question

What is Strategic Communication?

answer

Strategic communication is a focused United States Government effort to understand and engage key audiences to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of United States Government interests, policies, and objectives through the use of coordinated programs, plans, themes, messages, and products synchronized with the actions of all instruments of national power. Essentially, Strategic Communication is successfully influencing a particular audience.

question

What are your 4 roles in Strategic Communication?

answer

• Know the Air Force message(s) • Tell the Air Force story • Tell what I do and how it supports my wing's mission and priorities • Stay in my lane

question

When answering media inquiries, what are 3 questions you should ask yourself about the answer that you give?

answer

Did I follow OPSEC? Did I stay in my lane? Did I clearly state, \"In my opinion...\"?

question

What is the goal of Engagement?

answer

The goal of engagement is to fulfill your obligation to provide truthful, timely, and accurate information about military activities and personnel, consistent with security guidelines that enhance public trust and support for the Air Force. As such, the Air Force Core Value of Integrity First ensures your communication will always be truthful, credible, and remain within the bounds of security, accuracy, propriety, and policy (SAPP).

question

What does the acronym SAPP stand for, and when is it used?

answer

Security, accuracy, propriety (Politeness, Respect, Decency), and policy, and it should always be used when discussing the military, regardless of what communications medium is being used, or who you are talking to.

question

What are the 3 types of interviews?

answer

• On-the-Record • Background • Off-the-Record

question

What are the 4 types of interview techniques?

answer

• Hooking • Bridging • Flagging • Personal Credibility

question

What is Hooking?

answer

Hooking, takes advantage of opportunities before the interview to get the reporter interested in talking about what you want to. The idea is to entice the interviewer into your agenda.

question

What is Bridging, and give 3 examples?

answer

Bridging is a technique you can use to move from the reporter's agenda to your message. Bridging is also a way to smoothly transition from the reporter's question asked to your message. You are still answering their question, but also delivering your message. Briefly touch upon the reporter's answer and then bridge to your message and agenda. Examples: • The F-22 does cost a lot, but this aircraft delivers... • Fifteen airmen died in combat today; however, they died defending... • This base is not closing, and our mission here will...

question

What is Flagging?

answer

Flagging is a technique used to emphasize your message. Use verbal clues such as tone of voice, non-verbal hand gestures, and facial expressions to emphasize your point. Example: • If you remember one thing today, it should be...

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What is Personal Credibility?

answer

Personal Credibility means you are the expert! Use your personal authority and experience to establish your professional credentials. Example: • From my 15 years of experience...

question

How should you treat the media?

answer

Treat the media as you would want others to treat you. If you are distant and hostile with the media, you'll get what you give. The media needs and wants information. Spokespeople who are accessible and sensitive to a reporter's need for information will generate credibility and create a good working relationship.

question

Who are 6 key audiences you should consider when deciding what information to share about the Air Force?

answer

• American public • Family and friends • News Media • Potential recruits • Foreign Militaries • Enemy

question

Give 6 examples of Air Force Narrative topics.

answer

• Air Force Mission • Air Force Core Values • Air Force Priorities • Customs and Courtesies • Enlisted Professional Military Education • Airman's Creed

question

What is the Online Battlespace?

answer

Online battlespace includes the environmental factors and conditions that must be understood to successfully apply combat power, protect the force, or complete the mission, including the enemy and friendly forces.

question

What does Web 2.0 refer to?

answer

Web 2.0 refers to user-centered, dynamic Internet based services that emphasize collaboration and sharing.

question

What is Social Networking?

answer

Social networking is described as a social structure made up of individuals (or organizations) called \"nodes\", which are tied (connected) by one or more specific types of interdependency, such as friendship.

question

What is Social Media?

answer

Social media describes the various activities that integrate technology, social interaction, and the construction of words, pictures, videos, and audio.

question

What is the Air Force channel on YouTube called?

answer

Blue Tube - http://www.youtube.com/user/AFBlueTube.com/us

question

What are Information Operations (IO)?

answer

IO is the integrated employment of three operational elements: influence operations (IFO), electronic warfare operations, and network warfare operations. IO aims to influence, disrupt, corrupt, or usurp adversarial human or automated decision-making.

question

What is the purpose of OPSEC?

answer

The purpose of OPSEC is to reduce the vulnerability of Air Force missions from successful adversary collection and exploitation of critical information.

question

What is a \"threat\"?

answer

A threat is an adversary with the capability and intent to undertake any actions detrimental to the success of program activities or operations.

question

What is OPSEC vulnerability?

answer

OPSEC vulnerability is a condition where friendly actions provide indicators that may be obtained and accurately evaluated by an adversary in time to provide a basis for effective adversary decision-making.

question

What is an OPSEC risk?

answer

An OPSEC risk is a measure of the potential degree to which critical information and indicators are subject to loss through adversary exploitation.

question

What is the purpose of a Talking Paper?

answer

A talking paper will help you organize your thoughts and provide an outline to use during your briefing.

question

What document covers Air Force Suicide Prevention?

answer

AFPAM 44-160, Air Force Suicide Prevention Program.

question

What does the Wingman concept A.C.E. stand for?

answer

Ask, Care, and Escort.

question

What 7 areas can be positively affected by the Wingman concept?

answer

Suicide awareness and prevention, sexual assault response and prevention, domestic violence intervention and prevention, workplace violence intervention and prevention, substance abuse intervention, financial management, and responsible decision-making and behavior in all phases of people's lives.

question

What are the 4 dimensions of Wellness?

answer

Physical, Social, Spiritual, and Emotional.

question

What are the 5 components of the Physical dimension of Wellness?

answer

Cardio respiratory endurance, muscular endurance, muscular strength, body composition, and flexibility.

question

What does the Spiritual dimension of Wellness address?

answer

The spiritual dimension of wellness addresses questions such as meaning, purpose, values, self-worth, dignity, and hope.

question

Name 3 benefits of the Social dimension of Wellness.

answer

Having a sense of belonging, increased sense of self-worth, and feeling of security.

question

What is Perceived Burdensomeness?

answer

Perceived burdensomeness is a sense that, \"I am a burden to others, I do not contribute to the group, and I am a liability to the group's well-being or safety.\"

question

What is Thwarted Belongingness?

answer

Thwarted belongingness is a sense that, \"I have no connection to others and those previously meaningful relationships that I did have been strained beyond recovery or lost outright.\"

question

What percentage of Air Force deaths are because of suicide?

answer

Suicide is the second leading cause of death for active duty personnel. It accounts for 24% of the active duty deaths annually and is second only to deaths from unintentional injuries.

question

What document covers Suicide and Violence Prevention Education and Training?

answer

AFI 44-154.

question

What is CISM?

answer

Critical Incident Stress Management (CISM) enables people to understand the normal reactions to traumatic events and to promote use of effective coping skills. CISM teams or services exist on each base.

question

What is the definition of Confidential Communication?

answer

Confidential communication is defined as communication not intended to be disclosed to third persons other than those to whom disclosure is in furtherance of the rendition of professional services to the patient or those reasonably necessary for such transmission of the communication.

question

What document covers Confidential Communication?

answer

AFI 44-109, Mental Health, Confidentiality, and Military Law.

question

Who can Confidential Communications be disclosed to?

answer

Confidential communications will be disclosed to persons or agencies with a proper and legitimate need for the information and who are authorized by law or regulation to receive it, unless the evidentiary privilege applies.

question

What are the goals of post-suicide intervention?

answer

To help friends and colleagues understand and begin the grieving process, to help maintain mission readiness, full functionality and morale, and to identify/refer individuals who are at increased risk for distress.

question

What is AFPD 36-27?

answer

EQUAL OPPORTUNITY (EO).

question

What is AFI 44-121?

answer

Alcohol and Drug Abuse Prevention and Treatment (ADAPT) Program.

question

What is a Drug?

answer

Any controlled substance included in schedules I, II, III, IV, and V in Title 21, United States Code, Section 812, including anabolic or androgenic steroids, or any intoxicating substance, other than alcohol, that is inhaled, injected, consumed, or introduced into the body in any manner to alter mood or function.

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How does the Air Force define Substance Abuse?

answer

The use of any illicit drug, the misuse of any prescribed medication, or the abuse of alcohol. Any substandard behavior or performance in which the consumption of alcohol is a primary contributing factor. Any pattern of unconventional misuse of any substance for nonmedical purposes that produces a known health risk or constitutes a danger to self or others.

question

What is the 0-0-1-3 Formula?

answer

• 0 = Number of underage individuals drinking • 0 = Number of individuals driving under the influence (DUI) of alcohol • 1 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per hour • 3 = Maximum number of alcoholic drinks per night

question

Name 3 substance abuse prevention steps.

answer

Educating, de-glamorization, and leading by example.

question

With regard to drug or alcohol abuse, when are immediate actions required, such as notifying the Commander and First Sergeant?

answer

If there has been an incident, such as alcohol-related tardiness to work, DUI, or drunkenness on duty, immediate referral, documentation, and action are required. Any suspected drug abuse requires immediate action by the supervisor.

question

What are the 5 methods used by the Air Force to identify substance abuse?

answer

Self-identification, Commander referrals, Medical identification, Substance-related incidents, and Drug-testing.

question

What is Self-identification?

answer

Members who are not currently under investigation or pending action because of an alcohol-related incident are eligible to self-identify. For drug abuse, members may voluntarily disclose evidence of personal drug use or possession to their leadership or a military medical professional. Commanders will grant limited protection for Air Force members who reveal this information with the intent of entering treatment.

question

What are Commander Referrals?

answer

Commanders shall refer all members for an assessment when substance use could be a contributing factor in an incident. Commanders will coordinate with the staff judge advocate within 24 hours of suspected misconduct and should ensure that blood alcohol tests (BAT) are accomplished as soon after the incident as possible.

question

What is Medical Identification?

answer

Healthcare providers who suspect substance problems must refer the member to the ADAPT program for evaluation.

question

What is the overall mission of the ADAPT program?

answer

The ADAPT program is designed to identify and help individuals before their alcohol or drug problem causes significant damage to their health and career.

question

What are some of the negative effects that might be experienced by a member who has an identified substance abuse problem?

answer

Individual isolation, stereotyping or labeling, gossiping, low self-esteem, and low self-confidence.

question

What document covers substance abuse prevention and control?

answer

AFI 36-810.

question

What are effective ways to communicate with a member about suspected substance abuse?

answer

Private counseling or feedback session, Firm questions, yet sensitive to subordinate's situation and needs, Inquiring with a nonjudgmental, open-minded attitude, Sincerity and genuine concern in actions, and Using observed behaviors and other facts as the basis for discussion.

question

What is Stress?

answer

Stress is defined as the reaction people's bodies experience to an external demand by the continually changing environment. It has physical and emotional effects on people and can create positive or negative feelings or behaviors.

question

What are Eustress and Distress?

answer

Eustress describes positive or healthy stress. Distress describes negative stress.

question

What are the 6 categories of organizational stress?

answer

Task, role, interpersonal demands; organizational structure; organizational leadership; and an organization's life stage.

question

What are the 3 symptoms of stress?

answer

Physiological, Psychological and Behavioral.

question

List 4 individual time management techniques to help minimize stress.

answer

1. Make daily lists of activities to be accomplished. 2. Prioritize activities by importance and urgency. 3. Schedule activities according to the priorities set. 4. Know your daily cycle and handle the most demanding parts of your job during the high part of your cycle when you are most alert and productive.

question

What are 4 individual ways to combat stress?

answer

Time management, physical exercise, relaxation training, and social support.

question

What are 5 organizational ways to combat stress?

answer

Selection and placement, goal setting, job redesign, organizational communication, and wellness programs.

question

What is the definition of Combat and Operational Stress?

answer

The expected and predictable emotional, intellectual, physical, and/or behavioral reactions of Service members who have been exposed to stressful events in war or military operations other than war. Combat stress reactions vary in quality and severity as a function of operational conditions, such as intensity, duration, rules of engagement, leadership, effective communication, unit morale, unit cohesion, and perceived importance of the mission.

question

Name 13 combat-related stress risk factors.

answer

1) Duration of deployment greater than six months 2) Repeat deployments with insufficient time to recover and reset 3) Sleeping less than 6-8 hours per day on average 4) Witnessing death close up, especially of other Airmen or civilian non-combatants 5) Being responsible for the death or serious injury of a non-combatant or allied combatant 6) Being physically injured 7) Handling remains, especially other Airmen 8) History of previous stress injuries, whether sustained during or prior to service 9) Previous mental health problems 10) Lack of mutual trust with other unit members 11)Being impacted by family, relationship, or other home front stressors 12) Being young and inexperienced 13) Potential exposure to nuclear, biological, and chemical agents

question

What are Combat Stress Reactions (CSR)?

answer

Combat Stress Reactions (CSR) are a natural result of exposure to combat conditions.

question

What are 4 warning signs of PTSD?

answer

Reliving the event, avoiding situations that remind you of the event, feeling numb, and hyperarousal.

question

What is the AEP?

answer

The Air Force Affirmative Employment Program (AEP) is designed to facilitate opportunities for the employment and advancement of underrepresented groups in the work force, remove artificial barriers in personnel systems and practices, and eliminate discrimination by act or inference.

question

What form is used as a Formal Complaint for the allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment?

answer

AF Form 1587-1.

question

How is an Informal Complaint for the allegation of unlawful discrimination or sexual harassment filed?

answer

Orally or on an AF Form 1587-1 that is not submitted as a formal complaint.

question

What 2 documents can be referenced regarding sexual harassment?

answer

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, as amended, and AFI 36-2706, Military Equal Opportunity Program.

question

What are the 5 parts of a Restricted Report of a sexual assault?

answer

1. Reporting can remain confidential 2. This option applies to ALL military members (to include Guard/Reserve members regardless of duty status) and to dependents 18 years of age or older* 3. A law enforcement investigation will not be triggered 4. The chain of command is not involved, other than being notified that \"an alleged sexual assault\" has occurred. (No names or other personally identifying information are given.) 5. A victim can change their mind and elect to change a Restricted Report to an Unrestricted Report.

question

What is a VWAP Liaison?

