question

Ptosis

answer

Drooping eyelid, where the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. It is an ocular motor disturbance that is the initial symptom of myasthenia gravis in two-thirds of patients, and found in almost all patients within 2 years.

question

Extraocular muscles

answer

Include the superior rectus, inferior rectus, lateral rectus, medial rectus, superior oblique and inferior oblique muscles, which work in unison to move the eye and are often affected by myasthenia gravis.

question

cholinesterase inhibitor

answer

slow the enzymatic breakdown of acetylcholine so that more accumulates in the synapses and its effect is prolonged.

question

Electromyography

answer

It measures the electrical impulses of muscles at rest and during contraction and are used to evaluate muscle weakness or paralysis.

question

autoimmune disease

answer

Occurs when the body's immune system attacks the body's own cells. Autoimmune diseases include rheumatoid arthritis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, multiple sclerosis and myasthenia gravis.

question

Thymectomy

answer

thymus plays a major role in the development of the immune system, and this role is complete by birth. Abnormalities with the thymus are often found in myasthenia gravis, with 10% of patients having thymic tumors (usually benign). Thymectomy, the removal of the thymus gland, is recommended for all patients with thymic tumors and often for patients under 60 with moderate to severe myasthenia gravis weakness.

question

Dysphagia

answer

Difficulties with chewing and swallowing

question

Dysarthria

answer

Difficulties in articulating speech.

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hypoactive gag reflex

answer

underactive response to contact of a foreign body with the mucous membrane of the throat. A normal gag reflex results in retching or gagging.

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atrophy

answer

loss of tissue resulting from disease or lack of use.

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muscle fasciculations

answer

muscle twitching. It is the result of minor local muscle contractions or the uncontrollable twitching of a single muscle group served by a single motor nerve fiber or filament.

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sialorrhea

answer

excessive secretion of saliva.

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clonus

answer

an abnormality in neuromuscular activity characterized by rapidly alternating muscular contraction and relaxation. Unlike muscle fasciculations (usually caused by lower motor neuron pathology), this causes large motions that are usually initiated by a reflex.

question

lower motor neuron (LMN) disease

answer

a cluster of motor symptoms associated with pathology of the alpha motor neuron and peripheral pathways to muscles. Symptoms include flaccidity, hypoactive stretch reflex, fasciculations, muscle weakness and muscle atrophy

question

upper motor neuron (UMN) disease

answer

a cluster of motor symptoms associated with damage to central nervous system structures that normally impose inhibitory influences on brainstem nuclei that control gamma innervation to muscle spindles. Symptoms include spasticity (hypertonicity) and hyper-reflexia.

question

Naso-gastric tube

answer

used for feeding and administering drugs; clear plastic tube inserted through the nose, down the back of the throat, and into the stomach

question

PEG tube

answer

after endoscopic placement, with patient sedated, food and medication are delivered directly to the stomach

question

J-tube

answer

enteral feeding system in which the upper gastrointestinal tract is bypassed completely, and food & medication are delivered into the jejunum, rather than the stomach.

question

Bulbar palsy

answer

a form of motor neuron disease characterized by dysfunction of the muscles controlled by the cranial nerves of the lower brain stem (the "bulb") -- specifically, the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), vagus nerve (X), and hypoglossal nerve (XII).

question

Pseudobulbar palsy

answer

in addition to cranial nerve impairments affecting paralysis of the lips and tongue, the person demonstrates "psudobulbar affect, which is characterized by emotional lability (inappropriate laughing and crying)

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Diaphoretic

answer

producing or increasing perspiration.

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tachycardic

answer

rapid heart rate, especially above 100 beats per minute in an adult.

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intubated

answer

putting a tube into a hollow organ or passageway, such as the trachea.

