Path/Pharm Module tests – Flashcards
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What characteristic do all individuals with cerebral palsy have?
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a form of motor disability
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Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
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hydrocele
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Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?
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Fibrocystic breast disease is progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue
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Which is/are sexually transmitted infection(s) usually considered asymptomatic in women?
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chlamydia gonorrhea syphilis
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What is the probable source of an embolus causing a CVA?
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common carotid artery
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Which of the following characteristics indicates the CSF is normal?
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clear and colorless fluid
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Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
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soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
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A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of:
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a malignant tumor
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Which of the following STDs is considered to be a systemic infection?
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syphilis
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What is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
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remissions and exacerbations
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Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
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bone
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Which of the following applies to cerebral palsy?
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Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive brain damage to the fetus or neonate.
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What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?
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sexually transmitted diseases, particularly viral
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A brain tumor causes headache because the tumor:
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stretches the meninges and blood vessel walls
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Which term refers to bleeding between menstrual periods?
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metrorrhagia
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Which of the following applies to Parkinson's disease?
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onset typically occurs in men and women over 60 years of age
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How do testicular tumors usually present?
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hard, painless mass
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Which of the following statements applies to malignant brain tumors?
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primary brain tumors rarely metastasize outside the CNS
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Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens?
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astigmatism
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What may result from cryptorchidism?
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testicular cancer
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What is the primary cause of type I diabetes?
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destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
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What is the cause of Tinea infections?
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fungus
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How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
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the presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
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Which of the following does not usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
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osteoporosis
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What disease does human papilloma virus cause?
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Human papillomavirus causes plantar warts
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Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop in a diabetic person?
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vomiting
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Which of the following would identify an open or compound fracture?
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the skin and soft tissue is exposed at the fracture site
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What is the prognosis for osteoarthritis?
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damage is irreversible and usually progressive
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Which statement applies to menisci? 1. they are fibrocartilage 2. they are secretory membranes in joints 3. they prevent excessive movement of joints 4. they are found in the shoulder joint
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1,3 they are fibrocartilage they prevent excessive movement of joints
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Which statement defines a sprain?
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tear in a ligament
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Choose the statement that applies to type I diabetes mellitus.
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onset often occurs during childhood
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All of the following predispose to osteoporosis except:
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Estrogen replacement therapy does not predispose a person to osteoporosis
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What is the cause of psoriasis?
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increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
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What is the most common cause of endocrine abnormalities?
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benign tumor
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Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
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degeneration of articulating cartilage in the large joints
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What is a sign of a dislocation?
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deformity at a joint.
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Where is a Colles' fracture located?
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Wrist (distal radius)
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What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
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a systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
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Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
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Exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness are typical signs of Grave's disease.
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What is the most common cause of endocrine abnormalities?
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benign tumor
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What is the definition of achalasia?
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lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
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Where does urine flow?
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Urine flows from the collecting duct to the renal pelvis to the ureter to the bladder
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Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
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small amounts of bile are continuously secreted and flow into the duodenum
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Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following except:
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hyperlipidemia
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What is a cause of acute tubule necrosis and renal failure?
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prolonged circulatory shock sudden significant exposure to nephrotoxins crush injuries or burns
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Which of the following is likely to lead to acute gastritis?
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allergy to shellfish
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What is the primary action of the diuretic furosemide?
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ased reabsorption of sodium and water
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Which of the following is true of the visceral peritoneum?
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It forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines The visceral peritoneum is the outer covering of the stomach and intestines.
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Oral candidiasis is considered to:
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be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
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Which disease is manifested by dysuria and pyuria?
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cystitis
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An agent used to promote weight loss is:
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orlistat
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What is a common cause of gastroenteritis due to Salmonella?
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raw or undercooked poultry or eggs
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A digestant is intended to:
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: Replace deficient enzymes of the gastrointestinal tract
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What is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?
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exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke
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What is thie primary cause of esophageal varices?
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portal hypertension
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Which of the following congenital defects is a common cause of cystitis in young children?
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vesicoureteral reflux
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Which of the following apply to cleft palate?
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the hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester
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Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
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Ileum
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What is/are common locations for oral cancer?
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floor of the mouth or tongue borders
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uretics are generally administered in the:
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morning
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Which of the following activities does not require muscle contractions and energy?
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quiet expiration
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What does orthopnea mean?
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difficulty breathing in a recumbent position
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What describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
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total obstruction of a coronary artery causes myocardial necrosis
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Which of the following is a major factor contributing to the current increase in cases of tuburculosis?
