question

Acceptance Criteria

answer

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

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Accepted Deliverables

answer

Products, results, or capabitlities produced by a project and validated by the project customer or sponsors as meeting their specified acceptance criteria.

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Accuracy

answer

Within the quality management system, -------- is an assessment of correctness.

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Acquire Project Team

answer

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities.

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Acquisition

answer

Obtaining human and material resources necessary to perform project activities. -------- implies a cost of resources, and is not necessarily financial.

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Activity

answer

A distinct, scheduled portion of work performed during the course of a project.

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Activity Attributes

answer

Multiples attributes associated with each schedule activity that can be included within the activity list. -------- -------- include activity codes, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions.

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Activity Code

answer

One or more numerical or text values that identify characteristics of the work or in some way categorize the schedule activity that allows filtering and ordering of activities within reports.

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Activity Cost Estimates

answer

The projected cost of the schedule activity that incldes the cost for all resources required to perform and complete the activity, including all cost types and cost components.

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Activity Duration

answer

The time in calendar units beween the start and finish of a schedule activity. See also duration.

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Activity Duration Extimate

answer

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome for the duration of an activity.

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Activity identifier

answer

A sehort, unique numeric or text identification assigned to each schedule activity to differenciate that project activity from other activities. Typcialla unique within any one project schedule network diagram.

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Activity List

answer

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

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Activity Network Diagrams

answer

See project schedule network diagram.

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Activity-on-Node (AON)

answer

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

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Activity Resource Requirements

answer

The types and quantities of resources required for each activiy in a work package.

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Actual Cost (AC)

answer

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activiy during a specific time period.

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Actual Duration

answer

The time in calendar units between the actual start date of the schedule activity and either the data date of the project schedule if the schedule activity is in progress or the actual finish date if the schedule activity is complete.

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Adaptive Life Cycle

answer

A project life cycle, also known as change-driven or agile methods, that is intended to facilitate change and require a high degree of ongoing stakeholder involvement. -------- -------- -------- are also iteratives an incremental, but differ in that iterations are very rapid (usually2-4 weeks in length) and are fixed in time and resources.

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Additional Quality Planning Tools

answer

A set of tools used to define the quality requirements and to plan effective quality management activities. They include, but are not limited to: brainstorming, force field analysis, nominal group techniques and quality management and control tools.

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Adjusting Leads and Lags

answer

A technique used to find ways to bring project activities that are behind into alignment with plan during project execution.

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Advertising

answer

The process of calling public attention to a project or effort.

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Affininity Diagram

answer

A group creativity technique that allows large numbers of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis.

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Agreements

answer

Any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. This can take the form of a contract, memorandum of understanding (MOU) letters of agreement, verbal agreements, emails, etc.

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Alternative Analysis

answer

A technique used to evaluate identified options in order to select wich options or approaches to use to executeand perform the work of the project.

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Alternatives Generation

answer

A technique used to develop as many potential options as possible in order to identify different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project.

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Analogous Estimating

answer

A technique for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project.

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Analytical Techniques

answer

Various techniques used to evaluate, analyze, or forecast potential outcomes bases on possible variations of project or environmental variables and their relationships with other variables.

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Application Area

answer

A category of projects that have common components significant in such projects, but are not needed or present in all projects. -------- --------are usally defined in terms of either the product (i.e., by similar technologies or production methods) or the type of customer (i.e., internal versus external, government versus commercial) or industry sector (i.e., utilities, automotive, aerospace, information technologies, etc.). -------- -------- can overlap.

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Applying Leads and Lags

answer

A technique that is used to adjust the amount of time betwenn predecessor and successor activities.

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Apportioned Effort

answer

An activity where effort is allotted proportionaltely across certain discrete efforts and not divisible into discrete efforts. [Note: -------- -------- is one of three earned value management (EVm) types of activities used to measure work performance.]

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Approved Change Request

answer

A -------- -------- that has been processed through the integrated change control process and approved.

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Approved Change Requests Review

answer

A review of the -------- -------- to verify that these were implemented as approved.

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Assumption

answer

A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proff or demonstration.

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Assumptions Analysis

answer

A technique that explores the accuracy of assumptions and identifies risks to the project from inaccuracy, inconsistency, or incompleteness of assumptions.

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Attribute Sampling

answer

Method of measuring quality that consists of noting the precense (or absence) of some characteristic (attribute) in each of the units under consideration. After each unit is inspected, the decision is made to accept a lot, reject it, or inspect another unit.

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Authority

answer

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.

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Backlog

answer

A listing of product requirements and deliverables to be completed, written as stories, and prioritized by the business to manage and organize the project's work.

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Backward Pass

answer

A critical path method technique for calculating the late start and late finish dates by working backward through the schedule model from the project end date.

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Bar Chart

answer

A graphic display of schedule-related information. In the typical -------- --------, schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown accross the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars.

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Baseline

answer

The approved version of a work product that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison.

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Basis of Estimates

answer

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.

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Benchmarking

answer

-------- is the comparison of actual or planned practices, such as processes and operations, to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

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Bidder Conference

answer

The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement.

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Bottom-Up Estimating

answer

A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Brainstorming

answer

A general data gathering and creativity technique that can be used to identify risks, ideas, or solutions to issues by using a group of team members or subject matter experts.

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Budget

answer

The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure component or any schedule activity.

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Budget at Completion (BAC)

answer

The sum of all budgets established for the work to be performed.

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Business Case

answer

A documented economic feasability study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities.

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Business Value

answer

A concept that is unique to each organization and includes tangible and intangible elements. Through the effective use of project, program, and portfolio management disciplines, oganizations will possess the ability to employ reliable, established processes to meet enterprise objectives

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Buyer

answer

The acquirer of products, Services, or results for an organization.

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Cause and Effect Diagram

answer

A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to ist root cause.

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Central Tendency

answer

A property of the central Limit Theorem predicting that the data observations in a distrivution will tend to Group around a central Location. The three typical measures of -------- -------- are the mean, median and mode.

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Change Control

answer

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the Project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected.

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Change Control Board (CCB)

answer

A formally chartered Group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the Project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

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Change Control System

answer

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

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Change Control Tools

answer

Manual or automated tools to assist with change and/or configuration management. At a minimum, the tools should support the activities of the CCB.

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Change Log

answer

A comprehensice list of changes made during the project. This typically includes dates of the change and impacts in term of time, cost, and risks.

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Change Request

answer

A formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline.

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Checklist Analysis

answer

A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.

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Checksheets

answer

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data.

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Claim

answer

A request, demand, or assertion of rights by a seller against buyer, or vice versa, for consideration, compensation, or payment under the terms of a legally binding contract, such as for a disputed Change.

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Claims Administration

answer

The process of processing, adjudicating, and communicating contract claims.