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CSF

answer

the fluid that circulates through the ventricles of the brain, the cavity of the spinal cord, and the subarachnoid space that acts a buffer against shock. CSF can be tested for the diagnosis of a variety of neurological diseases. Usually, it is obtained by a procedure called lumbar puncture in an attempt to count the cells in the fluid and to detect the levels of protein and glucose.

question

Plasmapheresis

answer

a process in which a person's blood is removed, the plasma separated, and the blood put back into the body to build new antibodies for immunity. When used early in the disease process of GBS, plasmapheresis has been beneficial. It decreases death rates, lowers the probability of permanent problems, and shortens the length of the illness.

question

nerve conduction studies

answer

measure nerve conduction velocity to determine how well individual nerves can transmit electrical signals.

question

EMG

answer

measures the electrical impulses of muscles at rest and during contraction and are used to evaluate muscle weakness or paralysis

question

Diplopia

answer

Double vision or the simultaneous awareness of two images of the same object that results from a failure of the two eyes to work in a coordinated fashion. Covering one eye would erase one of the images.

question

Evoked potentials

answer

Recordings of the nervous system's electrical response to the stimulation of the specific sensory pathways. A person's recorded responses are displayed on an oscilloscope and analyzed on a computer that allows comparison with normal response times. Demyelination results in a slowing of response time.

question

Interferon

answer

A group of immune system proteins that are produced and released by cells infected by a virus, which inhibit viral multiplication and modify the body's immune response.

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Ocular motility

answer

moving or having power to move the eyes

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Nystagmus

answer

Rapid, involuntary movements of the eyes in the horizontal or, occasionally, the vertical direction.

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Ataxia

answer

The incoordination and unsteadiness that result from the brain's failure to regulate the body's posture and the strength and direction of limb movements. Ataxia is most often caused by disease activity in the cerebellum.

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Dysmetria

answer

A disturbance of coordination, caused by lesions in the cerebellum. A tendency to over- or underestimate the extent of motion needed to place an arm or leg in a certain position as, for example, in overreaching for an object.

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Intention tremor

answer

Rhythmic shaking that occurs in the course of a purposeful movement, such as reaching to pick something up or bringing an outstretched finger in to touch one's nose.

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Vibratory perception

answer

The process of perceiving a vibration stimulus

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Tandem gait

answer

A test of balance and coordination that involves alternately placing the heel of one foot directly against the toes of the other foot.

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Optic neuritis

answer

Inflammation or demyelination of the optic (visual) nerve with transient or permanent impairment of vision and occasionally pain.

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Cerebellar ataxia

answer

of muscle coordination caused by disorders of the cerebellum

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Spasticity

answer

Abnormal increase in muscle tone, manifested as a spring-like resistance to moving or being moved

question

Diaphoretic

answer

producing or increasing perspiration.

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tachycardic

answer

rapid heart rate, especially above 100 beats per minute in an adult.

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Plasmapheresis

answer

a process in which a person's blood is removed, the plasma separated, and the blood put back into the body to build new antibodies for immunity.

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Complete spinal cord injury

answer

produces total loss of all motor and sensory function below the level of injury. Almost one half of all spinal cord injuries are this type

question

Halo vest

answer

Is a metal ring attached to the skull with screws. It hold the neck in place as it heals.

question

Indwelling catheter

answer

a catheter is inserted into the bladder to drain or collect urine. One end of the indwelling catheter remains inside the bladder. A small, inflated balloon at the tip of the catheter inside the bladder keeps the end of the catheter from slipping out. Urine flows from the bladder through the catheter and collects in a drainage bag. If the patient is not bedridden, this drainage bag can be worn on the leg, where it can be hidden under a skirt or slacks. If the patient is bedridden, the drainage bag usually is attached to the lower portion of the hospital bed (near the floor). This position allows gravity to help the urine drain downward.

question

Normal saline

answer

the first step in treatment of SCI is hydration with normal saline. Saline expands the extracellular fluid volume, increases the glomerular filtration rate, and increases the excretion of calcium in the urine. Saline administration alone can control hypercalcemia in some patients, but it needs to be used for the duration of the increased mobilization from bone, which could last weeks.

question

Pulse oximeter

answer

non-invasive method of continuously monitoring blood O2 saturation; device is clipped to the patient's earlobe or finger tip. It uses beams of light to test how much oxygen is latched onto the hemoglobin in the blood cells and measures how much of the light is absorbed. This tells how much oxygen is in the bloodstream, because how much light is absorbed will change depending on much oxygen is present. Advanced oximeters can also measure how much carbon dioxide is in the blood.