answer

VWAP liaisons are individuals (medical or mental health care provider, judge advocate, paralegal, or other appropriate person) who assist a victim during the military justice process. A liaison is also responsible for making contact between victims and service agencies and arranging for those services when appropriate.

question

What document covers SAPR Program procedures?

answer

DoDI 6495.02.

question

What is the first type of workplace violence?

answer

Violent acts by criminals who have no other connection with the workplace but enter to commit robbery or another crime.

question

What is the second type of workplace violence?

answer

Violence directed at employees by customers, clients, patients, students, inmates, or any others for whom an organization provides services.

question

What is the third type of workplace violence?

answer

Violence directed against coworkers, supervisors, or managers by a present or former employee.

question

What is the fourth type of workplace violence?

answer

Violence committed in the workplace by someone who doesn't work there but has a personal relationship with an employee—an abusive spouse or domestic partner.

question

What is Assault?

answer

Assault is a violent physical or verbal attack, an unlawful threat, or an attempt to do violence or harm to somebody else.

question

What is Aggravated Assault?

answer

Aggravated Assault causes serious physical injury to another; using a deadly weapon or dangerous instrument; committing an assault by any means of force that causes temporary but substantial disfigurement, temporary but substantial loss or impairment of any body organ or part or a fracture of any body part; committing an assault while the victim is bound or otherwise physically restrained or while the victim's capacity to resist is substantially impaired.

question

What is the Threat Assessment Protocol?

answer

Threat Assessment Protocol provides a meaningful line of inquiry to help collect information after learning of a possible threat of violence. Use it to guide your assessment of the potential threat and to help predict future violence.

question

What is the difference between Source Data and Subject Interview Data?

answer

Source Data is information about what happened or what might have led up to the incident. Subject Interview Data is information about the perpetrator and potential warning signs displayed recently or in their past history.

question

What does the acronym JACA stand for?

answer

J - Perceived justification. A - Perceived alternatives. C - Perceived consequences. A - Perceived ability.

question

What is JACA?

answer

JACA is a useful tool for predicting the likelihood of future violence. It is a strong indication that future violence is likely whenever one or more of the letters (JACA) in the model describe the subject (threatener).

question

With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the J in JACA mean?

answer

Does the person feel justified in using violence?

question

With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the first A in JACA mean?

answer

Does the person perceive available alternatives to violence?

question

With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the C in JACA mean?

answer

How does the person view the consequences associated with using violence?

question

With regard to the subject (threatener), what does the second A in JACA mean?

answer

Does the person believe he/she can successfully deliver the blow, bullet, or bomb?

question

Describe Workplace Bullying.

answer

Workplace Bullying is, in simple terms, abuse or misuse of power and is considered psychological violence. It includes actions, decisions, and behaviors such as unwarranted or invalid criticism or blame without factual justification, treating some members differently than others, and excluding certain members from events to isolate them socially. It also includes physical intimidation (proximal), shouting, swearing and taking actions that embarrass or humiliate the target.

question

Name 4 ways to deal with difficult people.

answer

1) Be aware of what is going on around you. For example, if you overhear loud, angry, or abusive remarks directed at a member of your team, distract the visitor by asking a question or saying hello. 2) If you know you will be meeting with someone who may become upset or threatening, have your supervisor or a coworker sit in on the meeting or remain within earshot. 3) If a person becomes abusive or threatens you while you are in your work area, especially a closed room, get up and walk to the door while you continue to talk with the individual. 4) If you sincerely feel you face imminent harm, fake illness or a forgotten errand and leave your work area.

question

What are four observable behaviors of a potentially violent person?

answer

Standing history of complaints, feelings of victimization related to a failure to accurately perceive their role, increasing angry or sullen moods, and an individual who has threatened that some violent act or confrontation could happen.

question

Name 7 actions supervisors should take following a threat allegation.

answer

1) Relocate the workstation of threatened employees. 2) Alter the employees work schedule. 3) Provide photographs of stalkers or alleged perpetrators (spouses) to receptionists and security officers/forces. 4) Encourage law enforcement to enforce restraining orders. 5) f threats are recent, provide employees with time off. 6) Deploy security cameras near entrances to employees work areas. 7) Place silent alarms at employee workstations.

question

Describe Stage 1 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.

answer

Unit members experience emotional reactions characterized by shock, disbelief, denial, or numbness. Physically, members experience shock or a fight-or-flight survival reaction in which the heart rate increases, perceptual senses become heightened or distorted, and adrenaline levels increase to meet a real or perceived threat.

question

Describe Stage 2 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.

answer

This is the \"impact\" stage where unit members may feel a variety of intense emotion, including anger, rage, fear, terror, grief, sorrow, confusion, helplessness, guilt, depression, or withdrawal. This stage may last a few days, a few weeks, or even a few months.

question

Describe Stage 3 of the crisis reaction following a violent incident.

answer

This is the \"reconciliation stage\" in which unit members try to make sense out of the event, understand its impact, and through trial and error, reach closure of the event so it does not interfere with their ability to function and grow. Understand that this stage may be a long-term process.

question

Name 8 proactive ways to avoid violence in the workplace.

answer

Training, Establish Clear Policies, Give Members a Voice, Stress Management, Marital/Relationship Counseling, Alcohol/Drug Abuse Prevention, Diversity Training and Conflict Resolution, and Reducing Risk When Taking Disciplinary Action.

question

What is the true purpose behind disciplinary action?

answer

The true purpose of disciplinary action is rehabilitative rather than punitive.

question

Name 5 good practices for supervisors when involuntarily separating an employee.

answer

1) Be sensitive to the fact that involuntary separation is highly stressful to most people 2) Give separation notices at the end-of-the-day 3) Escort individuals from the location of the termination meeting to the exit of the installation 4) If members are allowed to clean out their desk, room, office, etc, ensure they do so in your presence 5) Recommend restriction from the installation when \"probable cause\" indicates terminated members' potential for violence

question

What is Anchoring?

answer

Anchoring is an offer that is at (or slightly more aggressive) than the aspiration point. The expectation is that the anchor pulls agreement close to one's aspiration point. In simple bargaining situations, the stronger one's anchor, the closer the final agreement is to the negotiator's aspiration point.

question

What is BATNA?

answer

Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement (BATNA). Defined as \"an alternative that, should negotiations fail, you are willing and able to execute without the other party's participation or permission.\"

question

Describe Convergent thinkers.

answer

Convergent Thinkers tend to be reliable, rational, and principle-based. They constantly work to reduce uncertainty and ambiguity.

question

Describe Divergent thinkers.

answer

Divergent thinkers' mental processes tend to be creative and spontaneous. They are comfortable with uncertainty and ambiguity.

question

Describe a Demand.

answer

A demand is a statement of terms with no room for adjustment. It is positional and embodies the most precise use of a \"take it or leave it\" option.

question

What are Interests?

answer

Interests are the reason behind your position. It is the \"why\" behind what you want.

question

What are the 3 basic types of Interests?

answer

Procedural, psychological and substantive.

question

Describe Procedural interests.

answer

Procedural interests are those concerning how a process is conducted. Negotiators with procedural interests are not as concerned with the actual details of the outcome as they are with how an outcome is determined.

question

Describe Psychological interests.

answer

Psychological interests (sometimes called relationship interests) are concerned with how people feel, how they are perceived, and how they relate with others.

question

Describe Substantive interests.

answer

Substantive interests, which are perhaps the most important, have to do with things such as schedules, prices, salaries, etc. These make up the bulk of most negotiations.

question

What are Interest-based Negotiations (IBN)?

answer

Interest-Based Negotiations (IBN), also referred to as Interest-based Problem-Solving, is the practice of focusing on the interests, and not the positions of the two negotiating parties. The mediator's challenge is to guide these parties to focus on their interests instead of their positions.

question

What is Negotiation?

answer

Negotiation is a process involving two or more people or groups who have a degree of difference in positions, interests, goals, values, or beliefs and who are striving to reach agreement on issues or courses of action.

question

What is Position?

answer

In negotiating, a position is \"what you want.\" Your position is what you envision as your best possible outcome. This is the stance one takes that is usually founded on his or her underlying interests.

question

What is a Reservation point?

answer

Reservation point is the \"bottom line\" or least favorable option or offer you will accept.

question

What is Aspiration point?

answer

Aspiration point is the best outcome each party hopes to achieve from a negotiated agreement.

question

What is the Zone of Possible Agreement?

answer

The \"bargaining range\" defined as the overlapping (common) area of each party's aspiration point and reservation point. No overlap, no ZOPA.

question

What does the TIPO model stand for?

answer

Trust, Information, Power, and Options.

question

What are the 2 main categories of Trust?

answer

Trust in a Process and Trust in a Person.

question

Name 4 examples of Process Trust.

answer

The Inspector General complaint system, Equal Opportunity policies and programs, Air Force instructions, and the Core Values.

question

Name 3 Trust Building measures.

answer

Providing (or being provided) information in a way that both parties understand, delivering on promises made, and taking a genuine interest in your opposites' interests.

question

In negotiating, what is critical to developing options and then making those options possible?

answer

Information is critical to developing options and power is key to making the options possible.

question

What is the People approach to negotiating?

answer

It centers on the relationship that exists between the individuals or groups involved. In some situations, developing or maintaining the relationship is more important than the task at hand.

question

What is the Task approach to negotiating?

answer

Places more importance on reaching an outcome, solution, or resolution than on building or maintaining the relationship.

question

What are the 5 Negotiation Styles?

answer

Evade, Comply, Insist, Settle, and Cooperate.

question

What is the difference between Constructive and Destructive conflict?

answer

Constructive conflict spurs creative thinking which results in more detailed and feasible solutions when negotiating and mediating. Destructive conflict produces hostility between parties which in turn produces barriers to cooperation, destroys morale, and thwarts efforts to solve problems.

question

What is CNS?

answer

The Cooperative Negotiation Strategy (CNS) concentrates on both the task and the relationship. The central idea is for two parties, by working together rather than competitively, to potentially come up with a better solution as a team than either could invent on their own.

question

What are the 5 steps of the Cooperative Negotiation Strategy process?

answer

Step 1 is Positions, Step 2 is Interests, Step 3 is BATNA, Step 4 is (Divergent) Brainstorming, and Step 5 is Solution.

question

When brainstorming, why is it essential to list all the options developed without judgment?

answer

Often the best solution is one that grows out of an initially incomplete or weak option.

question

What are the 2 Negotiating Categories?

answer

Distributive and Integrative.

question

What is Distributive Negotiating?

answer

Also known as value claiming, this category assumes resources are limited. The task of any distributive negotiating process is to divide up a fixed set of resources. Distributive negotiation's objective is to claim a portion of whatever value is on the table. Resources are seen as fixed and limited, so any gain by one side represents a loss for the other. Conflict is seen as inevitable, and competition rather than cooperation guides negotiations.

question

Name 7 \"Hardball\" tactics often used during Distributive Negotiating.

answer

Good cop - Bad cop, Highball-Lowball, Exploding offer, Lying, Intimidation/Aggressive Behavior, Snow job, and Nibble.

question

Describe the Highball-Lowball negotiating tactic.

answer

This tactic takes advantage of you being hard-wired for reciprocity. The other side sets a very high anchor and then offers a concession, and you feel obligated to respond with a concession.

question

Describe the Nibble negotiating tactic.

answer

You are about to sign, and then the other party demands a little something extra at the end to close the deal. You should stand ready with a little something extra of your own to demand.

question

Describe the Snow Job negotiating tactic.

answer

This tactic aims to overwhelm you with too many details; one person can only absorb so much. It becomes extremely difficult to determine what is real and/or important and what is and is not a distraction. Wear the opponent down by making him or her explain each element.

question

What is Integrative Negotiating?

answer

The integrative category, while still acknowledging that in the end resources must be distributed, does not see resources as necessarily fixed and means that integrative negotiations are not necessarily zero sum. Conflict is not seen as inevitable; there is the possibility for mutually beneficial, \"value creating\" cooperation. Negotiators see the other party as partners in the process, and cooperation has the potential to create new value from existing resources by combining or using them in new or different ways.

question

Describe negotiating with a low-context culture.

answer

Low-context cultures are task-oriented, rely on perceived positional power, and believe in the process more than the relationships. They tend to try to satisfy their position, rather than their interests.

question

Describe negotiating with a high-context culture.

answer

High-context cultures are people-oriented, and try to develop trust, assuming they will be trusted as well. If negotiations are not going well, they will resort to either Insisting on their terms, or will assume a more passive negotiation style like Comply, Settle, or Evade.

question

With regard to negotiations, what is Readiness?

answer

Readiness is defined as the capacity of parties to decide it is in their best interest to negotiate an agreement rather than to continue a dispute. You must ask yourself, \"Am I ready to be reasonable, has enough time passed that I can put aside my feelings and deal rationally with the issues and decisions that need to be made, am I fundamentally ready to do \"business\" with the other person/party involved, and is the other person/party is ready to be reasonable with me?\"

question

With regard to negotiations, what is Ripeness?

answer

Timing is critical to successful negotiations. Use the concept of ripeness, comparing negotiation to fruit. If fruit is picked too early, it is not ready to eat; however, pick it too late and it's inedible as well. Negotiation works the same way.

question

What is a Mutually Hurting Stalemate?

answer

Once all sides realize they cannot win and the status quo is unacceptably damaging the conflict is said to be \"ripe\" for resolution, also known as a mutually hurting stalemate.

question

What happens during Mediation?

answer

Parties turn to a neutral third party who uses interest-based problem solving techniques to assist in resolving a dispute. The interest-based problem-solving approach to dispute resolution focuses on interests, not positions, creating options for mutual gain, and using objective criteria to ensure legitimacy of any agreement.

question

Why is mediation more effective in the early stages of a dispute?

answer

Disputing parties' harden their positions as time goes by and the dispute escalates.

question

What is Evaluative Mediation?

answer

A subject-matter expert mediator describes the issue, offers an opinion on the strengths and weaknesses of each party's side, and suggests options to resolve the matter.

question

What is Facilitative Mediation?

answer

An active third party who enhances communication and encourages the parties to discuss matters freely and voluntarily. In facilitative mediation, the parties clarify issues, reevaluate positions, and analyze interests. The Air Force has adopted the facilitative style of mediation for all workplace disputes.

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What are Stakeholders?