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Close Procurements

answer

The process of completing each project procurement.

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Close Project or Phase

answer

The process of finalizing all activities across all of the Project Management Process Groups to formally complete a project or phase.

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Closed Procurements

answer

Project contracts or other procurement agreement that have been formally acknowleged by the proper authorizing agent as being finalized and signed off.

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Closing Process Group

answer

Those processes performed to finallize all activities across all Process Groups to formally close a project or phase.

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Code of Accounts

answer

A numbering System used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Collect Requirements

answer

The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.

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Colocation

answer

An organizational placement strategy where the project team members are physically located close to one another in order to improve communication, workuing relationships, and productivity.

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Communication Constraints

answer

Restrictions on the content, timing, audience, or individual who will deliver a communication usually stemming from specific legislation, technology, or organizational policies.

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Communication Methods

answer

A systematic procedure, technique, or process used to transfer Information among project stakeholders.

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Communication Models

answer

A description, analogy or schematic used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.

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Communication Requirements Analysis

answer

An analytical technique to determine the Information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc...

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Communication Technology

answer

Specific tools, systems, computer programs, etc..., used to transfer Information among project stakeholders.

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Communications Management Plan

answer

A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom Information about the project will be administered and dissemninated.

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Compliance

answer

A general concept of conforming to a rule, standard, law, or requirement such that the assessment of compliance results in a binomial result stated as "compliant" or "noncompliant".

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Conduct Procurements

answer

The process of obtaining seller Responses, selcting a seller, and awarding a contract.

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Configuration Management System

answer

A subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures used to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to: identify and document the functional and physical characteristics of a product, result, service, or component; control any changes to such characteristics; record and repoort each change and ist implementation status; and Support Audit of the products, result, or components to verfiy conformance to requirements. It includes the documentation, tracking systems, and defined approval Levels necessary for authorizing and controlling changes.

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Conflict Management

answer

Handling, Controlling, and guiding a conflictual Situation to achieve a resolution.

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Conformance

answer

Within the quality management system, conformance is a general concept of delivering results that fall within the Limits that define acceptable variation for a quality requirements.

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Conformance Work

answer

In the cost of Quality Framework, conformance work is done to compensate for imperfcetions that prevent organizations form completing planned activities correctly as essential first-time work. -------- -------- consists of Actions that are related to prevention and inspection.

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Constraint

answer

A limiting factor that effects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

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Context Diagrams

answer

A visual depiction of the product scope showing a business system (process, equipment, computer system, etc.), and how people and other systems (actors) interact with it.

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Contingency

answer

An event or occurance that could affect the execution of the project that may be acconted for with a reserve.

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Contingency Reserve

answer

Budget within the cost baseline or performance measurement baseline that is allocated for identified risks that are accepted and for wich contingent or mitigating responses are developed.

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Contingent Response Strategies

answer

Responses provided which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs.

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Contract

answer

A contract is a mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

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Contract Change Control System

answer

The system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.

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Control

answer

Comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to aeffect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action is needed.

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Control Account

answer

A management control point where scope, budget, actual cost, and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement.

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Control Chart

answer

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

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Control Communications

answer

The process of monitoring and -------- -------- throughout the entire project life cycle to ensure the information needs of the project stakeholders are met.

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Control Costs

answer

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the baseline.

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Control Limits

answer

The area composed of three standard deviations on either side of the centerline or mean of a normal distribution of data plotted on a control chart, which reflects the expected variation in the data.

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Control Procurements

answer

The process of managing procurement realtionships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections as appropriate.

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Control Quality

answer

The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

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Control Risks

answer

The process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.

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Control Schedule

answer

The process of monitoring the status of project activities to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline to achieve the plan.

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Control Scope

answer

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline.

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Control Stakeholder Engagement

answer

The process of monitoring overall project stakeholder relationships and adjusting strategies and plans for engaging stakeholders.

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Corrective Action

answer

An intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan.

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Cost Aggregation

answer

Summing the lower-level cost estimates associated with the various work packages for a given level within the project^s WBS or for a given cost control account.

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Cost Baseline

answer

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

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Cost Management Plan

answer

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be pleanned, structured, and controlled.

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Cost of Quality

answer

A method of determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. Prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance) include costs for quality planning, quality control (QC), and quality assurance to ensure compliance to requirements (i.e., training, QC systems, etc.). Failure costs (cost of nonconformance) incude costs to rework products, components, or processes that are non-compliant, costs of warranty work and waste, and loss of reputation.

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Cost Performanc Index (CPI)

answer

A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost.

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Cost Plus Award Fee Contracts (CPAF)

answer

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

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Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

answer

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the selle for the seller's allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

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Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

answer

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller's alowqable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract), and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

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Cost Variance (CV)

answer

The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

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Cost-Benefit Analysis

answer

A financial analysios tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

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Cost-Reimbursable Contract

answer

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller's actual costs, plus a fee typically representing seller's profit. Cost-reimbursable contracts often include incetive clauses where, if the seller meets or exceeds selected project objectives, such as schedule targets or total cost, the the seller receives from the buyer an incetive or bonus payment.

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Crashing

answer

A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

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Create WBS

answer

The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.

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Criteria

answer

Standards, rules, or tests on which a judgment or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated.

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Critical Chain Method

answer

A schedule method that allows the project team to place buffers on any project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties.

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Critical Path

answer

The sequence of activities that represents the longest path through a project, which determines the shortest possible duration.

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Critical Path Activity

answer

Any activity on the critical path in a project schedule.

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Customers

answer

-------- is the person(s) or organization(s) that will pay for the project's product, service, or result. -------- can be internal or external to the performing organization.

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Customer Satisfaction

answer

Within the quality management system, a state of fullfillment in which the needs of a customer are met or exceeded for the customer's expected experiences as assessed by the customer at the moment of evaluation.

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Data Date

answer

A point in time when the status of the project is recorded.

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Data Gathering and Representation Techniques

answer

Techniques used to collect, organize, and present data and information.

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Decision Tree Analysis

answer

A diagramming and calculation technique for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

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Decomposition

answer

A technique used for dividingand subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

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Defect

answer

An imperfection or deficiency in a project component where that component does not meet its requirements or specifications and needs to be either repaired or replaced.

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Defect Repair

answer

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component.

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Define Activities

answer

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.

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Define Scope

answer

The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.

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Deliverable

answer

Any unique and verificable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

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Delphi Technique

answer

An information gathering technique used as a way to reach a consensus of experts on a subject. Experts on the subject participate in this technique anonymously. A facilitator uses a questionnaire to solicit ideas about the important project points relared to the subject. The responses are summarized and are then recirculated to the experts for further comment. Consensus may be reached in a few rounds of this process. The -------- -------- helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from having undue influence on the outcome.