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Orthostatic hypotension

answer

a condition which results in a decreased blood pressure when a person rises to sitting or standing from a reclined position

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Autonomic dysreflexia

answer

an abnormal triggering of the autonomic nervous system. It occurs after a spinal cord injury. Persons at risk for this problem generally have injury levels above T6.

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Methylprednisone

answer

a steroid-type anti-inflammatory drug, is given intravenously during the first 24 hours of a spinal cord injury to help reduce inflammation and swelling, and the destruction of tissue around the spinal cord.

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Brown-Sequard syndrome

answer

a rare neurological condition characterized by a lesion in the spinal cord which results in weakness or paralysis (hemiplegia) on one side of the body and a loss of sensation (hemianesthesia) on the opposite side..

question

Foley catheter:

answer

a thin, sterile tube inserted into the bladder to drain urine. Because it can be left in place in the bladder for a period of time, it is also called an indwelling catheter.

question

Spinal shock

answer

a state of transient reflex depression of cord function below the level of injury with associated loss of all sensorimotor functions. An initial increase in blood pressure is noted due to the release of catecholamines, followed by hypotension. Flaccid paralysis, including of the bowel and bladder, is observed. These symptoms tend to last several hours to days until the reflex arcs below the level of the injury begin to function again.

question

Autonomic hyperreflexia:

answer

An abnormal reaction of the autonomic (involuntary) nervous system, seen in patients with spinal cord injury, to over-stimulation. This reaction may include high blood pressure, change in heart rate, skin color changes (pallor, redness, blue-grey coloration), and profuse sweating. Stimuli which are otherwise tolerated in healthy people (such as filling of the urinary bladder) create an excessive response from the patient's nervous system.

question

Essential tremor

answer

A type of involuntary, rhythmic contraction of muscles producing the appearance of trembling or quivering; occurs generally in persons older than 70 years old; is often confused with the resting tremor associated with Parkinson's Disease.

question

Resting tremor

answer

a coarse, rhythmic tremor, 3-5 Hz frequency, usually confined to hands and forearms, that appears when the limbs are relaxed, and disappears with active limb movements; characteristic of Parkinson's Disease

question

Cogwheel rigidity

answer

Rigidity of a muscle that gives way in a series of little jerks upon being passively stretched, analogous to the ratcheting movement when a spring-loaded rod drops into the successive notches of a cog.

question

Festinating gait:

answer

Shuffled walk which is difficult to initiate; the trunk is flexed, legs are flexed at the knees and hips, but stiff; steps are short and progressively more rapid.

question

Bromocriptine (Pardolel):

answer

a synthetic dopamine agonist; has direct stimulatory effect on dopamine type-2 receptors.

question

Rigidity

answer

Stiffness in the limbs or trunk resulting in decreased ROM

question

Bradykinesia

answer

Reduced amplitude and speed of movement; literally slow (brady) movement (kinesia).

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Selegiline

answer

A monoamine oxidase type B (MAO-B) inhibitor that slows the breakdown of dopamine in the brain and may also block its reuptake at the synapse

question

L-dopa (levadopa)

answer

A metabolic precursor of dopamine, and the first medication introduced to provide dopamine replacement therapy in Parkinson's patients.

question

Sinemet

answer

a combination of Carbidopa and Levodopa (L-Dopa), the metabolic precursor of Dopamine. Carbidopa blocks peripheral dopa-decarboxylase, the enzyme that converts levodopa to dopamine within the blood-brain barrier. With the levodopa-carbidopa combination, more levodopa reaches the brain and is converted to dopamine. This eliminates the need for large doses of Levodopa at frequent intervals. The lower dosage, also reduces or eliminates many of the side effects attributed to the Dopamine formed in extra cerebral tissue.

question

Artane

answer

an anticholinergic agent used to reduce stiffness and improve muscle control in Parkinson's disease.

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Lead-pipe rigidity

answer

Diffuse muscular rigidity resembling the resistance to bending of a metal pipe.

