic strategy for overcoming learned helplessness is to: a) acquire a sense of control and mastery over challenging circumstances. b) use punishment by application to suppress undesirable behaviors. c) withdraw from the situation. d) displace the frustration onto another object.
answer
a) acquire a sense of control and mastery over challenging circumstances.
question
Psychologist John Garcia conditioned rats to have a taste aversion to sweet-tasting water by injecting them with a drug that made them ill. Using classical conditioning terminology, what was the unconditioned stimulus (UCS) in this experimental situation? a) getting ill in response to the sweet-flavored water b) getting ill in response to the drug c) the drug d) the sweet-tasting water
answer
c) the drug
question
The term elicited is: a) used in classical conditioning and means that the stimulus "draws out" or causes an existing behavior to occur. b) used in operant conditioning and means that the response is emitted in order to obtain a reward or avoid punishment. c) used in operant conditioning to refer to creating a new response to inescapable punishment, such as passivity or unresponsiveness. d) used in observational learning to refer to obtaining an imitative response, such as using a jump rope or swinging a baseball bat.
answer
a) used in classical conditioning and means that the stimulus "draws out" or causes an existing behavior to occur.
question
The three core symptoms of _____ are (1) frequent, intrusive recollections of a traumatic event; (2) numbing of emotional responsiveness and avoidance of stimuli that tend to trigger memories of the traumatic event: and (3) increased physical arousal associated with anxiety. a) generalized anxiety disorder b) post-traumatic stress disorder c) social phobia d) obsessive-compulsive disorder
answer
b) post-traumatic stress disorder
question
A rat in a Skinner box is reinforced with a food pellet every time it presses the bar. This is an example of: a) the partial reinforcement effect. b) a fixed-interval schedule of reinforcement. c) superstitious behavior. d) continuous reinforcement.
answer
d) continuous reinforcement.
question
In operant conditioning, a discriminative stimulus is defined as a(n): a) stimulus that evokes a wide variety of behaviors. b) consequence that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. c) environmental stimulus or cue in the presence of which a particular response is more likely to be reinforced. d) reinforcer that is naturally reinforcing for a given species.
answer
c) environmental stimulus or cue in the presence of which a particular response is more likely to be reinforced.