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Dependency Determination

answer

A technique used to identify the type of dependency that is used to create the logical relationships between predecessor and successor activities.

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Design of Experiments

answer

A statistical method for identifying which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production.

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Determine Budget

answer

The process of aggregatingthe estimated costsof individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.

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Develop Project Charter

answer

The processof developing a document that formallyauthorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with theauthority to apply organizational resources to project activties.

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Develop Project Management Plan

answer

The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensice project management plan.

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Develop Project Team

answer

The process of improving competencies, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.

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Develop Schedule

answer

The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model.

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Diagramming Techniques

answer

Approaches to presenting information with logical linkages that aid in understanding.

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Dictatorship

answer

A group decision-making technique in which one individual males the decision for the group.

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Direct and Manage Project Work

answer

The process of leading and performing the work defined in the project management plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project's objectives.

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Discrete Effort

answer

An activity that can be planned and measured and that yields a specific output. [Note: Discrete effort is one of three earned value management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance.]

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Discretionary Dependency

answer

A relationship that is established base on knowledge of best practices within a particual application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

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Document Analysis

answer

An elicitation technique that analyzes existing documentation and identifies information relevant to the requirements.

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Documentation Reviews

answer

The process of gathering a corpus of information and reviewing it to determine accuracy and completeness.

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Duration (DU or DUR)

answer

The total number of work periods (not including holidays or other nonworking periods) required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component. Usually expressed asworkdays or workweeks. Sometimes incorrectly equated with elapsed time. Contrast with effort.

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Early Finish Date (EF)

answer

In the critical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the data date, and any schedule constraints.

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Early Start Date (ES)

answer

In the cirtical path method, the earliest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule newtork logic, the data date and any schedule constraints.

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Earned Value (EV)

answer

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

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Earned Value Management

answer

A methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress.

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Effort

answer

The number of labor units required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks.

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Emotional Intelligence

answer

The capability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as wellas the collective emotions of groups of people.

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Enteprise Environmental Factors

answer

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio.

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Estimate

answer

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome. Usually applied to project costs, resources, effort, and durations and is usually preceded by a modifier(i.e., preliminary, conceptual, feasibility, order-of-mangnitude, definitive). It should always include some indication of accuracy (e.g., +/- x percent).

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Estimate Activity Durations

answer

The process of estimating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with estimated resources.

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Estimate Activity Resources

answer

The process of estimating the type and quantities of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity.

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Estimate as Completion (EAC)

answer

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

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Estimate Costs

answer

The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resouces needed to complete project activities.

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Estimate to Complete (ETC)

answer

The expected cost to finish all the remaining project work.

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Execute

answer

Directing, managing, performing, and accomplishing the project work; providing the deliverables; and providing work performance information.

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Executing Process Group

answer

Those processess performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications.

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Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis

answer

A statistical technique that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. A common use of this technique is within deicsion tree analysis.

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Expert Judgment

answer

Judgement provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc., as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training.

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External Dependency

answer

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.

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Facilitated Workshops

answer

An elicitation technique using focussed sessions that bring key cross-functional stakeholder together to define product requirements.

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Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA)

answer

An analytical procedure in which each potential failure mode in every component of a product is analyzed to determine its effect on the reliability of that component and, by itself or in combinaison with other possible failure modes, on the reliability of the product or system and on the required function of the component; or the examination of a product(at the system and/or lower levels) for all ways that a failure may occur. For each potential failure, an estimate is made of its effect on the total system and of its impact. In addition, a review is undertaken of the action planned to minimize the probability of failure and to minimize its effects.

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Fallback Plan

answer

Fallback plans inculde an alternative set of actions and tasks available in the event that the primary plan needs to be abandoned because of issues, risks, or other causes.

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Fast Tracking

answer

A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

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Fee

answer

Represents profit as a component of compensation to as seller.

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Finish Date

answer

A point in time associated with a schedule activity's completion. Usually qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, baseline, target, or current.

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Finish-to-Finish (FF)

answer

A logical realtionship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has finished.

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Finish-to Start (FS)

answer

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished.

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Firm-Fixed-Price Contract (FFP)

answer

A type of fixed proce contract where buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract), regardless of the seller's costs.

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Fixed Formula Method

answer

An earned value method for assigning a specified percentage of budget value for a work package to the start mileston of the work package with the remaining budget value percentage assigned when the work package is complete.

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Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

answer

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount(as defined by the contract), and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

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Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contracts (FP-EPA)

answer

A fixed-price contract, but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustements to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

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Fioxed-Price Contracts

answer

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

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Flowchart

answer

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

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Focus Groups

answer

An elicitation technique that brings together prequalified stakeholdes and subjet matter experts to learn about their expectations and attittides about a proposed product, service, or result.

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Forecast

answer

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project's future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. The information is based on the project's past performance and expected future performance, and includes information that could impact the project in the future, such as estimate at completion and estimate to complete.

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Forward Pass

answer

A critical patch method technique for calculating the early start and early finish dates by working forward through the schedule model from the project start date or a given point in time.

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Free Float

answer

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of any successor or violating a schedule constraint.

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Functional Manager

answer

Someone with management authority over an organizational unit within a cuntional organization. The manager of any group that actually makes a product or performs a service. Sometimes called a line manager.

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Functional Organization

answer

A hierarchical organization where employee has one clear superior, and staff are grouped by areas of specialization and managed by a person with expertise in that area.

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Funding Limit Reconciliation

answer

The process of comparing the planned expenditure of project funds against any limits on the commitment of funds for the project to identify any variances between the funding limits and the planned expenditures.

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Gantt Chart

answer

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

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Grade

answer

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use (e.g., "hammer") but do not share the same requirements for quality (e.g., differetn hammers may need to withstand different amounts of force).

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Ground Rules

answer

Expectations regarding acceptable bahavior by project team members.

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Group Creativity Techniques

answer

Techniques that are used to generate ideas within a group of stakeholders.

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Group Decision-Making Techniques

answer

Techniques to assess multiple alternatives that will be used to generate, classify, and prioritize product requirements.

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Guideline

answer

An official recommendation or advice that indicates policies, standards, or procedures for how something should be accomplished.

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Histogram

answer

A special form of bar chart used to describe the central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Historical Information

answer

Documents and data on prior projects including project files, records, correspondence, closed contracts, and closed projects.

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Human Resource Management Plan

answer

A component of the project management plan that describes how the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staff management will be addressed and structured.

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Idea/Mind Mapping

answer

Technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstroming sessions into a single map to reflec commonatily and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.

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Identify Risks

answer

The process of determining which risks may affedt the project and documenting their characteristics.

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Identify Stakeholders

answer

The process of identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project; and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interest, involvement, interfependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.

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Imposed Date

answer

A fixed date imposed on a schedule activity or schedule milestons, usually in the form of a "start no earlier than" and "finish no later than" date.