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Stakeholders are other outside parties who have a vested or personal interest in the initiation, processing, and resolution of an existing dispute. Commanders, first sergeants, supervisors, subordinates, neighbors, family members, as well as legal and other intra-agency representatives are all potential stakeholders of mediation.

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What is a Caucus?

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A caucus is confidential and private meeting between each of the parties and the mediator. Caucuses offer the mediator the \"behind-the-scenes\" perspective from each party to ensure there is a potential zone within which the parties can reach agreement.

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What is a Mediator?

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A mediator facilitates communications, promotes understanding, and focuses negotiating parties on their interests, rather than their positions.

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What is a Impasse?

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This occurs when there is the failure to make progress toward resolution.

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What is Reality Checking?

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This is a process where the mediator gets the parties to understand, typically through a series of questions, the weaknesses of their case, issue, or demand. When parties have a very weak position, no claim for what they seek, no legal basis for the settlement they desire, or unrealistic demands, reality checking is necessary.

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What is Fostering Understanding of Other's Views?

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A mediator helps the parties to use empathy to understand each other's situation, feelings, and motives. Understanding the other side's point of view does not mean the mediator shares, agrees, or even sympathizes with it. Empathy merely provides new perspectives that may open options previously hidden.

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What is a Mediator's Emotional Control?

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For the mediator, it is very important to have no outward reaction to a party's emotional display. A reaction can jeopardize the mediator's all-important neutrality and credibility.

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Should venting be allowed during Mediation?

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While venting should be embraced and not feared, mediators must end joint sessions if it appears that either or both parties are close to losing control of their actions. It always remains the mediator's responsibility to remain calm and maintain the quality of the proceedings.

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What are the 5 Stages of Mediation?

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Mediator opening statement, parties' opening statements, joint discussion, caucus, and closure.

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Describe the Mediator Opening Statement.

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In the first stage, the mediator meets with both parties together for the first time. The mediator begins the session with introductions followed by an opening statement. The purpose of the opening statement is to establish a structure for the mediation session, ensure the parties' understand the mediation process, and gain their commitment to it.

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Describe the Opening Statement of the Parties involved.

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In the second stage, the disputing parties have an opportunity to offer their opening statements. Here, they are given adequate time to speak without interruption regarding the issue at hand and share their side of the issue. Each party should fully explain the issue, their interests, and positions as they see it so that all parties, including the mediator understand. This may be the first time that each party hears the other party's view on the issues.

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Describe the Joint Discussion.

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At the beginning of the third stage, mediation moves into a forum of joint discussion. This is the first opportunity for the parties and the mediator to interact with and assist the parties in focusing less on their positions and more on their interests. Here, the mediator facilitates a conversation between the disputing parties.

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Describe Caucus.

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In stage four, the term caucus means \"private meeting.\" This is an optional stage that can occur at any time during the mediation process but, when needed, usually occurs when joint discussions collapse. These are private, confidential one-on-one discussions between the mediator and each party.

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Describe Closure.

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In stage 5 of the mediation process, not all mediations end in a mutually agreed upon resolution. When settlement no longer seems possible, and the parties and mediator have exhausted all available mediation possibilities, or one or both parties have removed themselves from the mediation...the mediation should end. In most cases, the mediation session will conclude with some form of resolution. For mediations that do end in a mutually satisfying outcome, this stage could become quite lengthy, especially if there is legally binding documentation and administration involved.

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Name 4 guidelines for becoming an attentive negotiator.

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Listen for and observe the speaker's verbal and nonverbal signals, respond accordingly and appropriately to ensure a meaningful and progressive interaction, avoid making predictions as to what the speaker will say next (we typically stop listening when we believe we know what the person will say next), and focus on the message and not the distractions.

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Describe Active Listening.

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Remain constantly aware of the verbal cues such as vocal pauses, interjections like \"uh-huh\", \"oh\", \"wow\", and \"Really?\" as well as nonverbal cues the other party transmits, such as eye contact, facial expressions, hand movements, and body position.

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What are 7 techniques to become an Active Listener?

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Minimal encouragements, paraphrasing, emotion labeling, mirroring/reflecting, open-ended questions, \"I\" messages, and effective pauses.

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What are Minimal Encouragements?

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Minimal encouragements are questions, comments, or sounds that do not interfere with the flow of conversation, but let others know you are there and listening. They build rapport, encourage the speaker to continue, and include statements like Oh?, When?, and Really?

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What is Paraphrasing?

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Paraphrasing demonstrates evidence that you were listening and understand. Usually, paraphrasing begins with the statements like, \"Are you telling me...?\" or \"So what you are saying is...\"

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What is Emotion Labeling?

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This is often the first active listening skill used in a communicated crisis situations. Common phrases include, \"You sound...,\" \"You seem...,\" or \"What I hear is...\" Do not be concerned about making a mistake in labeling emotions. The speaker will correct you and will often appear grateful for your attempt.

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What is Mirroring, or Reflecting?

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This is the technique of repeating the last word or phrase spoken in the form of a question. This asks for more input and elicits information when you do not have enough to ask a pertinent question. Mirroring is useful when you are at a loss for words.

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What are open-ended questions?

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Open-ended questions help the speaker to start talking and encourage a person to say more. They are questions that cannot be answered with a simple yes or no and usually begin with how, what, when, where, and why. However, be careful using the why question as these tend to steer the conversation toward blame and shut down communication.

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What are \"I\" messages?

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\"I\" messages let speakers know how they are making you feel, why you feel that way, and what the speaker can do to remedy the situation. This is a nonthreatening approach that usually does not put the speaker on the defensive.

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What are effective pauses?

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Silence is an extremely effective form of communication. Most people are not comfortable with silence and will speak to fill the uncomfortable void. Silence can also be used to emphasize a point just before or after saying something important.

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According to AFDD1-1, who is an Airman?

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AFDD1-1 states, \"An Airman is any US Air Force member (officer or enlisted; active, reserve, or guard; and Department of the Air Force civilians) who supports and defends the US Constitution and serves our country.\"

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Recite the Oath of Enlistment.

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I, Aaron M. Potts, do solemnly swear (or affirm) that I will support and defend the constitution of the United States against all enemies, foreign and domestic, that I will bear true faith and allegiance to the same, and that I will obey the orders of the President of the United States and the orders of the officers appointed over me, according to the regulations and the uniform code of military justice, so help me God.

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According to Chapter 4 of the Enlisted Force Structure, AFI 36-2618, what must NCO's do?

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NCO's must clearly meet, and strive to exceed, the standards and expectations levied upon junior enlisted Airmen. Epitomize excellence and lead by example through exhibiting professional behavior, military bearing, respect for authority, and the highest standards of dress and appearance. Instill professional behaviors in subordinates, and correct those who violate standards.

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What is AFPAM 36-2241?

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AFPAM 36-2241 is the Professional Development Guide.

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What is the unlimited liability clause?

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A feature that distinguishes the military profession from other professions in that the level of personal sacrifice required may actually be the most supreme.

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What does DDR stand for?

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Direction, Discipline, and Recognition.

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What are two concepts that support Progressive Professionalism, or P2?

answer

Direction, Discipline, and Recognition (DDR), and Self-development.

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Recognition is received through what?

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Recognition is received through consistent trends in positive behavior such as seeking self-development and performance.

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What 9 characteristics does Integrity encompass?

answer

Courage, honesty, responsibility, accountability, justice, openness, self-respect, humility, and honor.

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Service before Self is made up of what 9 ethical characteristics?

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Rule following, faith in the system, duty, respect for others, self-discipline, self-control, appropriate actions or desires, tolerance, and loyalty.

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Service before self does not mean what?

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Service before family.

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What are the 6 aspects of excellence?

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Personal, organizational, resource, operational, product and service, and community. - croopp

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What is the Warrior Ethos?

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The Warrior Ethos is the tenacity to push through, self-discipline, self-control, hardiness of spirit despite physical and mental hardships, moral, and physical courage.

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What is Hardiness of Spirit?

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Hardiness of spirit is the stout internal force that can be used to get through challenging times mentally or physically.

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What are the 2 types of courage?

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Physical courage and Moral courage.

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What is Moral Courage?

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Moral courage is the ability and willingness to expose oneself to inconvenience, suffering, retaliation, resentment, or disapproval to stand up for what one believes to be right.

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What is Resiliency?

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Air Force resiliency is an Airmen's ability to withstand, recover, and/or grow in the face of stressors and changing demands by orchestrating the use of base resources, support activities, peers, and leadership.

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Air Force Resiliency focuses on what 12 Targets to Enhance Resilience and Operational Performance?

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Be a Wingman, Comm check, Lead from the front, Mental rehearsal, Nutrition, Physical fitness, Problem solving, Purpose = Why, Recharge, Situational awareness (SA), Strategic thinking, and Tactical breathing.

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What is the most important weapon system in the Air Force arsenal?

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The human weapon system—you, the Airman.

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How much does excess weight and obesity cost the Department of Defense annually?

answer

$1.1 billion in medical care costs.

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Nutrients are metabolized and used for fuel in what two ways?

answer

Aerobic and anaerobic

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Describe Aerobic Metabolism.

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Aerobic Metabolism works by breaking down nutrients for energy in a process that requires oxygen. It releases more energy than anaerobic metabolism, but it takes longer. It supplies most of the energy during low-intensity, endurance type activities, like long distance running and swimming.

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Describe Anaerobic Metabolism.

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Anaerobic metabolism, which does not require oxygen, releases less energy than aerobic metabolism, but does so very quickly. Most energy tends to come from anaerobic pathways during high-intensity short bouts of activity such as sprints and weightlifting.

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Describe oxygen usage during Aerobic metabolism.

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Aerobic Metabolism is the creation of energy through the breakdown of carbohydrates and fats in the presence of oxygen. Its byproducts are carbon dioxide and water.

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Describe oxygen usage during Anaerobic metabolism.

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Anaerobic Metabolism is the creation of energy through the breakdown of carbohydrates in the absence of oxygen. This occurs when there is not enough oxygen in the bloodstream to keep up with the demands from the muscles' activity.

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Describe fat usage during exercise.

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Fats are a long-term, low intensity energy source and are the preferred fuel for aerobic exercise for individuals involved in mild- to moderate-intensity exercise. Sustained training increases the proportion of energy derived from fat and decreases the amount of carbohydrates used.

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Name 3 of the body's sensitive structures that depend on a protective layer of water.

answer

The brain, eyes, and spinal cord.

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What is the measurement of dehydration?

answer

Being more than 2% below normal body weight due to loss of water is dehydration.

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What are the 4 parts of the Harris Benedict formula for estimated needed caloric intake?

answer

Weight, height, age, and activity level factor.

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What is Functional Training?

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Any type of exercise that has a direct relationship to the activities you perform in your daily life.

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What is pre-habilitation?

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\"Pre-habilitation\" is training to prevent injuries in healthy individuals.

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What is High Intensity Exercise Endurance, or HIEE?

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High Intensity Exercise Endurance (HIEE) is defined as the application of maximal physical effort systematically applied to a technically developed motor skill.

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What does FEI stand for?

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High-intensity exercise integrated with functional training creates what is called Functional Endurance Intensity (FEI) workouts.

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What is the FOSI Principle?

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The FOSI Principle stands for Form Over Speed and Intensity, and will ensure that motor skills are technically developed before speed or intensity is added.

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During high intensity exercise, what should be true?

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You should not have the ability to engage in conversation or any other event while you are participating in the workouts. You should have \"nothing left in your tank\" (no energy left) when you complete the workout.

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What are 3 benefits of the FOSI principle?

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Lessens injury, Focuses on form, and Helps develop core.

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What is Tactical Breathing?

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Tactical breathing is the ability to control your breathing in times when you most need to breathe efficiently.

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What is the best breathing method?

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Breathing through expansion of the abdomen instead of the chest, Diaphragmatic Breathing, is the best breathing method and is a healthier, fuller way to take in oxygen.

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What is Culture?

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Culture is a set of shared attitudes, values, goals, and practices that characterizes a group or an organization.

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What is Heritage?

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Merriam-Webster's Dictionary defines heritage as \"something transmitted by or acquired from a predecessor.\"

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In what year was aerial surveillance first used by the military?

answer

At the Battle of Fair Oaks in 1861, and then again in 1898 using William Ivy Baldwin's balloon.

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When did the U.S. Army Signal Corps establish its first Aeronautical Division?

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August 1, 1907.

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What were the 3 first Air Force Major Commands?

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The first Air Force Major Commands were Strategic Air Command (SAC), Air Defense Command (ADC), and Tactical Air Command (TAC).

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What were 3 reasons for Operation Desert Storm?

answer

Iraq invaded Kuwait, Stabilization of the Arabian Peninsula, and Enforcement of United Nations resolutions.

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In what 4 ways was Operation Allied Force important to history?

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It showed U.S. resolve to prevent human suffering, it proved the U.S. could operate under the direction of NATO and with coalition partners, it proved how a phased bombing approach is valuable, and it displayed the fundamental factors of unity and resolve.

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What was the Air Service of the U.S. Army?

answer

Two agencies under the Secretary of War: the Bureau of Aircraft Production, and the Division of Military Aeronautics.

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What created the Department of the Air Force?

answer

The National Security Act of 1947, which became law on 26 July 1947.

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What is the Medal of Honor?

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The Medal of Honor is the highest U.S. Military decoration awarded to individuals who, while serving in the U.S. armed services, have distinguished themselves by conspicuous gallantry and courage at the risk of life above and beyond the call of duty.

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What is the Air Force Cross?

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The Air Force Cross is awarded to US and foreign military personnel and civilians who have displayed extraordinary heroism. The Air Force Cross is awarded when the heroic actions fall just short of warranting the Congressional Medal of Honor.

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A professional Airman is not only experienced in their specialty but also understands the roles of what?

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A professional Airman understands the role of heritage in the Profession of Arms and the relationship between Airmanship and enlisted heritage.

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What is AFI 36-2903?

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Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel.

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AFI 36-2618 charges all NCOs with doing what?

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Advancing the Profession of Arms.

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What is the backbone of military discipline?

answer

Drill, which in addition to discipline, teaches and develops teamwork, confidence, pride, alertness, attention to detail, and esprit de corps.

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What document covers Drill and Ceremonies?