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Kyphotic posture

answer

Abnormal accentuation of the thoracic curve and flattening of the cervical and lumbar curves

question

Freezing

answer

temporary, involuntary, inability to move

question

Dyskinesia

answer

Involuntary movements that generally appear on the side of the body most severely affected by Parkinson's disease, usually the side on which the first symptoms appeared. This phenomenon usually occurs after several years of using levodopa.

question

Deep brain stimulation

answer

Procedure in which electrical signals are transmitted to a specific brain region from a neurostimulator that has been surgically implanted; typically used to reduce dyskinesias in advanced Parkinson's Disease.

question

Emotional lability

answer

rapid and sizeable mood change that can be easily provoked and can rapidly disappear; is due to a weakening of frontal cortico-subcortical mechanisms underlying cognitive control of emotional reactions

question

Phenothiazines

answer

neuroleptic drugs used for treatment of psychosis; serious side effects include tardive dyskinesia and sedation

question

Modulation of tone and volume

answer

ability to control inflections of the pitch and "loudness" of one's speech

question

Grimacing

answer

facial expression, usually of disgust or disapproval

question

Dystonic posturing

answer

sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal, tonic positions of the neck and limbs

question

Chorea

answer

jerky, irregular, relatively rapid involuntary movement involving muscles of the face or extremities; the movement seems to flow from one body part into another; although involuntary and purposeless, these movements are sometimes incorporated into deliberate movement patterns

question

Myoclonus

answer

sudden, involuntary jerking of a muscle or group of muscles

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Tics

answer

brief, rapid, purposeless, simple or complex involuntary movements that are virtually identical to one another; they are repetitive but not rhythmic

question

Athetosis

answer

slow, writhing, continuous, uncontrollable movement of the arms and legs

question

Dystonia

answer

sustained muscle contraction often causing twisting or abnormal postures (dystonic postures)

question

Hemiballismus

answer

a type of chorea; consists of continuous violent flinging movements on one side of the body; affects the arm more than the leg

question

Botox injections

answer

a solution of botulinum toxin is injected to a peripheral nerve to block acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction; some nerve terminals remain unaffected so that the injected muscle can still contract, but with less force

question

Internal carotid artery stenosis

answer

a narrowing of the internal carotid artery, usually as a result of atherosclerotic blockage.

question

subdural hematoma

answer

a collection of blood on the surface of the brain, beneath the the dura mater. Subdural hematomas are usually the result of a serious head injury.

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Secondary prevention

answer

treatment for the purpose of preventing recurrence of a medical condition the patient has already sustained (e.g.- after a TIA or stroke, interventions designed to prevent a future stroke)

question

Anticoagulant therapy

answer

medications that prevent the blood from clotting or prevent existing clots from getting larger.

question

Antiplatelet agents:

answer

medications that inhibit platelet function. Aspirin, or acetylsalicylic acid (ASA), remains the most clinically effective, most widely used, and least expensive antiplatelet agent currently available.

question

Carotid endarterectomy

answer

surgical procedure in which atherosclerotic plaque is removed from the inner lining of a carotid artery.

question

Mitral Valve Replacement

answer

the surgical removal of a damaged or dysfunctional mitral valve in the heart and replacing it with a mechanical valve or a pig valve. Damage to the mitral valve can occur from a congenital defect, the natural process of aging, infection, or from a heart attack

question

Coumadin (Warfarin)

answer

an anticoagulant; inhibits the ability of blood to clot, or coagulate; prevents new clots from forming or existing clots from getting larger; prescribed for people with certain conditions to prevent a first or recurrent stroke.

question

International Normalized Ratio

answer

World Health Organization (WHO) and the International Committee on Thrombosis and Hemostasis for reporting the results of blood coagulation (clotting) tests. All results are standardized using the international sensitivity index for the particular thromboplastin reagent and instrument combination utilized to perform the test.

question

Ischemic changes

answer

findings on CT scan, associated with brain changes caused by a lack of blood flow

question

effacement of the insular ribbon

answer

loss of definition of the gray- white interface in the lateral margins of the insula ("insular ribbon"); occurs within less than less than 6 hours of a stroke of the middle cerebral artery (MCA); insular ribbon is supplied by the insular segment of the (MCA) and its claustral branches.