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Incentive Fee

answer

A set of financial incentives related to cost, schedule, or technical performance of the seller.

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Incremental Life Cycle

answer

A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team's understanding of the product increases. Iterations develop the product through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product.

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Independent Estimates

answer

A process of using a third party to obtain and analyze information to support prediction of cost, schedule, or other items.

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Influence Diagram

answer

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationshops among variables and outcomes.

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Information Gathering Techniques

answer

Repeatable processes used to assemble and organize data across a sprectrum of sources.

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Information Management Systems

answer

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.

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Initiating Process Group

answer

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

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Input

answer

Any time, wheter internal or external to the project that is required by a process before that process proceeds. May be an output from a predecessor process.

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Inspection

answer

Examining or measuring to verify whether an activity, component, product, result, or service conforms to specified requirements.

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Inspections and Audits

answer

A process to observe performance of contracted work or a promised product against agreed-upon requirements.

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Interpersonal Skills

answer

Ability to establsh and maintain relationships with other people.

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Interrelationship Diagraphs

answer

A quality management planning tool. the interrelationship diagraphs provide a process for creative problem-solving in moderately complex scenarios that possess intertwined logical realtionships.

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Interviews

answer

A formal or informal approach to elicit information from stakeholders by taking to them directly.

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Invitation for Bid (IFB)

answer

Generally, this term is equivalent to request for proposal. However, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

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Issue

answer

A point or matter in question or in dispute, or a point or matter that is not settled and is under discussion or over which there are opposing views or disagreements.

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Issue Log

answer

A project document used to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholder.

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Iterative Life Cycle

answer

A project life cycle where the project scope is generally determined early in the project life cycle, but time and cost estimates are routinely modified as the project team's understanding of the product increases. Iterations develop the product through a series of repeated cycles, while increments successively add to the functionality of the product.

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Lag

answer

The amount of time whereby a successor activity is required to be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

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Late Finish Date (LF)

answer

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can finish based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

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Late Start Date (LS)

answer

In the critical path method, the latest possible point in time when the uncompleted portions of a schedule activity can start based on the schedule network logic, the project completion date, and any schedule constraints.

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Lead

answer

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

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Lesson Learned

answer

The knowledge gained during a project which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future with purpose of improving future performance.

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Lessons Learned Knowledge Base

answer

A store of historical information and lessons learned leraned about both the outcomes of previous project selection decisions and previous project performance.

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Level of Effort (LOE)

answer

An activity that does not produce definitive end product and is measured by the passage of time. [Not: Level of effort is one of three earned valued management (EVM) types of activities used to measure work performance.]

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Log

answer

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, quality control, action, or defect.

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Logical Relationship

answer

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone.

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Majority

answer

Support from more than 50 percent of the members of the group.

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Make-or-Buy Analysis

answer

The process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analysing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacture of the product.

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Manage Communications

answer

The process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance with the communications management plan.

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Manage Project Team

answer

The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing team changes to optimize project performance.

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Manage Stakeholder Engagement

answer

The process of coomunicating and working with stakeholder to meet their needs/expectations, address issues as they occur, and foster appropriate stakeholder engagement in project activities throughout the project life cycle.

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Management Reserve

answer

An amount of the project budget withhld for management control purposes. These are budgets reserved for unforeseen work that is within scope of the project. The management reserve is not included in the performance measurement baseline (PMB).

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Management Skills

answer

The ability to plan, organize, direct, and control individuals or groups of people to achieve specific goals.

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Manadatory Dependency

answer

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

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Market Research

answer

The process of gathering information at conferences, online reviews, and a variety of sources to identify market capabilities.

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Master Schedule

answer

A summary-level project schedule that identifies the major deliverables and work breakdown structure components and key schedule milestones.

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Material

answer

The aggregate of things used by an organization in any undertaking, such as equipment, apparatus, tools, machinery, gear, material, and supplies.

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Matrix Diagrams

answer

A quality amangement and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.

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Matrix Organization

answer

Any organizational structure in which the project manager shares responsability with the functional managers for assigning priorities and for directing the work of persons assigned to the project.

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Methodology

answer

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

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Milestone

answer

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

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Milestone List

answer

A list identifying all project milestones and normally indicates whetehr the milestons is mandatory or optional.

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Milestone Schedule

answer

A summary-level schedule that identifies the major schedule milestones.

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Monitor

answer

Collect project performance data with respect to a plan, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

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Monitor and Control Project Work

answer

The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting the progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.

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Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

answer

Those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.

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Monte Calro Simulation

answer

A process which generates hunderd or thousands of probable performance outcomes based on probability distributions for cost and schedule on individual tasks. The outcomes are then used to generate a probability distribution for the project as a whole.

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Most Likely Duration

answer

An estimate of the most probable activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

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Multi-Criteria Decision Analysis

answer

This technique utilizes a decision matrix to provide a sstematic analytical approach for establishing criteria, such as risk levels, uncertainty, and valuation, to evaluate and rank many ideas.

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Near-Critical Activity

answer

A schedule activity that has low total float. The concept of near-critical is equally applicable to a schedule activity or schedule network path. The limit below which total float is considered near critical is subject to expert judgmeent and vaires from project to project.

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Negotiated Settlements

answer

The process of reaching final equitable settlement of all outstanding issues, claims, and disputes through negotiation.

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Negotiation

answer

The process and activities to resolving disputes through consultations between involved parties.

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Network Logic

answer

The collection of schedule activity dependencies that makes up a project schedule network diagram.

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Network Path

answer

Any continuous series of schedule activities connected with logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

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Networking

answer

Establishing connections and relationships with other people from the same or other oganizations.

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Node

answer

One of the defining points of a schedule network; a junction point joined to some or all of the other dependency lines.

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Nominal Group Techniques

answer

A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for further brainstorming of for prioritization.

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Nonconformance Work

answer

In the cost of quality framework, -------- -------- is done to deal with the consequences of errors and failures in doing activities correctly on the first attempt. In efficient quality management systems, the amount of -------- -------- will approach zero.

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Objective

answer

Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

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Observations

answer

A technique that provides a direct way of viewing individuals in their environement performing their jobs or tasks and carrying out processes.

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Opportunity

answer

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

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Optimistic Duration

answer

An estimate of the shortest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

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Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

answer

A hierarchical representation of the project organization that illustre the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perfrom those activities.

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Organizational Process Assets

answer

Plann, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization.

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Organizational Project Management Maturity

answer

The level of an organization's ability to deliver the desired strategic outcomes in a predictable, controllable, and releable manner.

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Output

answer

A product, result, or service generated by a process. May be an input to a successor process.

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Parametric Estimating

answer

An stimating technique in which an alogirthm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters.

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Pareto Diagram

answer

A histogram, ordered by frequency of occurance, that shows how many results were generated by each identified cause.