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the increase in immunodeficient individuals
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When does flail chest occur?
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several ribs are fractured at two sites
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What does the term arteriosclerosis specifically refer to?
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degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries
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Which of the following would be significant signs of bronchiectasis?
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chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
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Which of the following drugs decreases sodium and fluid retention in the body?
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hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) Hydrochlorothiazide is a drug prescribed to decrease sodium and fluid retention in the body
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Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
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insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium
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Which are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
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Damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, and prosthetic valves are all predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation.
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What are typical signs and symptoms of epiglottitis?
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sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva
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What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
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chronic irritation, inflammation, and infection of the larger airways
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Loss of blood supply in a limb may lead to:
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necrosis ulcers gangrene
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How is acute sinusitis usually manifested?
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severe localized pain and tenderness in the face
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What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
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influenza virus
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An atheroma develops from:
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accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred
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Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except:
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walking down stairs
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What drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to reduce platelet adhesion?
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acetylsalicylic acid (ASA or Aspirin)
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Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because it:
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promotes thrombus formation
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Which are the first arteries to branch off the aorta?
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coronary arteries
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Which of the following is an enzyme that is used in cancer chemotherapy?
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pegaspargase
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What are typical early general signs/symptoms of anemia?
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pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue
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Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma differs from Hodgkin's lymphoma in that non-Hodgkin's lymphoma usually presents as:
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multiple, scattered, enlarged and painless lymph nodes
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Radiation therapy destroys:
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primarily rapidly dividing cells
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One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
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determine the best treatment and the prognosis
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Individuals with type O blood are considered to be universal donors because their blood:
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Type O blood lacks A and B antigens.
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With the acute leukemias, the increased number of malignant leukocytes leads to:
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The increased number of malignant leukocytes in acute leukemias leads to decreased hemoglobin, thrombocytopenia, constant bone pain, and splenomegaly
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What would be the result of a reduced number of erythrocytes in the blood?
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a decreased hematocrit
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Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because:
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inflammation around the tumor may be reduced
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Which of the following is typical of Hodgkin's disease?
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initial tumor is single, painless, enlarged lymph node, often cervical
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Petechiae and purpura are common signs of:
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increased bleeding tendencies
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What is the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors based on?
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degree of differentiation of the cells
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What is a common predisposing factors to leukemia?
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exposure to radiation
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Which of the following is an example of an antiandrogen?
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nilutamide
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Hydroxyurea is believed to function in cancer therapy by:
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interfering with the formation of DNA
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Which anemia is considered to result from a malabsorption problem?
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pernicious anemia
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The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
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The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include obstruction of a tube or duct and cell necrosis and ulceration.
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Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor?
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cells appear relatively normal
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What is the cause of sickle-cell anemia?
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a defective gene inherited from both parents
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Iron-deficiency anemia frequently results from any of the following except:
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Iron-deficiency anemia does not result from diabetes mellitus.
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The role of memory cells is to:
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Memory cells support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens
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What method do viruses use to replicate?
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using a host cell to produce and assemble components
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Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids such as prednisone, may cause:
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Prolonged administration of glucocorticoids may cause atrophy of lymphoid tissue and decreased protein synthesis.
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Neutrophils are:
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Neutrophils are primarily phagocytic cells
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Varicella is another word for
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Chickenpox
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The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
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increased blood flow into the area
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The term nosocomial infection means
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infection acquired in a hospital or medical facility
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Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
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decrease capillary permeability
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Which area of the body is sterile?
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Stomach
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1 kg equals _____ pounds.
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1 kg equals 2.2 pounds.
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HIV is transmitted by:
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blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from an infected person
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The primary side effect of Benadryl is:
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drowsiness
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The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
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signs and symptoms of a disease
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Which of the following is not classified as protozoa? Plasmodium vivax Trichomonas vaginalis Mycoplasma pneumonia Entamoeba histolytica
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Mycoplasma pneumonia
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Humoral immunity is mediated by:
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Humoral immunity is mediated by B lymphocytes.
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A serious side effect of the immunosuppressives is:
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an increased susceptibility to infections
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If a drug order states that a drug is to be administered tid, it should be given:
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three times per day
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Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
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preventative measure
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Which of the following is a factor that may affect drug dosage? Race Weight Height Gender
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: Weight
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Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? an inherited disorder a combination of specific etiologic factors an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
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an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