question

effacement of the lentiform nucleus

answer

thinning of the larger and external nucleus of the corpus striatum which includes the outer reddish putamen and two inner pale yellow globular masses constituting the globus pallidus -- also called lenticular nucleus

question

hyperdense middle cerebral artery sign

answer

weakening in an area of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) caused by an embolus or atherosclerotic calcifications; this finding can sometimes be seen at the time of early CT scanning; correlates with angiographically proven thrombus and is associated with poorer patient outcome.

question

NIH Stroke Scale

answer

an 11-item clinical evaluation instrument widely used in clinical trials and practice to assess neurologic outcome and degree of recovery from stroke.

question

Partial gaze palsy

answer

gaze is abnormal in one or both eyes, but forced deviation or total gaze paresis are not present.

question

Hemianopia

answer

blindness or reduction in vision in one half of the visual field due to damage of the optic pathways in the brain. The person experiencing it has difficulty seeing one side of their surrounding environment, or will report that one side appears different from the other. Patients with hemianopia can readily learn to compensate for the disorder by turning their eyes and head to scan the entire environment.

question

Aphasia

answer

a disorder of formulating and/or understanding language

question

Extinction to bilateral simultaneous tactile stimulation:

answer

inability to detect a tactile stimulus when there is a competing stimulus presented to the opposite body side; the person has no difficulty detecting the same stimulus when it is presented in isolation

question

Thrombolytic therapy

answer

a drug (enzyme) that break ups or dissolves blood clots, which cause both heart attacks and stroke. Since 1996, tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) has been approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for the treatment of occlusive stroke and heart attack. There is strong research evidence that, if administered within the first 3 hours of a stroke, it may reduce permanent disability.

question

Intravenous Activase

answer

a tissue plasminogen activator; in 2007 - the only FDA approved thrombolytic therapy

question

Mechanical embolism removal

answer

catheter-based extraction of an embolus; this technique may be used alone (in patients with contraindications to thrombolysis) or in conjunction with thrombolytic therapy.

question

Hemineglect

answer

of and inattention to one side of the body and its surrounding visual space

question

Anticoagulation

answer

treatment with anticoagulant medications to reduce natural clotting factors and, thus, decrease the blood's clotting ability; used to prevent future myocardial infarction, stroke, deep venous thrombosis

question

Heparin

answer

an anticoagulant administered by intravenous (IV) injection or continuous IV.

question

Dysphagic diet

answer

diet designed to prevent aspiration in patients with swallowing dysfunction

question

Duplex Doppler scanning

answer

ultrasonic imaging that provides for non-invasive assessment of arterial and venous circulation in the lower limb; duplex assessment provides a measurement of blood velocity through a vessel

question

Deep venous thrombosis

answer

blood clot (thrombus) in a deep vein, usually in the lower leg or thigh; serious risks include obstruction to circulation and pulmonary embolism

question

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

answer

bleeding into the subarachnoid space (area between the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater); most common cause is trauma; spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhages are usually the result of a ruptured aneurysm

question

Intracranial pressure monitor

answer

device used in intensive care units for patients who have sustained head trauma, brain hemorrhage, brain surgery, or any other condition with risk of brain swelling; inserted by a neurosurgeon

question

Phenytoin

answer

anticonvulsant drug, used to treat people with chronic seizure disorders, and to prevent seizure activity in patients with acute brain injuries

question

Mannitol

answer

an osmotic diuretic medication, administered intravenously, to reduce acutely raised intracranial pressure in patients with acute brain injury

question

Nimodipine

answer

medication used to prevent vasospasm and resulting ischemia resulting from subarachnoic hemorrhage; administered orally or through intravenous infusion

question

Cerebral angiography

answer

imaging procedure in which contrast dye is injected into one or both of the carotid and/or vertebral arteries; and x-rays are taken of the dye as it courses through the cerebral artery distribution

question

Arteriovenous malformation

answer

a defect of the circulatory system; generally believed to arise during embryonic or fetal development or soon after birth.

question

Embolization

answer

surgical procedure for occluding blood vessels abnormal blood vessels; used to control or prevent abnormal bleeding, shut down vessels that support a growing tumor (not applicable to this case) or destroy an AVM; Under X-ray guidance, a catheter is guided from the femoral artery in the leg up into the area to be treated.