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AFMAN 36-2203, Drill and Ceremonies.

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Why is Diversity a military necessity?

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People with different experiences, skill sets, and talents contribute to the Air Force mission through creativity and better problem-solving/decision making.

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What is the definition of Diversity?

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Diversity is defined as a composite of individual characteristics, experiences, and abilities consistent with the Air Force Core Values and the Air Force Mission.

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What are 2 broad dimensions of diversity?

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2 broad dimensions of diversity are primary and secondary.

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What are primary diversity dimensions?

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Primary dimensions are differences \"that are inborn and/or exert an important impact on your early socialization and have an ongoing impact throughout your life.\" Age, language, ethnicity, cultural background, disability, and gender are just a few of the many \"primary dimensions.\" Primary dimensions are differences that you are born with and cannot normally change.

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What are secondary diversity dimensions?

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Secondary dimensions include characteristics about yourself that can change such as: work ethic, income, marital status, experience, religious and philosophical beliefs, personality, educational background, and language abilities. This dimension also includes a person's strengths and temperaments.

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What are some diverse groups in the Air Force?

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Airmen, NCOs, SNCOs, Officers, Civilians, Contractors, Career Fields, Squadrons, Groups, Wings, etc., MAJCOMs, and Joint Assignments

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What is Equal Opportunity?

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Equal Opportunity (EO) refers to legal and regulatory mandates prohibiting discrimination based on race, color, sex, national origin, religion, age, disability, and reprisal.

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What is Affirmative Action?

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Affirmative Action (AA) refers to voluntary or mandated programs developed for the purpose of overcoming imbalances in the workforce that affect designated groups, such as members of minority groups, women, veterans, and people with disabilities.

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What is the relationship between EO, AA, and diversity awareness?

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Both EO and AA help supervisors establish policies and procedures that are legal and fair with an aim toward improving working relationships, productivity, customer satisfaction, and unit and mission effectiveness.

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What are 5 characteristics of a diversity supportive organization?

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Act Proactively, Leadership-Driven, Encourage Ownership of Initiatives, Think Inclusively, and Mainstream Diversity.

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What are Socio-Behavioral Tendencies (SBTs)?

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SBTs are the thought processes you use to help make sense of the world you live in.

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What is a Stereotype?

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Stereotype is a standardized mental picture that one person or group of people holds in common about another person or group of people.

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What is Prejudice?

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Prejudice is \"An adverse or unreasonable opinion about a person or group without all the facts and usually based on deeply held beliefs.\"

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What is the difference between stereotype and prejudice?

answer

The difference between stereotype and prejudice is that stereotyping can be positive or negative and includes a general opinion about ALL members of the group - ignoring individual differences.

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What are Social Biases?

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Social biases occur when someone unfairly favors or prefers a person, culture group, or race to another.

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What are Perceptions?

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Perceptions are what you experience and observe that becomes your reality.

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What are Perspectives?

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Perspectives are your position on a particular subject. It is how you mentally view a situation.

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What is Collusion?

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Collusion occurs when people cooperate with others, knowingly or unknowingly, to reinforce those behaviors that prevent others from fully entering into the workplace culture.

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What are the 3 forms of collusion?

answer

Silence, denial, and active participation.

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What is Silent Collusion?

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Silent Collusion is the practice of neither supporting nor defending the rights of others to be fully included in the work place. When someone just stands by and, by his or her own SILENCE, seems to support the negative attitudes and unfair judgments about certain groups.

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What is the Denial form of Collusion?

answer

Denial is another passive approach that simply ignores any evidence of negative behavior. It's similar to putting your head in the sand and pretending that the problem doesn't exist.

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What is the Active Participation form of Collusion?

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Active participation involves \"actions that overtly work to prevent the inclusion of others.\" When someone actively participates in promoting negative stereotypes, other forms of unfair judgments, and disrespectful behavior, he or she is colluding and preventing equality.

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What is Discrimination?

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Discrimination is the treatment or consideration of making a distinction in favor of or against a person or thing based on the group, class, or category to which that person or thing belongs, rather than on individual merit.

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What are the four FAIR techniques for maximizing retention and productivity and maintaining effective working relationships in workplaces?

answer

Giving Feedback, offering Assistance, assuring Inclusion, and giving Respect.

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What is Feedback?

answer

Feedback is giving and receiving information on how to meet expectations.

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What does Inclusion involve?

answer

Inclusion involves responding to the needs of all workers so they feel valued and part of the team.

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What is Respect?

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Respect is being able to recognize each person's unique value, contributions, and potential to the organization.

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At its core, Diversity provides what?

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Diversity provides the Air Force a combination of strengths, skills, and capabilities that transcend individual contributions.

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What is Ethical Leadership?

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Ethical leadership is about knowing your core values and having the courage to live by them in all parts of your life in service of the common good.

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What are Ethics?

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Ethics are a set of standards of conduct that guide decisions and actions based on duties derived from core values.

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What are Values?

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Values are the core beliefs you hold regarding what is right and fair in terms of our actions and our interactions with others.

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What are Morals?

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Morals are values that you attribute to a system of beliefs that help us define right from wrong, good versus bad.

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In most cases, when are people considered ethical?

answer

In most cases, people are characterized as ethical when they act in ways that are consistent with societal moral values.

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What are Military Ethics?

answer

It is a set of standards of conduct that guide decisions and actions based on duties derived from core values and is designed to put principle above ones' own self interest.

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What are 3 resources for outlining ethical behaviors expected of all Air Force members?

answer

Joint Ethics Regulation, Standards of Conduct, and the USAF Core Values booklet.

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What is Ethical Relativism?

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Ethical relativism claims there are no ethical absolutes, and social norms determine what is ethical or unethical.

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What is a Categorical Imperative?

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Categorical imperative is a hypothetical imperative that would compel action under a particular circumstance, i.e. - If I wish to satisfy my thirst, then I must drink this lemonade. It is any proposition that declares a certain kind of action (or inaction) to be necessary.

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What is Ethical Relativism?

answer

Ethical relativism is the belief that nothing is objectively right or wrong and that the definition of right or wrong depends on the prevailing view of a particular individual, culture, or historical period.

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Name 8 ethical guidelines used by the Air Force.

answer

The USAF Core Values, AFI 36-2618, Airman's Creed, Professional Development Guide, Code of Conduct, DOD Joint Staff Guide 5260 (Service Member's Personal Protection Guide), Law of Armed Conflict, and the Uniform Code of Military Justice.

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Recite the Airman's Creed.

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I am an American Airman. I am a Warrior. I have answered my Nation's call. I am an American Airman. My mission is to Fly, Fight, and Win. I am faithful to a Proud Heritage, a Tradition of Honor, and a Legacy of Valor. I am an American Airman. Guardian of Freedom and Justice, My Nation's Sword and Shield, It's Sentry and Avenger. I Defend my Country with my Life. I am an American Airman. Wingman, Leader, Warrior. I will never leave an Airman behind. I will never falter. And I will not fail.

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In what 3 ways should NCOs create and promote an ethical climate and foster ethical behavior?

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No rewards for unethical behavior, forgiveness for mistakes, and appropriate action taken for dereliction of duty.

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What are Ethical Traps?

answer

Ethical traps are confusion or uncertainly as to what action or behavior should be taken, conflicting opinions/values, all choices have drawbacks.

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Name 4 Ethical Traps.

answer

Ethical relativism, Loyalty syndrome, Worry over image, and Drive for success.

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What is Loyalty Syndrome?

answer

Loyalty Syndrome is making decisions based on respect and/or loyalty to an individual, unit, or organization, etc., rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.

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What is Worry over Image?

answer

Worry Over Image is making decisions based on how the decision will impact one's reputation/standing among peers, subordinates, supervisors, community, etc., rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.

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What is Drive for Success?

answer

Drive for Success is making decisions based on a \"win at all costs\" attitude rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.

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What is practicing Prudence first, and Justice second?

answer

When practicing prudence first and justice second, a leader should consider all factors to ensure the correction/punishment fits the crime.

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When counseling an NCO during an ethical dilemma, is it better to tell them what to do, or to leave the decision up to them?

answer

The NCO should be reminded of the core values that will be violated if they do the wrong thing, but then told that the decision is ultimately up to them. This helps to build up the NCO's ethical decision-making ability.

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What are the 3 O's of ethics?

answer

Owing, ordering, and oughting.

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What are the 3 P's of ethics?

answer

Principle, purpose, people.

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What are the 3 R's of ethics?

answer

Rules, results, and realities.

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What are the 3 D's of ethics?

answer

Discern, declare, and do.

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What is National Security?

answer

National Security is a collective term encompassing both national defense and foreign relations of the United States.

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When was the National Security Act created, and what did it do?

answer

Congress passed the National Security Act in 1947, which created the National Security Council (NSC) under the chairmanship of the President to coordinate foreign policy and defense policy, and to reconcile diplomatic and military commitments and requirements.

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What are 4 instruments of national power?

answer

Diplomatic, Informational, Military, and Economic.

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All functions in the DoD and its component agencies are performed under whose authority?

answer

All functions in the DoD and its component agencies are performed under the authority, direction, and control of the Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

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The SecDef is responsible to the President for doing what?

answer

The SecDef is responsible to the President for creating, supporting, and employing military capabilities.

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What does the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consist of?

answer

The Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consists of the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS); the Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (VCJCS); the Chief of Staff, US Army; the Chief of Naval Operations; the Chief of Staff, US Air Force; and the Commandant of the Marine Corps.

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Who is the principal military advisor to the President, the NSC, and the SecDef?

answer

The Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) is the principal military advisor to the President, the NSC, and the SecDef.

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What is the chain of command used to employ military forces?

answer

The chain of command used to employ forces runs from the President, through the SecDef, down to the combatant commanders (CCDRs). Orders are normally conveyed to the CCDRs by the CJCS under the authority and direction of SecDef.

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How do Combatant Commanders (CCDRs) report up through military channels?

answer

Reports from Combatant Commanders are normally submitted to the SecDef through the CJCS who acts as the spokesman for the CCDRs.

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What is the chain of command used to recruit, organize, train, and equip military forces?

answer

The second chain of command is used to recruit, organize, train, and equip forces and runs from the President through the SecDef to the Secretaries of the Military Departments.

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What is a Combatant Command?

answer

A combatant command is a command with a broad continuing mission under a single commander and composed of significant assigned components of two or more Military Departments.

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How are Combatant Commands established?

answer

Combatant commands are established in the Unified Command Plan (UCP) by the President, through the SecDef and with the advice and assistance of the CJCS.

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What is the UCP?

answer

The Unified Command Plan is a classified document that sets forth basic guidance to all CCDRs; establishes their missions, responsibilities, and force structure; delineates the general geographical area of responsibility for geographic combatant commanders (GCCs); and specifies functional responsibilities for functional combatant commanders (FCCs).

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What is a Subordinate Unified Command?

answer

Subordinate unified commands are established as geographic or functional commands and have functions and responsibilities similar to combatant commands; however, they fall under those commands.

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When is a Joint Task Force (JTF) established?

answer

A Joint Task Force (JTF) is established when the mission has a specific limited objective.

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What is a Service component command?

answer

A Service component command, assigned to a CCDR, consists of a Service component CDR and the Service forces that have been assigned to that CCDR.

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What is the purpose of a Functional Component Command?

answer

CCDRs and CDRs of subordinate unified commands and JFCs have the authority to establish functional component commands to control specific military operations, resources, information flow, etc.

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What is a Combat Support Agency (CSA) and who has executive authority over them?

answer

DoD agencies that provide combat support or combat service support to joint forces are designated as combat support agencies (CSAs) and the SecDef has executive control over them.

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Name 4 examples of Combat Support Agencies.

answer

The Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA), the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA), the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA), and the National Security Agency (NSA).

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How many Combatant Commands are there?

answer

There are currently ten combatant commands: six are geographically organized and four are functionally organized.

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What are the 2 basic assignments of all Geographic Combatant Commands?

answer

Deter attacks against the United States, its territories, possessions and bases, and employ appropriate force should deterrence fail; and carry out assigned missions in support of strategic guidance.

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Describe US Africa Command (USAFRICOM).

answer

US Africa Command (USAFRICOM) is responsible for US military relations with 53 African countries. Through security cooperation programs, the goal is to assist African nations in building their security capacity to enable them to better provide for their own defense.

