Ohio IV Therapy for Practical Nursing – Flashcards
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What are the four primary sources of law in the US?
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- Constititional - Statutory - Administrative - Common
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Powers of government and rights of people can be defined as...
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Constitutional Law
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The right to self determination and independence can be defined as...
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Autonomy
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Privacy to health information can be defined as...
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Confidentiality
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"Value and worth" can be described as...
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Respect of a Person
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"Truthfulness" can be described as...
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Veracity
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"Doing good" is another term for...
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Beneficence
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"Doing no harm" is another term for...
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Nonmalfience
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An obligation to be faithful can be defined as...
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Fidelity
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An obligation to be fair to all persons can be defined as...
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Justice
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Laws written and enacted by federal, state and local government can be described as...
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Statutory Laws
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Laws set forth by administrative agencies can be described as...
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Administrative Laws
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Defamation, breech of confidentiality, false imprisonment, assualt and/or battery can all be described as intentional (or) unintentional torts?
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Intentional Torts
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Failure to perform according to standards of practice can best be described as...
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Breech of Duty
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What does ANA stand for?
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American Nurses Association
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What does JCAHO stand for?
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Joint Comission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
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What agency created the Nursing Standards of Practice?
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National Boards and/or State Boards of Nursing
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What CDC stand for?
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Centers for Disease Control & Prevention
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What does INS stand for?
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Intravenous Nurse Society
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Who developed the specific guidelines for IV therapy?
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Ohio Board of Nursing / Intravenous Nurse Society
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In what five ways can a nurse breech his/her duties regarding IV therapy?
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- Delay in administration of a medication - Unfamiliarity with a drug - Altered and unverified route of administration - Failure to clarify orders - Failure to teach the patient
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The law regarding nursing practice is referred to as the...
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Nurse Practice Act
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In Ohio, what agency carries out the laws of nursing?
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Ohio Board of Nursing
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What laws regulate the role of the LPN in IV Therapy?
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House Bill 303, Senate Bill 178
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What clinicians are permitted to direct the LPN to administer IV therapy to an adult patient?
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- Physician - Dentist - Optometrist - Podiatrist - Registered Nurse
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What location(s) may a Registered Nurse be absent while an LPN is initiating and conducting IV therapy?
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- At a patient's home or residence - In an MRDD care facility
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True or False: The Registered Nurse is not required to remain within telecommunication to the LPN while the LPN is initiating and conducting IV therapy at a patient's home or at an MRDD facility.
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False. The Registered Nurse must remain within telecommunication to the LPN at all times.
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True or False: An authorized LPN, who is certified in IV therapy, may not initiate and maintain blood products.
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True. Only a Registered Nurse may initiate and maintain blood products.
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True or False: If a patient is having critical reactions to the blood infusion or if vital signs obtained by the authorized LPN indicate a critical issue with the blood infusion, the LPN may stop the infusion and contact the RN.
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True. If an LPN suspects a critical problem with a blood infusion, he/she may stop the infusion and report immediately to the RN so additional measures may be taken to assess the problem.
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True or False: An authorized LPN may maintain TPN solutions as long as the RN has initiated the first infusion.
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False: An LPN may never initiate or maintain any TPN solutions of any kind.
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True or False: An authorized LPN may not initiate or maintain chemotherapeutic agents via IV therapy.
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True: Only a Registered Nurse may complete chemotherapy via IV therapy.
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True or False: Investigation or experimental medications may only be administered through the IV by a physician.
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False: Both a Registered Nurse or Physician may infuse experimental medications. The LPN, however, may not.
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True or False: The authorized LPN may administer IVPB (IV Piggyback), and antibiotics through a CVAD (central venous access device) as long as the RN has completed the initial administration.
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True: As long as the Registered Nurse has complete the first infusion, an LPN may hang or spike proceeding intermittent solutions and antibiotics within their scope of IV therapy.
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True or False: An authorized LPN may not discontinue a CVAD.
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True. Only an RN may discontinue a CVAD.
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True or False: An authorized LPN may not aspirate any IV therapy line to maintain patency.
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False: The authorized LPN is permitted to aspirate.
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True or False: An LPN may assist in the programming of a PCA pump as long as the RN is present.
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False: An LPN is never permitted to program a PCA pump.
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This term is defined as the means of communication of a plan of care.
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Direction
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To "start or begin" can be defined as...