question

Alexic

answer

exhibiting loss of the ability to comprehend the meaning of written or printed words and sentences; inability to read.

question

Right homonymous hemianopia

answer

loss of the right half of the visual field in both eyes.

question

Apperceptive visual agnosia

answer

impaired visual recognition of objects, faces, colors, words, and gestures; a disorder of visual perception, rather than acuity.

question

CT SCAN

answer

computerized axial tomography is a cross-sectional X-ray enhancement technique that greatly benefits diagnosis with high-resolution video images, some in three dimensions.

question

The Mini Mental State Examination

answer

is a widely used method for assessing cognitive mental status. The evaluation of cognitive functioning is important in clinical settings because of the recognized high prevalence of cognitive impairment in medical patients.

question

Anomia

answer

Inability to recall names of objects. Persons with this problem often can speak fluently but have to use other words to describe familiar objects.

question

Acalculia

answer

An inability to perform mathematical computations.

question

Apraxia

answer

Inability to perform skilled, functional movements even when strength and coordination are intact. The primary impairment is in the person's capacity to plan and execute a skilled movement sequence. It is most evident when the person attempts to perform new tasks

question

Dementia

answer

Progressive decline of cognitive function (cognition) due to changes in the brain caused by disease or trauma. Cognitive functions that may be affected by dementia include decision making, judgment , memory, spatial orientation, thinking, reasoning, and verbal communication.

question

Cognex

answer

A cholinesterase inhibitor used for the treatment of mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease.

question

Global aphasia:

answer

An acquired language disorder involving severe impairments in both comprehension and production of spoken and written language.

question

Topographical disorientation:

answer

Inability to find one's way in spatial situations, associated with right parietal lobe dysfunction. Even in familiar environments, the person easily becomes lost and has difficulty remembering how to get from one place to another.

question

Tracheotomy

answer

a surgical procedure in which a cut or opening is made in the trachea. The surgeon inserts a tube into the opening to bypass an obstruction, allow air to get to the lungs, or remove secretions. Surgical operation that creates an opening into the trachea with a tube inserted to provide a passage for air; performed when the pharynx is pathologically obstructed .

question

Comatose

answer

defined as a sleeplike state with total absence of awareness of self and the environment, even after vigorous external stimulation

question

Craniotomy

answer

the surgical procedure in which the skull (cranium) is opened to remove tumors, aneurysms, blood clots and abscesses.

question

Nasogastric tube:

answer

a clear plastic tube that is inserted through the nose, down the back of the throat, through the esophagus and into the stomach. This tube can be used initially to remove air and digestive juices from the stomach. It is also used as a feeding tube for the comatose patient. This tube is uncomfortable, but not painful.

question

Pitting edema:

answer

The swelling is the result of the accumulation of excess fluid under the skin in the spaces within the tissues that are outside of the blood vessels. Pitting edema can be demonstrated by applying pressure to, for example, the skin of a swollen leg, by depressing the skin with a finger. If the pressing causes an indentation in the skin that persists for some time after the release of the pressure

question

Ecchymosis

answer

Discoloration caused by the escape of blood into the tissues from ruptured blood vessels marked by a livid black-and-blue or purple spot or area

question

Increased tone:

answer

When this term is used to describe neuropathology, tone relates to a muscle's responsiveness to quick passive stretch. Hypertonicity and spasticity are often used as synonyms for increased tone. When an examiner tries to passively stretch a muscle, patients with this demonstrate hyper-responsive stretch reflexes and the examiner encounters an unusual degree of resistance to the quick stretch.

question

Asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR)

answer

A primitive reflex, mediated at the brain stem level. In persons with intact central nervous systems, the ATNR is fully integrated by 4-9 months of age. When present beyond this age, a positive response indicates CNS pathology. The ATNR is elicited when the person turns his head to the Right or Let. A positive response is an increase in muscle tone in extensor muscles of the arm and leg on the "face side" (the side toward which the head has turned) and a decrease in muscle tone of flexor muscles on the "skull side". This effect on muscle tone continues as long as the head is turned.