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Describe US Central Command (USCENTCOM).

answer

US Central Command (USCENTCOM) AOR is the Middle East, Egypt, and Central Asia. USCENTCOM promotes cooperation among nations, responds to crises, deters or defeats aggression, and supports development and, when necessary, reconstruction.

question

Describe US European Command (USEUCOM).

answer

US European Command (USEUCOM) AOR covers almost one-fifth of the planet, including all of Europe, large portions of Asia, parts of the Middle East, and the Arctic and Atlantic Oceans. It is responsible for US military relations with NATO and 51 countries on two continents with a total population of close to a billion people. USEUCOM conducts operation to enhance transatlantic security and defend the United States forward.

question

Describe US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM).

answer

US Northern Command (USNORTHCOM) conducts homeland defense, civil support, and security cooperation to defend and secure the United States and its interests. USNORTHCOM's AOR includes air, land, and sea approaches and encompasses the continental United States, Alaska, Canada, Mexico and the surrounding water out to approximately 500 nautical miles. The command is assigned forces whenever necessary to execute missions. Also responsible for civil support missions, counter-drug operations, and managing the consequences of a terrorist event.

question

Describe US Pacific Command (USPACOM).

answer

The United States Pacific Command (USPACOM) AOR encompasses about half the earth's surface, stretching from the waters off the west coast of the US to the western border of India, and from Antarctica to the North Pole. Enchances stability in the Asia-Pacific region by promoting security cooperation, encouraging peaceful development, responding to contingencies, deterring aggression, and, when necessary, fighting to win.

question

Describe US Southern Command (USSOUTHCOM).

answer

USSOUTHCOM (USSOUTHCOM) is responsible for providing contingency planning, operations, and security cooperation for Central and South America, the Caribbean, and Cuba. SOUTHCOM is also responsible for ensuring the defense of the Panama Canal and canal area.

question

What is NORAD?

answer

The North American Aerospace Defense Command, (NORAD), is a bi-national command responsible for aerospace warning, aerospace control, and maritime warning for Canada, Alaska, and the continental United States.

question

What does the Posse Comitatus Act state?

answer

Per the Posse Comitatus Act, military forces can provide civil support, but cannot become directly involved in law enforcement.

question

What are the 4 Functional Combatant Commands?

answer

USSJFCOM, USSOCOM, USTRANSCOM, and USSTRATCOM.

question

Describe the responsibilities of US Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM).

answer

US Joint Forces Command (USJFCOM) is primarily responsible for providing mission-ready joint-capable forces and supporting the development and integration of joint, interagency, and multinational capabilities. USJFCOM was possibly dismantled in 2011.

question

Describe the responsibilities of US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM).

answer

The US Special Operations Command (USSOCOM) conducts covert and clandestine missions, and each branch has a Special Operations Command that is unique and capable of running its own operations, or all forces can work together under one command.

question

Describe the responsibilities of US Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM).

answer

USTRANSCOM is the single manager of America's global defense transportation system, and is tasked with the coordination of people and transportation assets to allow the US to project and sustain forces, whenever, wherever, and for as long as they are needed.

question

Describe the responsibilities of US Strategic Command (USSTRATCOM).

answer

US Strategic Command(USSTRATCOM) is charged with space operations (such as military satellites), information operations (such as information warfare), missile defense, global command and control, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance, global strike and strategic deterrence, and combating weapons of mass destruction.

question

What is the Services role?

answer

To organize, train, equip, and provide forces.

question

Describe the Department of the Army.

answer

The Army is responsible for the preparation of land forces necessary for the effective prosecution of war and military operations short of war.

question

Describe the Department of the Navy.

answer

The Department of the Navy is composed of naval, land, air, space, and cyberspace forces, both combat and support. The Navy and Marine Corps comprise the Nation's principal maritime force. They employ the global reach, and persistent presence through forward-stationed and rotationally-based forces to secure the Nation from direct attack.

question

Describe the Coast Guard.

answer

The Coast Guard is a unique Military Service residing within the Department of Homeland Security while simultaneously providing direct support to the Department of Defense. The Coast Guard shall maintain a state of readiness to function as a specialized Military Service in the Department of the Navy in time of war or national emergency. If specified in a declaration of war by Congress or if directed by the President, the Coast Guard shall operate as a Military Service in the Department of the Navy, and shall continue to do so until the President transfers the Coast Guard back to the Department of Homeland Security.

question

What does the National Security Council (NSC) do?

answer

Coordinates foreign policy and defense policy, and reconciles diplomatic and military commitment requirements.

question

Most units in the Air Force are assigned to what?

answer

Most units of the Air Force are assigned to a specific major command (MAJCOM), led by a general officer.

question

MAJCOMS are divided up into what?

answer

MAJCOMs may be subdivided into numbered air forces (NAFs).

question

What are Numbered Air Force's divided into?

answer

Each Numbered Air Force (NAF) is responsible for one or more wings or independent groups.

question

What are the primary units of the working Air Force?

answer

Wings are the primary units of the working Air Force and are responsible for maintaining an Air Force base or carrying out a specific mission.

question

Wings typically contain what groups?

answer

Wings typically contain an operations group, a maintenance group, a support group and a medical group.

question

Describe the Air Combat Command (ACC).

answer

Langley AFB, Virginia - Air Combat Command (ACC) organizes, trains, equips, and deploys combat ready forces to support combatant commanders around the globe. The command operates fighter; attack; bomber; intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance; combat search and rescue; battle-management; electronic-combat and unmanned aircraft system platforms.

question

Describe the Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

answer

Randolph AFB, Texas - Air Education and Training Command (AETC) develops America's Airmen. The command recruits Airmen and provides basic military training, initial and advanced technical training, flying training, medical training, space and missile training, cyber training, and professional military and degree-granting professional education.

question

Describe the Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).

answer

Barksdale AFB, Louisiana - Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) is the Air Force's newest command. AFGSC develops and provides combat-ready forces for nuclear deterrence and global strike operations. AFGSC is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping the Air Force's three intercontinental ballistic missile wings, two B-52 Stratofortress wings, and the only B-2 Spirit wing.

question

Describe the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC).

answer

Wright-Patterson AFB, Ohio - Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) delivers technology, acquisition support, sustainment, and expeditionary capabilities. AFMC conducts research, development, and test and evaluation, and provides acquisition management services and logistics support.

question

Describe the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)

answer

Robins AFB, Georgia - Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) provides the Air Force about 20 percent of its capability with only about 4 percent of the total Air Force budget. It conducts fixed-wing aerial spray missions, flies hurricane hunter missions, and is administratively responsible for the Air Force's individual mobilization augmentee program.

question

Describe the Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

answer

Peterson AFB, Colorado - Air Force Space Command (AFSPC) is responsible for organizing, training, and equipping space and cyberspace forces and capabilities. AFSPC oversees Air Force network operations to provide capabilities in, through, and from cyberspace; manages a global network of satellites, and is responsible for space system development and acquisition. It executes spacelift to launch satellites and provides positioning, navigation, timing, communications, missile warning, weather, and intelligence warfare support.

question

Describe the Air Mobility Command (AMC).

answer

Scott AFB, Illinois - Air Mobility Command (AMC) provides airlift and aerial refueling for all of America's armed forces. They also provide aeromedical evacuation and Global Reach Laydown (GRL). Additionally, AMC has many special-duty and operational support aircraft and plays a crucial role in providing humanitarian support at home and around the world.

question

Describe the Pacific Air Force (PACAF).

answer

Joint Base Pearl Harbor-Hickam, Hawaii - Pacific Air Force (PACAF) provides integrated expeditionary Air Force capabilities to defend the homeland, promote stability, and dissuade/deter aggression. PACAF organizes trains, equips, and maintains resources prepared to conduct a broad spectrum of air operations—from humanitarian relief to decisive combat employment in DoD's largest area of responsibility.

question

Describe the US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE).

answer

Ramstein Air Base, Germany - US Air Forces in Europe (USAFE) executes the US European Command mission with forward-based air power to provide forces for global operations, ensure strategic access, assure allies, deter aggression, and build partnerships.

question

Describe Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC).

answer

Hurlburt Field, Florida - Air Force Special Operations Command (AFSOC) is responsible to US Special Operations Command for the readiness of Air Force special operations forces to conduct the war on terrorism and to disrupt, defeat and destroy terrorist networks. Mission areas include shaping and stability operations; battlefield air operations; information operations; intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance; specialized air and space mobility; precision engagement and agile combat support

question

What are the Core Values of the Army?

answer

Loyalty, Duty, Respect, Selfless Service, Honor, Integrity, Personal Courage.

question

What are the Core Values of the Navy/Marines?

answer

Honor, Courage, and Commitment.

question

What are the Core Values of the Coast Guard?

answer

Honor, Respect, Devotion to Duty.

question

What are the Navy/Coast Guard saluting protocols?

answer

For officers O-5 or below, give the greeting of the day to \"Mister Smith\" or \"Miss Smith\". For Commanders or above, the greeting of the day is given to \"Commander Smith\" or \"General Smith\".

question

Where are salutes rendered?

answer

Between 6 and 30 paces, and if you are running, you should stop running, walk during the salute, and then resume.

question

How do you render a salute when overtaking an officer?

answer

When overtaking an officer who is senior to you, tradition dictates that you must render a hand salute and say \"By your leave sir or ma'am.\" The officer who is senior should return your salute and say \"Carry-on.\" You may then drop your salute and proceed.

question

When approaching an officer for a conversation, how is the salute handled?

answer

If officer(s) and enlisted member(s) approach with the intent of conversing, salutes are exchanged before and after the conversation. Forgetting to salute after a conversation is a common mistake.

question

How do you salute a group of approaching officers?

answer

The general rule that applies is that you always salute the senior officer no matter how many other officers are present.

question

If you approach an officer but are in civilian clothes, do you salute?

answer

If you approach someone who is senior to you and you are in civilian attire, do not salute. Instead, say \"Good morning sir or ma'am.\"

question

What are the rules for saluting vehicles?

answer

If you are on a military installation and a vehicle approaches carrying a flag with one or more stars on it, you must stop, face the vehicle, come to the position of attention, and render a hand salute. You may drop your salute once the vehicle passes.

question

How is saluting handled during Reveille or Retreat?

answer

If you are outdoors during Reveille or Retreat, and in uniform, stop what you are doing, face the flag or the direction from which \"To the Colors\" is being sounded, come to the position of parade rest. Upon the first note of the national anthem, come to attention; render a hand salute, hold your salute until the last note of the music; then you may proceed.

question

Do you salute during Reveille or Retreat if you are in civilian clothes?

answer

Face in the direction where Colors are being held and stand at attention (placing the right hand over the heart is optional).

question

When do you salute Colors that are being presented or passing by?

answer

When passing or being passed by Colors that are being presented, paraded, or displayed, salute when the Colors are six paces from you. Hold the salute until the Colors are six paces beyond you.

question

When flying Space-A, who has final say about what happens on the plane?

answer

The Aircraft Commander (pilot) has final authority aboard the aircraft despite the rank of the passengers

question

What is the etiquette for loading vehicles with higher ranking individuals?

answer

When riding in a car with other uniformed service members, the junior ranking enlisted members and officers enter first so the senior officer may enter last. If there are three persons traveling, the junior person will take the middle seat. The place of honor is always to the right, so the senior person will sit on the right. When disembarking the vehicle, the senior person gets out first followed by the next in rank and so on.

question

What is the protocol for walking with members of different ranks?

answer

If you are walking with two or more people (the senior person is always on the right). The junior member is responsible for lining-up on the correct side of the senior member (to the left).

question

What is a good practice when saluting?

answer

Addressing members by their rank i.e. \"Good morning Petty Officer Jones\" or \"Good afternoon 1st Sergeant Smith\" is a show of respect and strengthens the profession of arms.

question

What is JIIM?

answer

Joint Interagency, Intergovernmental, Multinational (JIIM). It is the same term as Joint. When you see Joint, it is also means JIIM and vice versa.

question

What is a full-spectrum of military operations?

answer

A full-spectrum of military operations is a military concept where a joint military structure achieves control over all elements of the battlespace using land, air, maritime, and space-based assets.

question

What is the Physical battlespace?

answer

The physical battlespace includes air, surface, and sub-surface as well as the electromagnetic spectrum and information space.

question

What are the 9 principles of war?

answer

Unity of Command, Objective, Offensive, Mass, Maneuver, Economy of Force, Security, Surprise, and Simplicity.

question

What is Offensive?

answer

This principle is to seize, retain, and exploit the initiative and to do it as soon as possible. Simply stated, it is an action rather than a reaction, and it dictates the time, place, purpose, scope, intensity, and pace of operations.

question

Why is Offensive particularly significant to air and space warfare?

answer

Success in war is generally attained only while on the offensive. Air and space power is best used as an offensive weapon.

question

What is Mass?

answer

The principle of mass concentrates the effects of combat power at a specific time and place that is most advantageous to achieve decisive results.

question

What is Maneuver?

answer

Like the principle of offensive, maneuver forces the enemy to react, allows successful friendly operations, and reduces friendly vulnerabilities. The ability to quickly integrate a force and strike an adversary's strategic or operational centers of gravity is the essence of maneuver.

question

What is Economy of Force?

answer

Economy of force is the careful employment and distribution of forces. Its purpose is to assign the least essential resources to secondary efforts.

question

What is Simplicity?

answer

Simplicity calls for avoiding unnecessary complex organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations. Each part of a plan provides an opportunity for something to go wrong; a plan with many complex interactions stands a much greater chance of failure than one with fewer moving parts.

question

What is Air Force Doctrine?

answer

Air Force Doctrine is a statement of officially sanctioned beliefs, warfare principles, and terminology that describes and guides the proper use of air, space, and cyberspace power in military operations.

question

Is Doctrine authoritative or directive?

answer

Doctrine is authoritative, but not directive.

question

What are the 3 levels of Air and Space Doctrine?

answer

Basic, Operational, and Tactical.

question

Describe Basic Doctrine.

answer

Air Force Doctrine Document 1 or \"AFDD-1\" is the Airman's basic doctrine. It is the foundation of all other doctrines and sets the tone and vision for future doctrine development. Basic doctrine is broad and expresses fundamental guidance.

question

Describe Operational Doctrine.

answer

Operational doctrine is contained in Air Force Doctrine 2- series publications. It describes a more detailed organization of forces. Through operational doctrine, the Air Force achieves the focus for developing missions and tasks that will be executed through tactical doctrine.

question

Describe Tactical Doctrine.

answer

Tactical doctrine considers particular objectives (stopping the advance of an armored column) and conditions (threats, weather, and terrain) and describes how Air Force assets are employed to accomplish the tactical objective. It is codified as tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTP).

question

As an NCO, how should you look at Doctrine?

answer

As an NCO you should look at doctrine as a snapshot in time, a reflection of the thinking at the time of its creation. Doctrine will evolve as new experiences and advances in technology point the way to the operations of the future.

question

What are the 3 parts of today's US strategy?

answer

The National Security Strategy, The National Defense Strategy, and The National Military Strategy.

question

What is the US National Security Strategy?

answer

The National Security Strategy is the policy of the U.S. that seeks and supports democratic movements and institutions in every nation and culture with the ultimate goal of ending tyranny in the world.

question

What are 4 enduring US national interests?

answer

Security, Prosperity, Values, and International Order

question

What is the US National Defense Strategy?

answer

It provides a framework for U.S. Armed Forces to work with and through partner nations to shape opportunities in the international environment to enhance security and prevent conflict.

question

To support the National Security Strategy, what are the 5 key DoD objectives?

answer

Defend the Homeland, Win the Long War, Promote Security, Deter Conflict, and Win the Nation's Wars.

question

What is the US National Military Strategy?

answer

The National Military Strategy is the strategic direction for U.S. Armed Forces, and provides focus for military activities. It defines a set of military objectives for joint operating concepts that the Service Chiefs and combatant commanders use to identify capabilities and risks.

question

What are the 4 military objectives of the National Military Strategy that support the National Security Strategy?

answer

Counter Violent Extremism, Deter and Defeat Aggression, Strengthen International and Regional Security, and Shape the Future Force.