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Path Convergence

answer

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one predecessor.

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Path Divergence

answer

A relationship in which a schedule activity has more than one successor.

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Payment Systems

answer

The system used to provide and track supplier's invoices and payments for services and products.

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Percent Complete

answer

An estimate expressed as a percent of the amount of work that has been completed on an activity or a work breakdown structure component.

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Perform Integrated Change Control

answer

The process of reviewing all change requests; approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational prcess assets, project documents, and the project management plan; and communicating their disposition.

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Perform Qualitativ Risk Analysis

answer

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assassing and combinung their probabability of occurence and impact.

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Perform Quality Assurance

answer

The process of auditing the quaility requirements and the results from quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used.

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Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

answer

The process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

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Performance Measurement Baseline

answer

An approved, integrated scope-schedule-cost plan for the project work against which project execution is compared to measure and manage performance. The -------- -------- -------- includes contingency reserve, but excludes management reserve.

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Performance Reviews

answer

A techniqu that is used to measure, compare, and analyze actual performance of work in progress on the project against the baseline.

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Performing Organization

answer

An enterprise whose personnel are most directly involved in doing the work of the project or program.

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Pessimistic Duration

answer

Estimate of the longest activity duration that takes into account all of the known variables that could affect performance.

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Phase Gate

answer

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

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Plan Communications Management

answer

The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholder's information needs and requirements and available organizational assets.

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Plan Cost Management

answer

The process that establish the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs.

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Plan Human Resource Management

answer

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skilss, reporting relationships, and creating a staffing management plan.

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Plan Procurement Management

answer

The process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers.

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Plan Quality Management

answer

The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements.

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Plan Risk Management

answer

The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project.

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Plan Risk Responses

answer

The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives.

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Plan Schedule Management

answer

The process of establshing the plocieis, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.

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Plan Scope Management

answer

The process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.

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Plan Stakeholder Management

answer

The process of developing appropriate management strategies to effectively engage stakeholdes throughout the project life cycle, based on the analyis of thier needs, interests, and potential impact on project success.

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Planned Value (PV)

answer

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

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Planning Package

answer

A work breakdown structure component below the control account with known work content but without detailed schedule activities.

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Planning Process Group

answer

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

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Plurality

answer

Decisions made by the largest block in a group, even if a majority is not achieved.

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Policy

answer

A structured pattern of actions adopted by an organization such that the organization's policy can be explained as a set of basic principles that govern the organization's conduct.

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Portfolio

answer

Projects, programs, subportfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

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Portfolio Management

answer

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

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Practice

answer

A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may employ one or more techniques and tools.

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Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

answer

A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.

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Precedence Relationship

answer

The term used in the precedence diagramming method for a logical realtionship. In cureent usage, however, precedence relationship, logical relationship, and dependency are widely used interchangeably regardless of the diagramming method used.

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Precision

answer

Within the quality management system, -------- is a measure of exactness.

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Precessor Activity

answer

An activity that logically comes before a dependent activity in a schedule.

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Predictive Life Cycle

answer

A form of project life cycle in which the project scope, and the time and cost required to deliver that scope, are determined as early in the life cycle as possible.

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Preventive Action

answer

An intentional activity that ensures the future performance of the project work is aligned with the project management plan.

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Prioritization Matrices

answer

A quality management planning tool used to identify key issues and evaluate suitable alternatives to define a set of implementations priorities.

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Probabilitiy and Impact Matrix

answer

A grid for mapping the probability of each risk occurence and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

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Procedure

answer

An established method of accomplishing a consistent performance or result, a procedure typically can be describes as the sequence of steps that will be used to execute a process.

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Process

answer

A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon create one or more outputs.

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Process Analysis

answer

A -------- -------- follows the steps outlined in the process improvement plan to identify needed improvements.

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Process Decision Program Charts (PDPC)

answer

The -------- -------- -------- -------- is used to understand a goal in relation to the steps for getting to the goal.

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Process Improvement Plan

answer

A subsidiary plan of the project management plan. It details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities that enhance their value.

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Procurement Audits

answer

The review of contracts and contracting processes for completeness, accuray, and effectiveness.

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Procurement Documents

answer

The documents utilized in bid and proposal activities, which include the buyer's Invitation for Bid, Invitation for Negotiations, Request for Information, Request for Quaotation, Request for Proposal, and seller's responses.

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Procurement Management Plan

answer

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization.

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Procurement Performance Reviews

answer

A structured review of the seller's progress to deliver project scope and quality, whithin cost and on schedule, as compared to the contract.

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Procurement Statement of Work

answer

Describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results.

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Product

answer

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item. Additional words for products are material and goods.

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Product Analysis

answer

For projects that have a product as a deliverable, it is a tool to define scope that generally means asking quastions about a product and forming answers to describes the use, characteristics, and other relevant aspects of what is going to be manufactured.

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Product Life Cycle

answer

The series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

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Product Scope.

answer

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.

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Product Scope Description

answer

The documentated narrative description of the product scope.

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Program

answer

A group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

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Program Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT)

answer

A technique for estimating that applies a weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

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Program Management

answer

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to a program to meet the program requirements and to obtain benefits and control not available by managing projects individually.

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Progressive Elaboration

answer

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

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Project

answer

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

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Project-Based Organizations (PBOs)

answer

A variety of organizational forms that involve the creation of temporary systems for the performance of projects. PBOs conduct the majority of their activities as projects and/or provide project over functional approaches.

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Project Calendar

answer

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for schedule activities.

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Project Charter

answer

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

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Project Communications Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- inculdes the process that are required to ensure timely and appropriate planning, collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval management, control, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.

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Project Cost Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes involved in planning, estimating, budgeting, financing, funding, managing, and controlling costs so that the project can be completed within the approved budget.

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Project Funding Requirements

answer

Forecast project costs to be paid that are derivated from the cost baseline for total or periodic requirements, including projected expenditures plus anticipated liabilities.

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Project Governance

answer

The alignment of project objectives with the strategy of the larger organization by the project sponsor and project team. A -------- -------- is defined by and is required to fit within the larger context of the program or organization sponsoring it, but is separate from organizational governance.

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Project Human Resource Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- -------- inculdes the processes that organize, manage, and lead the project team.

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Project Initiation

answer

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project.

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Project Integration Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes and activities to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the Project Management Process Groups.

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Project Life Cycle

answer

The series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure.

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Project Management

answer

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Project Management Body of Knowledge

answer

An inclusive term that describes the sum of knowledge within the profession of project management. As with other professions, such as law, medicine, and accounting, the -------- -------- -------- rests with practitioners and academics that apply and advance it. The complete -------- -------- -------- -------- -------- includes proven traditional practices that are widely applied and innovative practices that are emerging in the professions. -------- -------- -------- includes both published and unpublished materials. This -------- -------- -------- is constantly evolving.PMI's -------- -------- -------- -------- -------- identifies a subset of the -------- -------- -------- -------- -------- that is generally recognized as good practice.