question

Symmetric tonic neck reflex (STNR):

answer

A primitive reflex, mediated at the brain stem level. In persons with intact central nervous systems, the STNR is fully integrated by 11 months of age. In normally developing infants, the STNR is a precursor to crawling on hands and knees. When present beyond this age, a positive response indicates CNS pathology. The STNR is elicited when the person flexes or extends his cervical spine. A positive response to neck flexion is an increase in muscle tone in flexors of both arms and extensors of both legs. A positive response to neck extension is an increase in muscle tone in extensors of both arms and flexors of both legs. The effect on muscle tone lasts as long as the neck is flexed or extended.

question

Tonic labyrinthine reflex (TLR)

answer

A reflex mediated at the brain stem level. In normally developing children, inhibition of the TLR is a gradual process involving the maturation of cerebral systems. The TLR is typically integrated by three and a half years of age. When present in adults, a positive response indicates CNS pathology. The TLR is elicited by the person's total body posture and is mediated by vestibular receptors in the inner ears. A positive response to the prone position (face down) is an increase in muscle tone in flexors of both arms and legs. A positive response to the supine position is an increase in muscle tone in extensors of both arms and legs.

question

Decerebrate ridgidity:

answer

A condition, associated with injury to the brainstem, characterized by rigid extension of the arms with internal rotation, extension of the legs with internal rotation and downward pointing of the toes, retraction (backward arching) of the head, and overall muscle stiffness. The person holds the arms straight and toward the body, with the wrists turned inward and the fingers clenched in a fist; the legs are held stiffly out and the ankles plantarflexed.

question

Decorticate posturing:

answer

Patients with decorticate, or flexor, posturing present with increased tone (and resultant posturing) in elbow flexors, forearm pronators, wrist and finger flexors. and leg extensors. Decorticate posturing indicates damage to the the corticospinal tract, While a sign of severe brain damage, decorticate posturing is not as serious as decerebrate posturing.

question

Rancho Los Amigos Scale:

answer

based on observation of the patient as he responds to environmental stimuli. They provide a clear description of the various behavioral stages a brain injury victim typically experiences as he begins to progress through recovery toward rehabilitation.

question

Anterograde amnesia:

answer

A form of amnesia where new events are not transferred to long-term memory, so the person will not be able to remember anything that occurs after the onset of this type of amnesia for more than a few moments.

question

Retrograde amnesia

answer

A form of amnesia where the person will be unable to recall events that occurred before the onset of amnesia.

question

Open Head Injury

answer

also called a penetrating head injury, results when an object penetrates the skull and enters the brain

question

Closed Head Injury:

answer

When a person receives an impact to the head from an outside force, but the skull does not fracture or displace

question

Acceleration injury:

answer

Most head injuries occur because the head is suddenly forced to stop or start moving, or to turn rapidly. Damage of this sort is usually widespread throughout the brain, though some areas are worse affected than others.

question

Coup-Contrecoup Injury

answer

describes contusions that are both at the site of the impact and on the complete opposite side of the brain. This occurs when the force impacting the head is not only great enough to cause a contusion at the site of impact, but also is able to move the brain and cause it to slam into the opposite side of the skull, which causes the additional contusion

question

Gastrostomy

answer

a sugical procedure for inserting a feeding tube through the abdomen wall and into the stomach for PEG feeding.

question

glioblastoma

answer

malignant, rapidly growing astrocytoma (a nerve-tissue tumor composed of astrocytes) of the central nervous system, usually of a cerebral hemisphere

question

chemotherapy

answer

, is a generic term and includes many different drugs with a wide variety and severity of side effects. Generalizations regarding specific side effects are difficult to make.

question

tumor

answer

: a growth of tissue that forms an abnormal mass.

question

Limited-field radiation

answer

A treatment used to deliver the beam to the precise location desired. Stereotactic radiosurgery (such as the Gamma Knife) is primarily confined to the head and neck, because the patient must be kept completely still during the delivery of the radiation in order to prevent damage to surrounding tissue. The beam can be focused on any structure in the brain, allowing access to tumors or malformed blood vessels that cannot be reached by open-skull surgery.

question

craniotomy

answer

a surgical operation in which part of the skull is removed in order to access the brain and is used to remove tumors, hematomas or to relieve intracranial pressure.

question

tumor bed

answer

where the tumor was before it was surgically removed.

question

Radiation

answer

a cancer treatment that uses high-energy x-rays or other types of radiation to kill cancer cells.

question

monoclonal antibody procedure

answer

form of passive immunotherapy because the antibodies are made in large quantities in the lab rather than by a person's immune system. These treatments do not require the person's immune system to take an active role in fighting the cancer.