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Initiation
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To administer or regulate an IV infusion according to the prescribed flow rate can be defined as...
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Maintenance
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An authorized LPN may initiate IV therapy in patients ages _____ and older.
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18
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Solutions that an authorized LPN may infuse include...
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- Dextrose 5% and 10% Water (D5W, D10W) - Normal Saline (NSS) - Lactated Ringers (LR) - Sodium Chloride 0.45% - Sodium Chloried 0.20% - Sterile H2O without mixed unauthorized solutions
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The areas that an authorized LPN may initiate an IV is...
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Any area in an adult patient that begins at the antecubidal space (ac) down to the hand.
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True or False: An authorized LPN may initiate an IV in the foot.
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False: For reasons related to DM, authorized Practical Nurses are not permitted to insert IV catheters in the foot.
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ICF stands for...
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Intracellular Fluid
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ECF stands for...
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Extracellular Fluid
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ECF can be broken down into two components. They are...
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Interstitial fluid (fluid between the cells and is typically comprised of 15% ISF) and intravascular fluid (fluid in the blood, also known as plasma, and is typically comprised of 5% IVF)
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What are the six functions of fluid?
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- Maintain blood volume - Regulate body temperature - Transport materials - Medium for metabolism and waste - Aide in digestion - Acts as solvent for solutes
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Passage of water from low concentration of particles toward high concentration of particles across a semi-permeable membrane can be defined as...
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Osmosis
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Movement of ions from high concentration to low concentration through a semi-permeable membrane can be defined as...
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Passive Diffusion
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The transfer of water / dissolved substances from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, and there is usually force involved can be defined as...
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Filtration
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When ions actually move themselves from a low concentration to high concentration can be defined as...
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Active Transport
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This term describes less salt in the blood than in the cell. H2O will move in and hydrate the cell.
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Hypotonic
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This term describes having osmotic pressure equal to that of blood. Some sodium content is present here. This usually has no effect of fluid in the cell.
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Isotonic
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This term describes more salt in the blood than in the cell. H2O moves out into intravascular space.
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Hypertonic
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This term describes the property of possessing tone or tension to influence water.
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Tonicity
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In what way does the renal system aide in homeostatic balance.
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The kidneys help control fluids and electrolytes by filtering and excreting.
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This hormone informs the kidneys to increase NA+ re-absorption in the blood, so fluid is kept in.
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Aldosterone
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This hormone informs the kidneys to conserve H2O and keeps cell pressure by controlling H2O excretion or retention.
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Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
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In what way does the respiratory system aide in the homeostatic balance?
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Lungs remove 300-500 mL of water daily. They remove the acidic CO2.
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Hypovolemia can also be referred to as...
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Fluid Volume Deficit
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Hypervolemia can also be referred to as...
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Fluid Volume Excess
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A decrease in which plasma shifts from intravascular to interstitial space is called...
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Third-Spacing
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Cardiovascular symptoms indicative of FVD include...
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- Thirst - Hypotension - Weak, thready pulse
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Skin and temperature changes related to FVD include...
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- Low grade fever - Tenting - Sunken Fontanels
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Urine volume indications regarding FVD could include...
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Concentrated urine and low volume. It may have a specific gravity of 1.035 or less.
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Laboratory findings regarding FVD reflect hemoconcentration. H & H and protein values are _____ and BUN levels are elevated above _____.
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Laboratory findings regarding FVD reflect hemoconcentration. H & H and protein values are **increased** and BUN levels are elevated above **20mg**.
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Treatment for FVD includes...
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- Fluid Replacement - Isotonic solutions of 0.9% NaCl and LR infused - Hypotonic 0.45% NSS is often used
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It is important for the nurse to watch for _____ during FVD.
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Fluid Overload
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Cardiovascular symptoms indicative of FVE include...
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- Distended Neck Veins - Bounding Pulse - Peripheral Edema
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Respiratory symptoms indicative of FVE include...
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- Tachypnea (greater than 20 per minute) - Dyspnea - Labored Breathing - Wet Lung Sounds
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Urine volume indications regarding FVE include...
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Polyuria and a specific gravity greater than 1.010
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Three lab findings indicating FVE include...
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- Decreased H & H - Decreased NA+ - Decreased Serum Osmolality
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Treatment for FVE can include (three methods)...
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- Sodium and Fluid Restriction - Diuretics - Treat the underlying cause
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It is important for the nurse to watch for _____ during FVE.