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Project Management Information System

answer

An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outpus of project management processes. It is used to support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both manual and automated systems.

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Project Management Knowledge Area

answer

An identified area of project management defined by its knowledge requirements and described in terms of its component processes, practices, inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques.

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Project Management Office (PMO)

answer

An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

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Project Management Plan

answer

The document that describes how the project will be execute, monitored and controlled.

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Project Management Process Group

answer

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs. The -------- -------- -------- -------- include initiating processes, planning processes, executing processes, monitoring and controlling processes, and closing processes. -------- -------- -------- -------- are not project phases.

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Project Management Staff

answer

The members of the project team who perform project management activities such as schedule, communications, risk management, etc.

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Project Management System

answer

The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.

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Project Management Team

answer

The members of the project team who are directly involved in project management activities. On some smaller projects, the project management team may include virtually all of the project team members.

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Project Manager (PM)

answer

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

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Project Organization Chart

answer

A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.

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Project Phase

answer

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

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Project Procurement Management

answer

Project Procurement Management includes the processes necessary to purchase or acquire products, service, or results needed from outside the project team.

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Project Quality Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes and activities of the performing organization that determine quality policies, objectives, and responsibilities so that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.

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Project Risk Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes of conducting risk management planning, identification, analysis, responses planning, and controlling risk on a project.

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Project Schedule

answer

An output of a schedule model that presetns linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

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Project Schedule Network Diagram

answer

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

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Project Scope

answer

The work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with the specified features and functions.

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Project Scope Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

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Project Scope Statement

answer

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.

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Project Stakeholder Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes required to identitfy the people, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project, to analyze stakeholde expectations and their impact on the project, and to develop appropriate management strategies for effectively engaging stakeholders in project decisions and execution.

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Project Team

answer

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives.

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Project Team Directory

answer

A documented list of project team members, their project roles, and communication information.

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Project Time Management

answer

-------- -------- -------- includes the processes required to manage the imely completion of the project.

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Projectized Organization

answer

Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to assign priorities, apply resources, and direct the work of persons assigned to the project.

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Proposal Evaluation Techniques

answer

The process of reviewing proposals provided by suppliers to support contract award decisions.

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Prototypes

answer

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building it.

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Quality

answer

The degree to witch a set of inherint characteristics fulfulls requirements.

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Quality Audits

answer

A quality audit is a structures, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.

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Quality Checklists

answer

A structured tool used to verify that a set of required steps has been performed.

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Quality Control Measurements

answer

The documented results of control quality activities.

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Quality Function Deployment (QFD)

answer

A facilitated workshop technique that helps to determine critical characteristic for new product development.

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Quality Management and Control Tools

answer

They are a type of quality planning tools used to link and sequence the activities identified.

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Quality Management Plan

answer

A component of the project or program management plkan that describes how an organization's quality policies will be implemented.

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Quality Management System

answer

The organizational framework whose structure provides the policies, processes, procedures, and resources required to implement the qualty management plan. The typical project quality management plan shoul be compatible to the organization's -------- -------- --------.

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Quality Metrics

answer

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

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Quality Policy

answer

A policy specific to the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area, it establishes the basic principles that shoul govern the organization's actions as it implements its system for quality management.

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Quality Requirement

answer

A condition or capability that will be used to assess conformance by validating the acceptability of an attribute for the quality of a result.

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Quantitative Risk Analysis and Modeling Techniques

answer

Commonly used techniques for both event-oriented and project-oriented analysis approaches.

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Questionnaires and Surveys

answer

Written sets of questions designed to quickly accumulate information from a large number of respondents.

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RACI

answer

A comon type of responsability assignment matrix that uses responsible, accountable, consult, and inform statuses to define the involvement of stakeholdes in project activities.

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Records Management System

answer

A specific set of processes, related control functions, and tools that are consolidated and combined to record and retain information about the project.

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Regression Analysis

answer

An analytic technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

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Regulation

answer

Requirements imposed by a governmental body. There requirements can establish product, process, or service characteristics, including applicable administrative provisions that have government-mandated compliance.

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Reporting Systems

answer

Facilities, processes, and procedures used to generate of consolidate repots from one or more information management systems and facilitate report distribution to the project stakeholders.

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Request for Information (RFI)

answer

A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service or seller capability.

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Request for Proposal (RFP)

answer

A type of procurement document used to request proposals from prospective sellers of products or services. In some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

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Request for Quotation (RFQ)

answer

A type of procurement document used to request price quotations from prospectices sellers of common or standard products or services. Sometimes used in place of request for proposal and, in some application areas, it may have a narrower or more specific meaning.

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Requested Change

answer

A formally documented change request that is submitted for approval to the integrated change control process.

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Requirement

answer

A condition or capability that is required to be present in a product, service, or result to satisfy a contract or other formally imposed specification.

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Requirements Documentation

answer

A description of how individual requirements meet the business need for the project.

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Requirements Management Plan

answer

A component of the project or program management plan describes how requirements will be analyzed, documentet, and managed.

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Requirements Traceability Matrix

answer

A grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satify them.

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Reserve

answer

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. Often used with a modifier (e.g., management --------, contingency -------- ) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated.

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Reserve Analysis

answer

An analytical technique to detemrine the essentail features and relationshops of components in the project management plan to establish a reserve for the schedule duration, budget, estimated cost, or funds for a project.

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Residual Risk

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A risk that remains after risk responses have been implemented.

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Resource

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Skilled human resources (specific disciplines either individually or in crews or teams), equipment, services, supplies, commodities, material, budget, or funds.

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Resource Breakdown Structure

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A hierarchical representation of resources by category and type.

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Resource Calendar

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A calendar that identifies the working days and shifts on which each specific resource is available.

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Resource Histogram

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A bar chart showing the amount of time that a resource is scheduled to work over a series of time periods. Resorce availability may be depicted as a line for comparison purposes. Contrasting bars may sho actual amounts of resources used as the project progresses.

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Resource Leveling

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A technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing demand for resources with the available supply.

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Resource Optimization Techniques

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A technique that is used to adjust the start and finish dats of activities that adjust planned resource use to be equal to or less than resource availability.

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Resource Smoothing

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A technique which adjusts the activities of a schedule model such that the requirement for resources on the project do not exceed certain predefined resource limits.

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Responsibility

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An assignment that can be delegated within a project management plan such that the assigned resource incurs a duty to perform the requirements of the assignment.

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Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.

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Result

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An output from performing project management processes and activities. -------- include outcomes (e.g., integrated systems, revised process, restructured organization, tests, trained personnel, etc.) and document (e.g., policies, plans, studies, procedures , specifications, reports, etc.).