question

According to Joint Publication 3, Joint Operations, what is a crisis?

answer

A crisis is an incident or situation involving a threat to a nation, its territories, citizens, military forces, possessions, or vital interests that creates a condition where the commitment of military forces and resources are contemplated to achieve national objectives.

question

What is the difference between a crisis and war?

answer

Crisis/contingencies are smaller than war and the purpose may be to assist versus fight.

question

What is a Contingency?

answer

Contingency is a situation requiring military operations in response to natural disasters, terrorists, subversives, or as otherwise directed by appropriate authority to protect U.S. interests.

question

Describe Adversarial Crisis Response/Contingency Operations.

answer

In an adversarial crisis response operation, there is an enemy that our energies are being directed toward. During such periods, the general goals of U.S. Military operations are to support national objectives, deter war, and return to a state of peace.

question

Describe Non-Adversarial Crisis Response/Contingency Operations.

answer

Non-adversarial crisis responses or contingency operations (NACR) is a how operational Airmen accomplish missions that are not war, but rather responses to a crisis or contingency. In these situations there is no enemy per se, and your actions may be needed to assist, not necessarily to fight. These types of operations are inherently \"joint\" in nature.

question

What is Homeland Security?

answer

Homeland Security is a concerted national effort to prevent terrorist attacks within the US, reduce America's vulnerability to terrorism, and minimize the damage and recover from attacks that do occur.

question

What is Homeland Defense?

answer

Homeland Defense is the protection of US sovereignty, territory, domestic population, and critical defense infrastructure against threats and aggression.

question

What is Civil Support?

answer

Civil Support is DoD support to US civil authorities for domestic emergencies and for designated law enforcement and other activities.

question

What is Emergency Preparedness?

answer

Emergency Preparedness is those planning activities undertaken to ensure DoD processes, procedures, and resources are in place for designated National Security Emergencies.

question

What are the 9 key operational functions of airpower?

answer

Strategic attacks, Counterair, Counterland, Countersea, Combat support, Airlift, Air refueling, Special operations, and Surveillance and Reconnaissance.

question

What are Strategic Attacks?

answer

Strategic Attacks are offensive actions conducted by command authorities aimed at generating effects that most directly achieve the national security objectives. A strategic attack concept builds on the idea that it is possible to directly affect an adversary's sources of strength and will to fight without first having to engage and defeat their military forces.

question

What are Counterair operations?

answer

Counterair consists of operations to attain and maintain a desired degree of air superiority by the destruction, degradation, or disruption of enemy forces. Counterair's two elements are offensive counterair (OCA) and defensive counterair (DCA).

question

What is Offensive Counterair?

answer

Offensive counterair consists of operations to destroy, degrade, or disrupt enemy air and missile power as close to its source as possible. OCA is often the most effective and efficient method of achieving air superiority.

question

What is Defensive Counterair?

answer

Defensive counterair includes detection, identification, interception, and destruction of attacking enemy air and missiles and normally takes place over or close to friendly territory.

question

What is the main objective of Counterland strategy?

answer

Counterland's main objectives are to dominate the surface environment and prevent the opponent from doing the same.

question

What is Air Interdiction?

answer

Air interdiction is a form of aerial maneuver that destroys, disrupts, diverts, or delays the enemy's surface military.

question

What is Close Air Support?

answer

Close Air Support (CAS) provides direct support to help friendly surface forces. CAS can halt attacks, help create breakthroughs, cover retreats, and guard flanks.

question

What are Countersea activities?

answer

Countersea activities are sea surveillance, anti-ship warfare, protection of sea lines of communications through antisubmarine and anti-air warfare, aerial mine laying, and air refueling.

question

What is Agile Combat Support (ACS)?

answer

Agile Combat Support (ACS) is the use of U.S. Military power at the initiative, speed, and tempo that adversaries cannot match.

question

What are Special Operations?

answer

Special Operations are the use of special airpower operations to conduct unconventional warfare, direct action, special reconnaissance, counterterrorism, foreign internal defense, psychological operations, and counter proliferation.

question

What is the difference between special operations and conventional operations?

answer

The difference between special operations and conventional operations lies in the degree of physical and political risk, degree of overt actions, operational techniques, mode of employment, independence from friendly support, and dependence on detailed operational intelligence and indigenous assets.

question

What are the 3 elements of Space Power?

answer

Space consists of three elements: space, terrestrial, and link.

question

What does the Space element of Space Power consist of?

answer

The space element consists of astrodynamics or the study of the effects gravity has on space. Examples include satellites, space stations, or the space shuttle.

question

What does the Terrestrial-based element of Space Power consist of?

answer

The terrestrial-based element consists of the land, sea, or airborne equipment used to communicate with and control the space element. The terrestrial-based element also includes the personnel required to operate and maintain equipment.

question

What is the Link element of Space Power?

answer

The link element is the communication between the space element and the terrestrial element. Examples of the link element include data link signals.

question

What is Space Control?

answer

Space Control is the means by which space superiority is gained and maintained; assuring friendly forces can use it while denying its use to the enemy.

question

What is Counterspace?

answer

Counterspace is carried out by gaining and maintaining control of activities conducted by land, sea, air, space, information, and/or special operation forces. Counterspace includes offensive and defensive operations.

question

What is Offensive Counterspace?

answer

Offensive Counterspace operations use lethal or nonlethal means to achieve five major purposes: deception, disruption, denial, degradation, and destruction.

question

Describe deception, disruption, denial, degradation, and destruction with regard to Space Control.

answer

Deception is those measures designed to mislead the adversary by manipulation, distortion, or falsification of evidence to induce the adversary to react in a manner prejudicial to their interests. Disruption is the temporary impairment of the unity of space systems, usually without physical damage to the space segments. Denial is the temporary elimination of the utility of the space systems, usually without physical damage. Degradation is the permanent impairment of the utility of space systems, usually with physical damage. Destruction is the permanent elimination of the utility of space systems, usually with physical damage.

question

What is Active Defense?

answer

Active Defense is to detect, track, identify, intercept, and destroy or neutralize enemy space and missile forces.

question

What is Passive Defense?

answer

Passive Defense reduces the vulnerabilities to protect and increase the survivability of friendly space forces and the information they provide.

question

Describe Space Environment Operations.

answer

Knowledge about the space environment helps warfighters avoid operations during times when disturbances in the space environment degrade space-based information; helps communicators choose the best frequencies, antenna angles, and transmission schedules; and allows spacecraft operators advanced notice of effects which may impact satellite and surveillance operations.

question

What are 5 attributes of Space Power?

answer

Global coverage, Flexibility, Economy, Effectiveness, and Robustness.

question

What is IW?

answer

Irregular Warfare.

question

What are some of the asymmetric capabilities used by IW adversaries?

answer

Suicide bombers, improvised explosive devices (IEDs), and the cover of civilian populations.

question

What is Irregular Warfare?

answer

Irregular warfare is warfare in which one or more combatants are irregular military rather than regular forces. It is a violent struggle for legitimacy and influence over the relevant populations. Guerrilla warfare is a form of irregular warfare, and so is asymmetric warfare. Irregular warfare favors indirect and asymmetric warfare approaches, though it may employ the full range of military and other capabilities in order to erode an adversary's power, influence, and will.

question

The Air Force must be prepared to simultaneously conduct what?

answer

Conventional as well as Irregular warfare.

question

What is Culture?

answer

Culture is defined as a shared set of traditions, belief systems, and behaviors.

question

What factors help to shape Culture?

answer

Culture is shaped by many factors including history, religion, politics, resources, and economic environment.

question

What are 12 factors that define Culture?

answer

Family and Kinship, Religion and Spirituality, Sex and Gender, Political and Social Relations, Economics and Resources, Time and Space, Language and Communication, Technology and Material, History and Myth, Sustenance and Health, Aesthetics and Recreation, and Learning and Knowledge.

question

Essentially, what is Culture?

answer

Essentially, culture is the mechanism people use to adapt to the world around them and to interact with others. Culture is also the filter through which people view reality to make sense of events.

question

What is Ethnocentrism?

answer

Ethnocentrism is the belief or assumption that the particular social or cultural group a person belongs to is superior.

question

What is Relativism?

answer

Relativism is the belief that morals depend on a particular situation and truth, and morals change depending on a particular culture or situation. Relativism allows you to temporarily suspend judgment in order to understand things from another's point of view.

question

What is Mirror Imaging?

answer

Mirror imaging is initially drawing conclusions about a culture based on your own cultural frame of reference.

question

What does the term \"joint\" mean?

answer

The term joint involves activities, operations, organizations, etc., in which elements of two or more military departments participate.

question

What is Cultural Diversity?

answer

Cultural diversity is the variety of human societies or cultures in a specific region or in the world as a whole.

question

What is Universalism?

answer

Universalism is understanding, appreciation, tolerance, and protection for the welfare of people and nature.

question

What is Achievement?

answer

Achievement is success through competence according to social standards.

question

Cultural Diversity is an asset for what?

answer

Cultural diversity is an asset that is indispensable for poverty reduction and the achievement of sustainable development.

question

What are World Views?

answer

Worldviews are ways that someone sees and understands world events, especially in relation to their religious or political beliefs and ideas.

question

What is a High Context culture?

answer

High context refers to societies or groups where people have close connections over a long period of time. Most members know what to do and what to think from years of interaction with each other, such as with your immediate family.

question

What is a Low Context culture?

answer

Low context refers to societies where people tend to have many connections but of shorter duration or for some specific reason. In these societies, cultural behavior and beliefs may need to be spelled out explicitly so that those coming into the cultural environment know how to behave.

question

What is the purpose of the Air Force Cross Cultural Competence (3C) Model?

answer

To develop Airmen who can operate effectively in culturally complex environments with no particular skill in a specific culture, region, or language.

question

What are the 4 components of the Air Force Cross Cultural Competence (3C) Model?

answer

Culture general conceptual knowledge, Cross-cultural skills, Positive attitudes, and Application.

question

What is one of the ways that having a positive attitude about cross-cultural competence can be demonstrated?

answer

By using relativism, which is the conviction that the beliefs and practices of others are best understood in light of the particular cultures in which they are found.

question

What are 3 important cross cultural skills?

answer

Communicate, relate, and negotiate.

question

What is is the most essential component of cross-cultural competence?

answer

Motivation, because it requires Airmen to have a set of positive attitudes toward cultural differences.

question

When did the U.S. first research atomic energy?

answer

By early 1942, after suffering a series of military defeats in the Pacific, the United States, prompted by top Washington officials, researched and developed their own atomic energy and the creation of the world's first atomic bomb.

question

What was the Manhattan Project?

answer

As part of the infamous \"Manhattan Project,\" scientific teams were instructed to produce nuclear bombs in time to affect the outcome of World War II.

question

When was the first nuclear device detonated?

answer

On 16 July 1945, Manhattan Project scientists successfully detonated the first nuclear explosive device at the Trinity Site near Alamogordo, New Mexico.

question

When did America drop the first atomic bomb?

answer

On 6 August 1945, the Army Air Corp dropped the first atomic bomb, dubbed Little Boy, on Hiroshima, Japan using a B-29 bomber named the Enola Gay.

question

When did the U.S. drop the second atomic bomb?

answer

When the Japanese failed to respond to President Truman's call for surrender, another B-29 bomber, nicknamed Bockscar, dropped a second bomb, known as Fat Man, on the city of Nagasaki on 9 August 1945,

question

When did the Japanese surrender, ending WW II?

answer

On 14 August 1945, Japan finally surrendered thus ending WWII.

question

What was the Cold War?

answer

\"Cold War\" is a term used to describe the period of political conflict, military tension, and rivalry between the United States and the Soviet Union after WWII. It began with the Berlin Airlift in June 1948.

question

What was the Berlin Airlift?

answer

In 1948, in a joint American and British operation, a massive air campaign known as the \"Berlin Airlift\" began delivering at least 2,000 tons of supplies per day to satisfy the most basic needs of the Berlin people.

question

When did the Soviet Union join the Cold War?

answer

On 29 August 1949, the Soviets conducted their first nuclear test, ending the United States' monopoly of nuclear capabilities. By the late 1950s, the Soviet Union had assembled a nuclear arsenal of their own that could reach US soil, increasing tensions between the two superpowers.

question

Briefly describe the Cuban Missile Crisis.

answer

When the Soviet Union's leader, Premier Nikita Khrushchev, installed medium-range nuclear missiles in Cuba, US President John Kennedy imposed a naval blockade to force their removal. In the end, the Soviet Union backed down on the missiles, and the United States promised not to invade Cuba in the future.

question

What role did the Strategic Air Command play in the Cold War?

answer

In 1946, one year before the Air Force became a separate service, Strategic Air Command (SAC) was created. Its mission was to be the one command to provide guardianship and control of all nuclear-capable bombers and Intercontinental Ballistic Missiles. This command controlled the majority of nuclear assets throughout the Cold War—from 1946 through 1992.

question

When did the Cold War end?

answer

The Cold War lasted over 40 years, ending in 1991 with the fall of the Berlin Wall and without the use of a single nuclear weapon.

question

What is the ACC?

answer

In 1992, SAC and Tactical Air Command (TAC) combined to become Air Combat Command (ACC). The nuclear-capable bombers and fighters were assigned to ACC. The ICBMs were initially assigned to ACC as well but were later transferred to Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

question

Deterrence can be viewed as what?

answer

Deterrence can be viewed as a product of three inter-related factors: a nation's capability multiplied by its will, multiplied by others' perceptions of that capability and will.

question

What are the 4 instruments of National Power?

answer

Diplomatic, Information, Military powers, and Economic (DIME).

question

What is the Nuclear Umbrella, and how many countries does it protect?

answer

Extended deterrence is less about retaliation and more about posturing to convince an enemy that they are unlikely to achieve political and military objectives by attacking the United States or its allies. Currently, 17 countries depend on the United States' nuclear umbrella.

question

What is the NPT?

answer

The Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty. It is a term used to describe the spread of nuclear weapons to nations that are not recognized as \"Nuclear Weapon States\" (NWS) by the NPT. It was open for signature on 1 July 1968.

question

According to the NPT, what is a Nuclear Weapons State?

answer

A Nuclear Weapons State is \"one which has manufactured and exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive device prior to 1 January 1967.\"

question

How many Nuclear Weapons States are there, and what are they?

answer

There are only 5 Nuclear Weapons States. the United States, the United Kingdom, France, Russia, and the People's Republic of China.

question

What are Nuclear Weapons States obligated to do?

answer

NWS are obligated not to transfer nuclear weapons, nuclear devices, or any nuclear weapon technologies to any non-nuclear weapon state.

question

How many recognized sovereign states are not part of the Nuclear Proliferation Treaty, and what are they?

answer

Only four recognized sovereign states are not part of the NPT: India, Israel, Pakistan, and North Korea.

question

What is Nuclear Surety?

answer

Nuclear surety refers to materiel, personnel, and procedures that contribute to the security, safety, and reliability of nuclear weapons and to the assurance that there will be no nuclear weapon accidents, incidents, unauthorized weapon detonations, or degradation in performance at the target.

question

What is the primary purpose of Nuclear Surety?

answer

The primary purpose of the Nuclear Surety Program is to ensure all associated materiel, personnel, and procedures related to nuclear weapons are safe, secure, and that personnel and weapon systems remain reliable.

question

What are the 3 key elements of nuclear surety?

answer

Safety, security, and reliability.

question

What is Safety in Nuclear Surety?

answer

Safety is protecting nuclear weapons against the risks and threats inherent in their environments within the constraints of operational effectiveness, time, and cost throughout all phases of their life cycle.