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Urinary Output
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What is the normal pH level?
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7.35 - 7.45
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True or False: A solution is basic or acidic based on the concentration of hydrogen ions in the solution.
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True
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The higher amount of pH indicate a [lower or higher] amount of hydrogen and the lower amount of pH indicate a [lower or higher] amount of hydrogen.
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The higher amount of pH indicate a **lower** amount of hydrogen and the lower amount of pH indicate a **higher** amount of hydrogen.
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What occurs during respiratory acidosis?
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The body's CO2 is combining with water and producing carbonic acid. This accumulation is reducing the blood pH, therefore making the outcome Respiratory Acidosis.
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True or False: Drowsiness and unresponsiveness may occur isfCO2 is low.
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False: Drowsiness and unresponsiveness generally occurs if CO2 is high.
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A pH level greater than 7.45 and a PaCO2 level less than 35 mmHg could indicate...
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Respiratory Alkalosis
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A pH level less than 7.35 and a Bicarbonate level less than 22 mEq/L could indicate...
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Metabolic Acidosis
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The measure of acidity or alkalinity based on hydrogen ions present is defined as...
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pH
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The partial pressure of O2 that is dissolved in arterial blood is defined as...
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PaO2
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The arterial saturation of O2 is defined as...
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SAO2
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The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in arterial blood is defined as...
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PaCO2
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The calculate value of the amount of bicarbonate in the blood stream is defined as...
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HCO3
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The amount of excess or insufficient level of HCO3 in the system.
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Base Excess (BE)
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The normal range for PaO2 is...
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80 - 100 mm Hg
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The normal range for SAO2 is
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95% - 100%
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The normal range for PaCO2 is...
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35 - 45 mm Hg
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The normal range for HCO3 is...
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22 - 26 mEq/L
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The normal range for BE is...
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-2 - +2 mEq/L
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True or False: Glucose is an electrolyte.
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False: Glucose is not an electrolyte.
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The five key elements of IV therapy include...
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- Water - Glucose - Protein - Vitamins - Electrolytes
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D5W, 0.9% NaCl and LR solution are considered [isotonic, hypotonic or hypertonic].
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D5W, 0.9% NaCl and LR solution are **isotonic**.
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0.33% and 0.45% NaCl are considered [isotonic, hypotonic or hypertonic].
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0.33% and 0.45% NaCl are considered **hypotonic**.
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D5.45% NaCl, D10W and D5.9% NaCl are considered [isotonic, hypotonic or hypertonic].
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D5.45% NaCl, D10W and D5.9% NaCl are considered **hyerptonic**.
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This IV solution acts as a vehicle for medication administration, provides glucose, water. In large amounts, this may decrease sodium.
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D5W
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This IV solution provides the electrolyte NaCl, but can quickly increase NaCl levels.
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0.9% NaCl
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This IV solutions contains basic electrolytes and aides with hypovolemia.
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LR
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This IV solution will lower blood pressure.
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0.33% NaCl
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This IV solution provides NaCl and free water.
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0.45% NaCl
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This IV solution is used to treat hypovolemia along with LR.
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D5.45% NaCl
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This IV solution supplies calories.
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D10W
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This IV solution replaces nutrients and electrolytes.
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D5.9% NaCl
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For TPN solutions, the nurse will need to monitor the glucose level every _____ hours.
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6
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Vital signs for TPN solutions will need to be obtained every _____ hours.
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4
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Weight gain with TPN solutions should not exceed _____ pounds per week.
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3
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In regards to blood transfusions, routine blood vitals should be completed in what order?
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(1) Before Infusing (2) Every 15 Minutes X2 (3) Every 30 Minutes (4) Every 1 Hour until Finished (5) 1 Hour after Finished
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A temperature reading of _____ *F or greater should be alerted to the Registered Nurse.
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100*F
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What are the disadvantages to a butterfly needle when initiating an IV?
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- Increases risk for infection - Not suitable for areas of flexion - Re-puncture by contamination of needle possible
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A major disadvantage to over the needle catheters (regular IV catheters) is...
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Phlebitis
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An increased risk of catheter embolus and infection may be caused by...
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PICC Lines and Central Ports or Through the Needle Catheters
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What is the typical gauge and length of a PICC Line?
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- Gauge 16 - 20 - Length 20 - 24 Inches
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The three most important items to remember when completing a patient assessment prior to the insertion of an IV include...