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Rework

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Action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

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Risk

answer

An uncertain event or condition that, if it occurs, has a positive or negative effect on one or more project objectives.

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Risk Acceptance

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A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.

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Risk Appetite

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The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on, in anticipation of a reward.

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Risk Audits

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Examination and documentation of the effectiveness of risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process.

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Risk Avoidance

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A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.

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Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)

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A hierarchical representation of risks according to their risk categories.

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Risk Categorization

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Organization by sources of risk (e.g., using the RBS), the area of the project affected (e.g., using WBS), or othe useful category (e.g., project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.

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Risk Category

answer

A group of potential causes of risk.

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Risk Data Quality Assessment

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Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.

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Risk Management Plan

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A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.

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Risk Mitigation

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A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurence or impact of a risk.

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Risk Reassessment

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-------- -------- is the identification of new risks, reassessment of current risks, and the closing of risks that are outdated.

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Risk Register

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A document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded.

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Risk Threshold

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Measure of the level of uncertainty or the level of impact at which a stakeholder may have a specific interest. Below that -------- --------, the organization will accept the risk. Above that -------- --------, the organization will not tolerate the risk.

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Risk Tolerance

answer

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand.

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Risk Transference

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A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat ro a third party, together with ownership of the response.

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Risk Urgency Assessment

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Review and determiation of the timing of actions that may need to occur sooner than other risk items.

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Role

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A defined function to be performed by a project team member, such as testing, filing, inspecting, or coding.

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Rolling Wave Planning

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An iterative planning technique in which the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work in the future is planned at a higher level.

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Root Cause Analysis

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An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason that causes a variance or a defect or a risk. A -------- -------- -------- underlie more thant one variance or defect or risk.

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Scatter Diagram

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A correlation chart that uses a regression line to explain or to predict how the change in an independent variable will change a dependent variable.

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Schedule Baseline

answer

The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

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Schedule Compression

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Techniques used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope.

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Schedule Data

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The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule.

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Schedule Foercasts

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Estimates or predictions of conditions and events in the project's future based on information and knowledge available at the time the schedule is calculated.

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Schedule Management Plan

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A component of the project management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.

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Schedule Model

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A representation of the plan for executing the project's activities including durations, dependencies, and other planning information, used to produce a project schedule along with other scheduling artifacts.

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Schedule Network Analysis

answer

The technique of identifying early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project schedule activities.

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Schedule Network Templates

answer

A set of activities and relationships that have been established that can be used repeatedly for a particular application area or an aspect of the project where a prescribed sequence is deisred.

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Schedule Performance Index (SPI)

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A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of earned value to planned value.

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Schedule Variance (SV)

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A measur of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the earned value and the planned value.

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Scheduling Tool

answer

A tool that provides schedule component names, definitions, structural realtionships, and formats that support the application of a scheduling method.

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Scope

answer

The sum of the products, services, and results to be provided as a project.

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Scope Baseline

answer

The approved version of a scope statement, work breakdown structure (WBS), and its associated WBS dictionary, that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison.

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Scope Change

answer

Any change to the project scope. A -------- -------- almost always requires an adjustement to the project cost or schedule.

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Scope Creep

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The uncontrolled expansion to product or project scope without adjustments to time, cost, and resources.

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Scope Management Plan

answer

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and verified.

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Secondary Risk

answer

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response.

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Selected Sellers

answer

The selles which habe been selected to provide a contracted set of services or products.

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Seller

answer

A provider or supplier of products, services, or results to an organization.

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Seller Proposals

answer

Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement documentspecifying the priice, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.

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Sensistivity Analysis

answer

A quantitative risk anylsis and modeling technique used to help determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. It examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their baseline valus. The typical display of results is in the form of a tornado diagram.

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Sequence Activities

answer

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.

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Seven Basic Quality Tools

answer

A standard toolkit used by quality management professionals who are responsible for planning, monitoring, and controlling the issues related to quality in an organization.

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Simulation

answer

A -------- usesa project model that translates the uncertainties at a detailed level into their potential impact on objectvies that are expressed at the level of the total project. Project -------- use computer models and estimates of risk, usually expressed as a probability of possible costs or durations at a detailled work level, and re typically performed using Monte Carlo analysis.

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Source Selection Criteria

answer

A set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract.

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Specification

answer

A document that specifies, in a complete, precise, verifiable manner, the requirements, desing, behavior, or other characteristics of a system, component, product, result, or service and the procedures for determining whether these provisions have been satisfied. Examples are: requirement --------, design --------, product --------, and test --------.

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Specification Limits

answer

The area, on either side of the centerline, or mean, of data plotted on a control chart that meets the customer's requirements for a product or service. This area may be greater than or less than the area defined by the control limits.

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Sponsor

answer

A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.

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Sponsoring Organization

answer

The entity responsible for providing the project's sponsor and a conduit for project funding or other project resources.

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Staffing Management Plan

answer

A component of the human resource plan that describes when and how project team members will be acquired and how long they will be needed.

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Stakeholder

answer

An individual, group, or organization who may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affectedby a decision, activity, or outcome of a project.

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Stakeholder Analysis

answer

A technique of systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information to determine whose interests should be taken into account throughout the project.

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Stakeholder Management Plan

answer

The -------- -------- -------- is a subsidiary plan of the project management plan that defines the processes, procedures, tools, and techniques to effectively engage stakeholders in project decisions and execution based on the analysis of their needs, interests, and potential impact.

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Stakeholder Register

answer

A project document including the identification, assessment, and classification of project stakeholders.

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Standard

answer

A document that provides , for common and repeated use, ruls, guidelines, or characteristics for activities or their results, aimed at the achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given context.

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Start Date

answer

A point in time associated with a schedule activity's start, usually qualified by one of the following: actual, planned, estimated, scheduled, early, late, target, baseline, or current.

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Start-to-Finish (SF)

answer

A logical realtionship in which a successor activity cannot finish until a predecessor activity has started.

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Start-to-Start (SS)

answer

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has started.

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Statement of Work (SOW)

answer

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

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Statistical Sampling

answer

Choosing part of a population of interest for inspection.

question

Subnetwork

answer

A subdivision (fragment) of a project schedule network diagram, usually representing a subproject or a work package. Often used to illustrate or study some potential or proposed schedule condition, such as changes in preferential schedule logic or project scope.

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Subproject

answer

A smaller portion of the overall project created when a project is subdivided into more manageable components or pieces.

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Successor Activity

answer

A dependent activity that logically comes after another activity in a schedule.

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Summary Activity

answer

A group of related schedule activities aggregated and displayed as a single activitiy.

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SWOT Analysis

answer

Analysis of strenghs, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of an organization, project, or option.