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platelet count

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also known as a thrombocyte count, it a test to measure the number of platelets in the blood. Normal platelet counts are usually in the range of 150,000 - 400,000 per mm3 of blood. While receiving chemotherapy, the patient's platelet count may drop lower than these normal ranges. Therefore, the platelet count will be checked throughout the course of your treatments.

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bone marrow production

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Red bone marrow produces red blood cells, platelets and all but one kind of white blood cell. Vitamin B12 is necessary for blood cell production.

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Tamoxifen

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a synthetic compound similar to estrogen and was originally used as adjuvant hormonal therapy for the treatment of breast cancer. However, it is also used to treat brain tumors, and its effectiveness as such is currently being investigated.

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focal seizures

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also called partial seizures, are seizures which are characterized by consciousness, experiencing unusual feelings or sensations, sudden and unexplainable feelings of joy, anger, sadness or nausea, hearing, smelling, tasting, seeing, or feeling things that are not real, having a change or loss of consciousness (may appear dreamlike), and strange repetitious behaviors such as blinks, twitches, and mouth movements.

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Dilantin

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the trade name for phenytoin. It acts to block sodium channels and prevent repetitive firing of action potentials. It is a very effective anticonvulsant, and it is a first-line agent in patients with partial and generalized tonic-clonic seizures.

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Neurontin

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the trade name for gabapentin. It is an anticonvulsant used to treat complex partial seizures in conjunction with other anticonvulsants

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Phenobarbital

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a barbiturate, a drug that has sedative and hypnotic effects. The drug is classed as a central nervous system agent and subclassed as an anticonvulsant.

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left pronator drift

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to test for drift, the patient is asked to extend and raise both arms in front of them as if they were carrying a pizza (G-H external rotation, forearm supination). The patient is asked to keep their arms in place while they close their eyes and count to 10. Normally their arms will remain in place. If there is upper extremity weakness there will be a positive pronator drift, in which the affected arm will pronate and fall. This is one of the most sensitive tests for upper extremity weakness. Pronator drift is an indicator of upper motor neuron weakness. In upper motor neuron weakness, supination is weaker than pronation in the upper extremity, leading to a pronation of the affected arm

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rapid alternating movements

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the patient is asked to place their hands on their thighs and then rapidly turn their hands over and lift them off their thighs. Once the patient understands this movement, tell them to repeat it rapidly for 10 seconds. Normally this is possible without difficulty. This is considered a rapidly alternating movement. Dysdiadochokinesis is the clinical term for an inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.

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stretch reflexes

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A reflex contraction of a muscle in response to stretching of an attached tendon or of the muscle itself.

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focal spikes

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transient sharp waves clearly distinguishable from background activity on an EEG.

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petite mal seizure (absence seizure):

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a kind of generalized seizure that affects both sides of the brain at once. However, they do not affect the entire brain. The person may appear to be staring into space and/or have jerking or twitching muscles. These periods last for seconds, or even tens of seconds. They sometimes move from one location to another without any purpose. This type of seizure usually affects children, most commonly beginning between the ages of six and 12.

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grand mal seizure (tonic-clonic seizure)

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Generalized seizures involve epileptic activity in all or most of the brain. Tonic-clonic seizures are the most common form of generalized seizures. They are also the most widely recognized epileptic seizure. In a tonic-clonic seizure, the person loses consciousness, the body stiffens (the tonic phase), and then they fall to the ground. This is followed by jerking movements (the clonic phase). After a minute or two, the jerking movements usually stop and consciousness slowly returns.

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Aura

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A sensation, such as of a cold breeze or a bright light, that precedes the onset of certain disorders, such as an epileptic seizure or an attack of migraine.

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postictal state

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condition of drowsiness and confusion during the time period immediately following a seizure.

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