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- Privacy/Environmental Control - Explanation of Procedure - Patient and Family Instruction
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In regards to IV site selection, it is important to remember the following items. What are they?
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- Patient's age - Presence of disease or prior surgery
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True or False: When just before inserting an IV, it is permitted to allow the patient to clinch their fist.
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True
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In regards to IV initiation, the authorized LPN will want to document...
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- Procedure - Patient Response - Instructions Provided
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It is important for the nurse to complete what three asks prior to inserting an IV?
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- Check the solution for clarity. - Check the expiration date. - Assure that the catheter is intact.
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Vein walls consist of three layers. What are they?
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- Tunica Adventia (Outer) - Tunica Media (Middle) - Tunica Intima (Inner)
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What size catheter may be used at the digital and metacarpal sites?
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20 - 22 Gauge
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What size catheter may be used at the cephalic, basilic and accessory cephalic sites?
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18 - 22 Gauge
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What size catheter may be used at the upper cephalic site?
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16 - 20 Gauge
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What size catheter may be used at the median antebrachial, median basilic and median cubital sites?
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18 - 20 Gauge
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What size catheter may be used at the AC site?
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16 - 18 Gauge
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How does the medical team confirm placement of the central line?
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X-Ray
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How often are IV peripheral sites changed to a new site?
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Every 3 Days
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How often is the long term central line dressing changed?
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Every 7 Days and PRN
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Dressing changes to a central line is a [sterile or clean] technique.
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Sterile
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True or False: It is required to wear sterile gloves when changing a peripheral IV dressing.
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False. Only clean gloves are required if it is a non-CVAD dressing.
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Inadvertent administration of nonvesicant solution into surrounding tissues is referred to as...
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Infiltration
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Five S/Sx of infiltration include...
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- Coolness at the site - Taut skin - Depending edema - Absence of blood return - Infusion rate continues but is slow
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Three treatment techniques that may be used for infiltration include...
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- Warm or cold compresses - Assuming a comfortable position
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Inadvertent administration of a vesicant into the surround tissue is referred to as...
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Extravasation
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Five S/Sx of extravasation include...
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- c/o burning and pain - Swelling proximal or distal to site - Skin tightness - Blanching/coolness - Damp or wet dressing
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The only four vesicants that an authorized LPN may infuse include...
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- Vancmycin - Flagyl - Piperacillin - Lower doses of K+
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Infiltration of blood into the surrounding tissues is referred to as a...
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Hematoma
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Four S/Sx of a hematoma include...
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- Bruising or discoloration - Sweeling and discomfort - Unable to advance catheter - Resistance during flushing
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General treatment for a hematoma includes...
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- Direct light pressure with a sterile 2x2 gauze for 2-3 minutes - Elevation of Extremity - Cold application
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Trauma to the endothelial walls and causes RBC's to adher to vein wall, which may cause a clot, is referred to as...
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Thrombosis
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Slowed drip rate, difficulty in flushing and resistance may all indicate a...
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Thrombosis
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True or False: An IV site will look unhealthy if a thrombosis occurs.
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False. In most cases, the outer site will look healthy because the clot has occurred on the inside of the vein, on a vein wall.
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True or False: Fever and malaise may be present during a thrombosis.
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True.
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It is important to assess for _____ impairment when a thrombosis has occured.
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Circulatory
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Inflammation of the vein walls can be referred to as...
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Phlebitis
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What are the four types of phlebitis?
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- Mechanical (phlebitis related to the device) - Chemical (phlebitis related to the solution) - Bacterial (phlebitis related to foreign microorganisms) - Post-Infusion (phlebitis related to removal)
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Five S/Sx of phlebitis include...
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- Redness at the site - Site is warm to touch - Local Swelling - Sluggish infusion rate - Increased basal temperature
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A sudden involuntary contraction of a vein or artery resulting in temporary cessation of blood flow.
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Venous Spasm
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Two common S/Sx of a venous spasm include...
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- Sharp pain traveling up the arm - Slowing of the infusion
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Treatment of a venous spasm includes...
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- Warm compresses - Restarting the IV
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Identify the following IV gauge color sizes: Gray = _____ gauge Green = _____ gauge Pink = _____ gauge Blue = _____ gauge Yellow = _____ gauge
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Gray = 16 gauge Green = 18 gauge Pink = 20 gauge Blue = 22 gauge Yellow = 24 gauge