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Tailor

answer

The act of carefully selecting process and related inputs and outputs contained within the PMBOK Guide to determine a subset of specific processes that will be included within a project's overall management approach.

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Technique

answer

A defined systematic procedure employed by a human resource to perform an activity to produce a product or result or deliver a service, and that may employ one or more tools.

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Templates

answer

A partially complete document in a predefined format that provides a defined structure for collecting, organizing, and presenting information and data.

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Threat

answer

A risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives.

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Three-Point Estimate

answer

A technique used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

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Threshold

answer

A cost, time, quality, technical, or resource value used as a parameter, and which may be included in product specifications. Crossing the -------- should trigger some action, such as generating an exception report.

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Time and Material Contract (T&M)

answer

A type of contract that is a hybrid contractual arrangement containing aspects of both cost-reimbursable and fixed-rpice contracts. -------- -------- -------- -------- resemble cost-reimbursable type arrangements in that they have no definitce end, because the full value of the arrangement is not defined at the time of the ward. Thus, -------- -------- -------- -------- can grow in contract value as if they were cost-reimbursable-type arrangements. Conversely, -------- -------- -------- -------- can also resemble fixed-price arrangements. Foer example, the unit rates are preset by the buyer and seller, when both parties agree on the rates for the category of senior engineers.

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Time-Scaled Schedule Network Diagram

answer

Any project schedule network diagram drawn in such a way that the positioning and length of the schedule activity represents its duration. Essentially, it is a bar chart that includes schedule network logic.

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To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)

answer

A measure of the cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the remaining budget.

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Tolerance

answer

The quantified description of acceptable variation for the quality requirement.

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Tornado Diagram

answer

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables.

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Tool

answer

Something tangible, such as a template or software program, used in performing an activity to produce a product or result.

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Total Float

answer

The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.

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Tree Diagram

answer

A systematic diagram of a decomposition hierarchy used to visualize as parent-to-child relationships a systematic set of rules.

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Trend Analysis

answer

An analytical technique that uses mathematical models to forecast future outcomes based on historical results. It is a method of determining the variance from a baseline of a budget, cost, schedule, or scope parameter by using prior progress reporting periods' data and projecting how much that parameter's variance from baseline might be at some future point in the project if no changes are made in executing the project.

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Trigger Condition

answer

An event or situation that indicates that a risk is about to occur.

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Unanimity

answer

Agreement by everyone in the group on a single course of action.

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Validate Scope

answer

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

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Validation

answer

The assurance that a prodcut, service, or system meets the needs of the customer and other identified stakholders. It often involves acceptance and suitability with external customers.

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Value Engineering

answer

An approach used to optimze project life cycle costs, save time, increase profits, improve quality, expand market share, solve problem, and/or use resources more effectively.

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Variance

answer

A quantifable deviation, departure, or divergence away from a known baseline or expected value.

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Variance Analysis

answer

A technique for determining the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance.

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Variance at Completion (VAC)

answer

A projection of the amount of budget deficit or surplus, expressed as the difference between the budget at completion and the estimate at completion.

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Variation

answer

An actual condition that is different from the expected condition that is contained in the baseline plan.

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Velocity

answer

A measure of a team's productivity rate at which the deliverables are produces, validated, and accepted within a predefined interval. -------- is a capacity planning approach frequently used to forecast future project work.

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Verification

answer

The evaluation of whether or not a product, service, or system complies with a regulation, requirement, specification, or imposed condition. It is often an interanl process.

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Verified Deliverables

answer

Completed project deliverables that have been checked and confirmed for correctness through the Control Quality process.

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Voice of the Customer

answer

A planning technique used to provide products, services, and results that truly reflect customer requirements by translating those customer requirements into the appropriate technical requirements for each phase of project development.

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WBS Dictionary

answer

A document that provides detailed deliverable, activity, and scheduling information about each component in the work breakdown structure.

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Weighted Milestone Method

answer

An earned value method that divides a work package into measurable segments, each ending with an observable mileston, and then assigns a weighted value to the achievement of each mileston.

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What-If Scenario Analysis

answer

The process of evaluating scenarios in order to predict their effect on project objectives.

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Work Authorization

answer

A permission and direction, typically written, to begin work on specific schedule activity or work package or control account. It is a method for sanctioning project work to ensure that the work is done by the identified organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence.

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Work Authorization System

answer

A subsystem of the overall project management system. It is a collection of formal documented procedures that defines how project work will be authorized (committed) to ensure that the work is done by the identified organization, at the right time, and in the proper sequence. It includes the steps, documents, tracking system, and defined approval levels needed to issue work authorizations.

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Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

answer

A hierarchical decompostion of the total scopeof work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables.

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Work Breakdown Structure Component

answer

An entry in the work breakdown structure that can be at any level.

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Work Package

answer

The word defined at the lowest level of the work breakdown structure for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed.

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Work Performance Data

answer

The raw observations and measurements identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work.

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Work Performance Information

answer

The performance data collected from various controlling processes, analyzed in context and integrated based on relationshops across areas.

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Work Performance Reports

answer

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.

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Workaround

answer

A response to a threat that has occured, for which a prior response had not been planned or was not effective.

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Activity Network Diagrams

answer

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

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Buffer

answer

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. Often used with a modifier (e.g., management --------, contingency -------- ) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated.

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Charter

answer

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

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Contingency Allowance

answer

A provision in the project management plan to mitigate cost and/or schedule risk. Often used with a modifier (e.g., management --------, contingency -------- ) to provide further detail on what types of risk are meant to be mitigated.

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Dependency

answer

A dependency between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone.

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Fishbone diagram

answer

A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to ist root cause.

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Float

answer

Also called slack. The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed or extended from its early start date without delaying the project finish date or violating a schedule constraint.

question

Hammock Activity

answer

A group of related schedule activities aggregated and displayed as a single activitiy.

question

Hard Logic

answer

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

question

Leveling

answer

A technique in which start and finish dates are adjusted based on resource constraints with the goal of balancing demand for resources with the available supply.

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Life Cycle

answer

The series of phases that a project passes through from its initiation to its closure.

question

Network

answer

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

question

Network Analysis

answer

The technique of identifying early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project schedule activities.

question

Performance Reporting

answer

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.

question

Performance Reports

answer

The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.

question

Phase

answer

A collection of logically related project activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

question

Preferential Logic

answer

A relationship that is established base on knowledge of best practices within a particual application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

question

Preferred Logic

answer

A relationship that is established base on knowledge of best practices within a particual application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

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Project Statement of Work

answer

A narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by the project.

question

Schedule

answer

An output of a schedule model that presetns linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

question

Soft Logic

answer

A relationship that is established base on knowledge of best practices within a particual application area or an aspect of the project where a specific sequence is desired.

question

Team Members

answer

A set of individuals who support the project manager in performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives.

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