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What are Positive Measures in Nuclear Surety?

answer

Positive measures are controls such as physical security and coded control systems used collectively or individually to enhance safety and to reduce the likelihood, severity, or consequences of an accident, unauthorized act, or deliberate threat.

question

What is Security in Nuclear Surety?

answer

Security is the total spectrum of procedures, facilities, equipment, and personnel used to provide the protection against loss of custody, theft, or diversion of a nuclear weapon system; the protection against unauthorized access; and the protection against unauthorized actions, vandalism, sabotage, and malicious damage. Security involves active and passive protective measures.

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What are the 2 types of Reliability in Nuclear Surety?

answer

Reliability has two key components: nuclear weapons system reliability and individual reliability.

question

What are the 2 parts of Individual Reliability in Nuclear Surety?

answer

The Personnel Reliability Program (PRP), and the 2-person concept.

question

What 3 personal responsibilities to all Airman in the PRP have?

answer

They must reconcile all legal issues, manage a sound financial plan, and maintain required security clearances.

question

What is Process Discipline?

answer

Process discipline requires following standard operating procedures to accomplish routine missions.

question

What AFI covers Nuclear Weapons-Related Materiel Management?

answer

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 20-110, Nuclear Weapons-Related Materiel Management.

question

Why are India and Pakistan considered present-day nuclear threats?

answer

There have been generations of outstanding India-Pakistan disputes of conflict and confrontation, and even after the UN Security Council resolution 6 June 1998, both India and then Pakistan adopted nuclear testing.

question

What are the Air Force's Nuclear Weapons Systems?

answer

US Air Force nuclear weapons systems include ICBM and nuclear-capable bombers. The ICBMs are Minuteman III, and the nuclear capable strategic bombers are the B-52 and B-2 aircraft. Additionally, there are dual capable aircraft: the F-15E and F-16.

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How does the Air Force define Nuclear Weapons-Related Material?

answer

The US Air Force defines NWRM as: \"Select nuclear combat delivery system components control equipment that are designated sensitive; needed to authorize, pre-arm, arm, launch, release or target a nuclear weapon; or needed to maintain and protect system integrity.\"

question

What are WSA's?

answer

Weapons Storage Areass are heavily secured areas inside the perimeter of a base where nuclear weapons are stored and maintained in weapon (igloo) bunkers. The US Air Force has six above ground and one underground WSA.

question

Name 7 Nuclear Weapons-Related Materials.

answer

Certain Circuit Card Assemblies, Nuclear Training Bombs, Printed Wiring Boards, Power Supplies, Cable Assemblies, Nuclear Training Warheads, and Fuse Assemblies.

question

Name 6 examples of Nuclear Mission Areas.

answer

Weapons Storage Areas (WSAs), Flight lines with nuclear bombers and Missile Alert Facilities, Weapons Storage Security System (WS3), Convoys, Underground Facilities (Launch Control Centers (LCC) and Missile Silos), and Prime Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF).

question

What is a MAF?

answer

A Missile Alert Facility (MAF) that is above ground and houses security teams and other support functions for the missile crew.

question

What is an LCC?

answer

The missile launch crew resides in the Launch Control Center. The two-person crew has the ability to execute the launch of missiles from this location.

question

What is a WS3?

answer

WS3 is a system including electronic controls and vaults built into the floors of Protective Aircraft Shelters (PAS). It consists of a Weapons Storage Vault, and monitoring and control systems. The vault can hold up to four nuclear weapons, and in the lowered position, provides ballistic protection through its hardened lid and reinforced walls. The WS3 system allows storage directly underneath the aircraft intended to carry the bombs to reduce the need for convoys and to eliminate exposure.

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What is a PNAF?

answer

Prime Nuclear Airlift Force (PNAF) is any aircrew, aircraft, flight line, or other function that provides peacetime support of logistical airlift for nuclear weapons. In other words, a PNAF is an airlift mission that moves nuclear weapons from one location to another.

question

What is the AFGSC?

answer

In 2009, Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC) was created to ensure oversight of the nuclear-capable bombers and ICBMs.

question

What organizations make up the Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC)?

answer

Global Strike Command encompasses two numbered Air Forces: 8th Air Force is responsible for all nuclear-capable bombers and 20th Air Force is responsible for all ICBMs.

question

What 3 things make up the present day Nuclear Triad?

answer

The new triad consists of strategic offensive and defensive capabilities that include nuclear and non-nuclear strike capabilities; active and passive defenses; and a robust research, development, and industrial infrastructure to develop, build, and maintain offensive forces and defensive systems.

question

How is a nuclear execution order issued?

answer

The President will issue the execution order through the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) to the combatant commander and, ultimately, to the forces in the field exercising direct control over the weapons.

question

One of the difficulties in enforcing the NPT involves the use of what?

answer

Nuclear energy as a source of electrical power.

question

Concerns regarding the development of nuclear energy by Non-Nuclear Weapons States (NNWS) come from what?

answer

The first two steps of the nuclear fuel cycle.

question

What substance is created in the early stages of the nuclear fuel cycle can be used to make weapons?

answer

Highly-Enriched Uranium (HEU) resulting from the uranium enhancement process that occurs in the early stages of the nuclear fuel cycle. HEU is classified as weapons-grade and is commonly used for bombs and warheads. HEU is not required to generate energy. Low-Enriched Uranium (LEU) can be used to generate energy and cannot be used in nuclear weapons.

question

What substance is created in the later stages of the nuclear fuel cycle that can be used to make weapons?

answer

In the later stages of the nuclear fuel cycle, a small amount of the input fuel decays into plutonium as a natural product of the nuclear reaction. If the plutonium was skimmed off, it could be accumulated to build an implosive or violent bomb.

question

What are 2 ways the NPT can be enforced during the creation of nuclear power?

answer

Selling fabricated fuel assemblies (nuclear fuel rods) to NNWS desiring nuclear power, thus removing the uranium enrichment process from the fuel cycle. Develop nuclear reactors that are \"proliferation proof.\" This basically means that in order to recover the plutonium at the end of the fuel cycle, the reactor must be shut down; this would be visible and allow NPT enforcement.

question

Why is Iran considered a present-day threat?

answer

In addition to its illicit nuclear program, it continues to support terrorism, undermine peace between Israelis and Palestinians, and deny its people their rights.

question

What Air Force Doctrine covers Nuclear Operations?

answer

Air Force Doctrine Document 3-72, Nuclear Operations.

question

Why is North Korea considered a present-day threat?

answer

North Korea has continued to defy the international community with more nuclear device and missile tests. The possibility of a regional arms race increases as North Korean defiance continues to unsettle regional stability. As Japan and South Korea still consider developing their own nuclear deterrent and missile defense systems, China will naturally regard itself as the real target.

question

What AFI covers the Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program?

answer

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91-101, Air Force Nuclear Weapons Surety Program.

question

According to Dwight D. Eisenhower, what is Leadership?

answer

\"Leadership is the art of getting someone else to do something you want done because he wants to do it.\"

question

Name 8 things Unit Managers do.

answer

They are committed to the profession of arms, apply management concepts in all situations, provide ethical guidance, manage human and physical resources, adhere to core values, understand human behavior, mold their Airmen into a cohesive team, and oversee numerous programs.

question

What is the difference between a group and a team?

answer

A group is an assemblage of persons (or objects) located or gathered together. A team is a group organized to work together.

question

What are 6 words that could describe teams?

answer

Unified, cohesive, collaborative, solidarity, joint, and coalition.

question

In order to work together, a group must first be what?

answer

Organized.

question

Teams adopt and work towards what?

answer

A common objective.

question

Members of a team appreciate that their own (individual) success is determined by what?

answer

The collective performance of everyone on the team.

question

What 5 things can indicate team spirit?

answer

Increased productivity, High morale during high ops tempo, Willingness to help fellow teammates, Strong identity/camaraderie, Little to no negative conflict, and Differences resolved through compromise or collaboration.

question

Regarding teams, what does AFI 36-2618 say that NCO's must do?

answer

The Enlisted Force Structure states that NCOs must \"Lead and develop subordinates and exercise effective followership in mission accomplishment.They must \"lead and manage teams while maintaining the highest level of readiness to ensure mission success.\"

question

What is the Air Force Mission?

answer

\"Fly, fight and win...in air, space, and cyberspace.\"

question

What is a Mission?

answer

Mission is the task, together with the purpose, that clearly indicates the action to be taken and the reason therefore... duty assigned to an individual or unit; a task.

question

What is a Mission Statement?

answer

One method used to assist in guiding personnel

question

What are the 4 roles that are typically found on teams?

answer

CARE - Creator, Advancer, Refiner, and Executor.

question

Describe the Creator role on a team.

answer

Creators focus on the possibilities. They generate new ideas and fresh concepts. They prefer to live in a world of possibilities. Creators look for activities that are unstructured or abstract, and they thrive on innovation and unique solutions. Creators are good at reframing a problem and looking for outside the box solutions.

question

What are 5 things that describe Creators?

answer

Spontaneous, enthusiastic, optimistic, able to see the \"big picture\", and willing to solve problems.

question

Describe the Advancer role on a team.

answer

Advancers focus on the interaction. They communicate new ideas and carry them forward. Advancers manage the human component of any solution and enjoy whipping up enthusiasm for a project. Advancers recognize ideas and new directions in their early stages and develop ways to promote them. Advancers use insightful planning based on past experiences and successful methods to \"advance\" ideas towards implementation.

question

What are 5 things that describe Advancers?

answer

Positive, self-confident, energetic support of team goals, persistent, and not easily discouraged.

question

Describe the Refiner role on a team.

answer

Refiners focus on the analysis, and challenge all concepts. Refiners use a methodical process to analyze things to detect possible flaws and identify potential problems. Refiners are good at reviewing and modifying ideas, or coming up with new ideas to ensure successful implementation. Refiners use logic and a systematic approach to redesign a solution.

question

What are 5 things that describe Refiners?

answer

Analytical, detail-oriented, able to identify and clarify problems, experts in specifics, and act as practical \"sounding boards\" to validate ideas.

question

Describe the Executor role on a team.

answer

Executors focus on the realization. They follow up on team objectives and implement ideas and solutions. Executors deliver results. The Executor focuses on ensuring the implementation process proceeds in an orderly manner, based on a well-thought-out plan, and strives for achieving high-quality results. Executors enjoy the task and responsibility of final implementation, and pride themselves on their ability.

question

What are 5 things that describe Executors?

answer

Assertive, independent, keepers of high standards, meticulous in following directions, and willing to implement ideas.

question

What is one role that MAY be present on teams?

answer

Flexers can focus on everything. They are a combination of the other four roles, and have an equal preference for most or all of the roles.

question

What are 4 things that describe Flexers.

answer

Able to connect and negotiate with all types of people, tolerant and understand different members of the team, able to identify what is missing in the process, and willing to offer suggestions to improve the process.

question

What happens where there are no Creators? Advancers? Refiners? Executors? Flexers?

answer

No Creators, no new concepts. No advancers, ideas stall or don't come to light. No refiners, ideas are not thought through properly. No Executors, no implementation. No Flexers, there are gaps in the team.

question

Should team leadership be given to someone because of their unique role on the team?

answer

No, even if their role keeps them in the forefront, that does not make them the leader.

question

Define and describe the P.E.P. cycle.

answer

The P.E.P Cycle is a Panic-Elation-Panic cycle. Panic happens when a new idea is needed, Elation happens when a good idea is thought of, and Panic again happens when it looks like the idea might not work out.

question

What is the \"Z\" Process?

answer

Ideas often bounce back and forth among the Creators, Advancers, and Refiners in what's called the \"Z\" Process.

question

What is the definition of Team Dynamics?

answer

Team Dynamics is an ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to move toward or away from achieving the desired objective.

question

What are the 5 C's of a team?

answer

Community, Cooperation, Coordination, Communication, and Coaching.

question

What are the 5 common dysfunctions of a team?

answer

Absence of trust, Fear of conflict, Lack of commitment, Avoidance of accountability, and Inattention to results.

question

What are the 5 stages of team progression?

answer

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, and Adjourning.

question

Describe the Forming stage of team progression.

answer

When teams begin forming, members will cautiously explore the boundaries of acceptable group behavior. This stage transitions people from individual to member status. Establishing (Forming) a team usually appears unstructured and quite chaotic. During this stage, everyone is polite and on their best behavior as group members become acquainted with one other. Conflict usually does not occur during the Forming stage.

question

Describe the Storming stage of team progression.

answer

Storming is considered the most difficult stage for a team. Members acknowledge what the intent or goal is, and also when members realize the difficulty of the task. Members begin to argue and debate about what the team should do next. Some team members may attempt to convince others to \"side\" with them. Conflict escalates, and team leads are encouraged to clearly define the team's goals and objectives.

question

Describe the Norming stage of team progression.

answer

Members reconcile disputes, \"agree to disagree,\" and abandon negative and unproductive energy. They accept the team, and emotional conflict is held to a minimum. Previously competitive relationships become more cooperative, and team members now have more time to work the task at hand. Productivity is high in the Norming stage.

question

Describe the Performing stage of team progression.

answer

There is heightened morale and loyalty to the team, and members work together to diagnose problems. Creativity is high as members are willing to share ideas without fear of negative criticism and reprisal. Productivity remains high as the team makes steady progress.

question

Describe the Adjourning and Transforming stage of team progression.

answer

Adjourning teams break apart once the task has been accomplished, while Transforming teams just move on to the next objective.

question

What are 4 possible causes of team regression?

answer

A new team member, a new goal, change in the team schedule, and unresolved conflict.

question

What 4 things should be considered when creating a team performance assessment?

answer

T.E.A.M. - Talents, Expertise, Assessments, and Means.

question

What are the 3 basic components of leadership?

answer

A leader, follower(s) and a situation.

question

What is Followership?

answer

Followership is one in the service of another; one that follows the opinions or teachings of another; one that imitates another. Proper followership is proactive without diminishing the authority of leadership.

question

What are two very important components of followership?

answer

The ability to provide feedback and give advice to leaders.

question

What are the 5 Essential Qualities of Effective Followership?

answer

Self-management, Committed, Competent, Integrity, and Initiative.

question

Describe effective feedback?

answer

Effective feedback is consistent, objective, and sensitive to the stated purpose. Feedback can be positive or negative, and good followers speak up even when they disagree with their leaders.

question

What is the difference between feedback and advice?

answer

Feedback is in regard to a decision or course of action that has already happened. Advice is given about a decision that is still being made.

question

How can you increase your chances of success as a Follower?

answer

Control your emotions, Offer solutions to problems, Recognize the importance of timing, and Use the chain of command.

question

What are the 5 areas essential for personal and professional leadership development?

answer

Self-awareness, values and principles, motivations, support team, and integrated life.

question

What 3 concepts can you use to ensure mission accomplishment and to develop and inspire others within the unit?

answer

Diagnose, Adapt, and Communicate (DAC).

question

What is more important, the needs of the unit, or the needs of the Airmen?

answer

The needs of the unit and the Air Force will always take precedence over the needs of the Airmen. This is not to imply that we shouldn't take care of our Airmen, but rather that we should push them fill roles/responsibilities in the unit, even if it isn't their personal preference.

question

As a leader assessing a unit, what should you be diagnosing?

answer

Is the organization healthy? Does it have an ethical climate? Are the right people with the right knowledge, skills, and abilities filling positions? Also, you should assess your followers to determine developmental needs and match those needs to needs of the unit.

question

When diagnosing a unit, what 2 things should be looked at?

answer

The status of the people and the status of the environment/situation.

question

What are 4 things you can look at when diagnosing a unit?

answer

Moral, Esprit de Corps, Discipline, and Proficiency.

question

Name 4 leadership styles that a Unit Manager may use as their \"default\" style.

answer

Authoritarian, Country Club, Impoverished, and Team.

question

Describe an Authoritarian Leader.

answer

High-task, low-relationship leaders who are very hard on their subordinates. They do not allow for much collaboration or cooperation, and expect people to do what they're told without debate. They are intolerant of dissent, make it difficult for subordinates to contribute, and focus on who is to blame when something goes wrong.

question

When is Authoritarian leadership used?

answer

In an emergency situation, or when needing to accomplish a very critical and time sensitive task.

question

Describe a Country Club leader.

answer

Low-task, high-relationship leaders who rely upon reward power to maintain discipline and to encourage goal accomplishment. Almost incapable of employing coercive and legitimate powers because they fear jeopardizing relationships with the team members.

question

When is Country Club leadership used?

answer

In a highly efficient and disciplined work center that isn't rewarded properly or motivated by rewards.

question

Describe an Impoverished leader.

answer

Low-task, low-relationship leadership that relies upon a \"delegate and disappear\" management style. No commitment to task accomplishment or maintenance, and allows teams to do whatever they wish. Prefers to be detached from the team process by allowing it to suffer from a series of power struggles.

question

When is Impoverished leadership used?

answer

In a self-sufficient work center where the people are very independent and don't require a lot of supervision.

question

Describe a Team leader.

answer

High-task, high-relationship leadership that leads by a positive example. Fosters a team environment for everyone to reach their highest potential and encourages the team to reach team goals. Works to strengthen the bonds of the team.

question

When is Team leadership used?

answer

In a team where there are a mixture of different situations and different people with different skills and abilities.

question

What is Approach?

answer

Approach is the method(s) or procedure(s) necessary to move the organization in the right direction based on your diagnosis.

question

What are 5 factors to consider when diagnosing the developmental needs of Airmen?

answer

Their aspirations, their personality, their self-concept, self-efficacy, and their attitudes and values.

question

What is Self-efficacy?

answer

Self-efficacy is how much confidence someone has in performing a particular task.

question

What is a Deliberate Development Plan?

answer

To carefully think about and discuss strengths, areas of improvement, current and future roles, and responsibilities with followers for the purpose of creating a detailed plan (or expanding an existing one) that intentionally and methodically develops personal and professional growth over time.

question

If an Airman needs a specific trait or skill, what should you do?

answer

Put that Airman in a situation where he/she will be forced to hone that trait or skill, and encourage the Airman along the way.

question

What should Deliberate Development Plans include?

answer

Deliberate development plans should include things that will help Airmen fill current and future job/roles and responsibilities and that help Airmen in gaining desired skills.

question

A leader's ability to influence others is only as strong as what?

answer

Other people's perception of his or her power.

question

What is Position power?

answer

Position power provides you with the authority to make decisions and requests based on your position within the organization.

question

What are the 4 types of Position power?

answer

Coercive, connection, reward and legitimate.

question

What is Coercive power?

answer

Coercive power deals with the leader's perceived ability to provide sanctions, punishment, or consequences for not performing.

question

What is Connection power?

answer

Connection power comes from the perception of your association with people of influence inside or outside of the organization. This power source falls under the \"who you know\" category.

question

What is Reward power, and what is one drawback to using it?

answer

Rewards can range from pats on the back or days off, to formal recognition within the organization. The problem with power derived from rewards is that rewards will often run their course.

question

What is Legitimate power?

answer

Legitimate power comes from your title, role, or position within the organization itself. This type of power provides you with the authority to make decisions and requests based on your position within the organization. Because legitimate power comes from a leader's title, role, or position within the organization, it does not increase or decrease based on use.

question

What is Personal power?

answer

Personal Power is the extent to which followers respect, feel good about, are committed to their leader; and see their own goals being satisfied by the goals of their leader.

question

What are the 3 forms of Personal power?

answer

Referent power, information power, and expert power.

question

What is Referent power?

answer

Referent power is based largely on a leader's personal traits. Leaders seen as likeable, or charismatic, or who inspire trust and confidence can often evoke referent power.

question

What is Information power?

answer

Information power is based on a leader's access to data and information that is important to others. This power is based on a leader having information that others want or need to know.

question

What is Expert power?

answer

Expert power suggests that leaders gain power and the ability to influence through their education, experience, and job knowledge. By knowing your job inside and out, you gain the trust of your followers and work effectively from expert power.

question

List the 5 Motivational Theories.

answer

ABC's of Behavior, X & Y Theory, Hierarchy of Needs, Expectation Theory, and Motivational Profile Theory.

question

Describe the ABC's of Behavior theory.

answer

ABC's\" of behavior stands for antecedents (prior events), behavior (observable behavior), and consequences (rewards or punishments resulting from prior events). A person will tend to change their behavior based on consequences, resulting from prior behavior.

question

Describe the X & Y theory.

answer

The Theory X manager assumes that most people prefer to be directed, and are not interested in assuming responsibility. Theory Y managers assumes that people are not lazy by nature and can be self-directed and creative if properly motivated.

question

Describe the Hierarchy of Needs theory.

answer

An individual's most basic needs must be filled before that individual can move on to higher needs or ambitions.

question

Describe the Expectation Theory.

answer

A person expects certain things when they work, such as money, training, safety and supervision. If people do not get these expected items, they will become dissatisfied and their motivation will drop.

question

Describe the Motivational Profile theory.

answer

People are motivated by achievement, power, or affiliation.

question

What is the Contemporary Motivation model?

answer

People can be in one of three levels of commitment to an organization. The three levels are membership (the lowest end), performance level (mid-level), and the involvement level (highest level) of commitment.

question

In the Contemporary Motivation model, what external motivators motivate someone at the Membership level?

answer

Pay, medical benefits, leave, basic benefits - things people get just for being there.

question

In the Contemporary Motivation model, what external motivators motivate someone at the Performance level?

answer

Rewards, recognition, time off, advanced positions - things given to them that they have earned by performing.

question

In the Contemporary Motivation model, what internal motivators motivate someone at the Involvement level?

answer

Satisfaction, self-worth, gratification - things a person receives via their efforts, but that are not given to them by others.

question

Can supervisors move people to the Involvement level of motivation?

answer

No, supervisors cannot motivate followers to move to the involvement level; operating at this level can only come from internal motivation.

question

What is Resource Stewardship?

answer

The efficient and effective use of assigned personnel, material, information and technology, energy, warfare and financial resources to ensure mission success.

question

In what 6 areas are NCO's responsible for maintaining Resource Stewardship?

answer

Personnel, financial, material, warfare, information and technology, and energy.

question

What is Appropriation?

answer

Appropriation is a term that means setting aside money for a specific purpose.

question

What are O & M Funds?

answer

Operations and Maintenance.

question

What are Antideficiency Action Violations?

answer

An act that results in exceeding limitations (misuse) of funds authorized and appropriated by Congress in support of contract obligations.

question

What is a Budget Allocation?

answer

Funding document that represents cash for commitment or obligation that is issued by the Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Air Force for Budget (SAF/FMB) to a major command or field operating agency.

question

What is a Budget Allotment?

answer

Similar to a budget allocation except that it is issued by major commands or field operating agencies to subordinate units.

question

What is Continuing Resolution Authority?

answer

Fiscal law authority that allows the government to continue operations at a minimum level for a specific amount of time, usually a few days to a few weeks. During CRA, units typically receive funding authority for approximately 80% of the previous year's budget amount to prevent agencies from shutting down.

question

What is a Cost Center?

answer

The organization that gathers and distributes cost data. The cost center refers to the basic production flight or work center.

question

What does the Financial Management Board (FMB) do?

answer

The FMB distributes the annual funding, establishes priorities, and ensures consistency with programs and missions. FMB approval represents the final, approved installation or command budget submitted to higher command and the final distribution of funds received from higher command.

question

What does the Financial Working Group (FWG) do?

answer

Reviews program and cost factors, compares actual with prior year costs, reviews justifications, periodically evaluates performance against estimates, and submits a recommended financial plan to the FMB.

question

What is the Program Objective Memorandum?

answer

Biennial memorandum submitted to the Secretary of Defense from each Military Department and Defense agency. It proposes total program requirements for the next six years.

question

Who is the Responsibility Center Manager?

answer

The RCM normally heads an organization that plans, organizes, directs, and coordinates activities of subordinate organizations and functions. RCMs are the principal level that manages financial resources.

question

Who is the Resource Advisor?

answer

The budget representative for an organization. The RA participates in resource management, including the planning, programming, budgeting, acquiring, consuming, storing, and disposing of resources. The RA is directly responsible to the RCM.

question

Describe the Budget Execution Review process.

answer

The first part of the BER process requires every level of command to identify and prioritize its unfunded requirements and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (rack and stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements. This allows all levels of command to move funds around to cover funding shortfalls deemed top priority.

question

How often does the Budget Execution Review process happen?

answer

The Budget Execution Review (BER) is a two-part process that occurs twice within each budget cycle.

question

What is the Financial Execution Plan (FEP)?

answer

An Air Force product used to balance available funding while delivering goods and services to customers within the Operations and Maintenance (O&M) appropriation. In simpler terms, it ensures funds provided in the President's Budget (PB) are distributed in a manner to ensure Air Force objectives can be accomplished.

question

What 4 sections should be included in a Financial Execution Plan?

answer

1. Mission-Critical Requirements, including the element of expense investment code (EEIC) associated with each requirement. 2. Justification, a short narrative justifying each requirement. 3. Unfunded Requirements: Another list identifying mission-essential requirements that exceed projected funding. 4. Spend Plan: Illustrates how projected funds will be spent over a 12-month fiscal year period.

question

What is Fallout Money?

answer

Unobligated and unspent funds discovered between mid-Aug and 30 Sep. Fallout money is typically used to purchase items that may or may not be in direct support of the mission and are usually nice to have (e.g. furniture, carpet, etc).

question

What AFI covers Financial Management?

answer

AFI 65-601, which includes an Air Force directive to report excess funds to the wing.

question

What is the Antideficiency Act (ADA)?

answer

A law where Congress exercises its constitutional control over the public purse. The act is a law that prohibits agencies from involving the government in a contract or obligation for the payment of money before an appropriation is made unless authorized by law.

question

What are the 4 Air Force manpower competencies?

answer

Organization Structure, Program Allocation and Control, Requirements Determination, and Performance Management.

question

What is an Authorization Change Request (ACR)?

answer

A multi-purpose instrument used to propose adjustments to a UMD. ACRs are commonly used to request increases, decreases, or realignments of manpower requirements and/or to change attributes on the UMD.

question

What is the Productivity Enhancement Capital Investment (PECI) program?

answer

This program provides expedient funding for capital acquisition projects, productivity improvement projects, and investment opportunities that provide measurable benefits, real savings, and produce a return on investment (ROI) for the Air Force within a 2 to 4 year period.

question

Describe the PECI category of Fast Payback Capital Investment (FASCAP).

answer

The project costs under $250,000, program payback within 2 years, and approved at MAJCOM level.

question

Describe the PECI category of Productivity Investment Fund (PIF).

answer

The project costs over $250,000, program payback within 4 years, and approved at Air Staff level.

question

What is the IDEA program?

answer

The Innovative Development Through Employee Awareness (IDEA) program promotes process improvement and resource conservation through a participative approach where ideas are submitted by military and civilian employees. Monetary awards are paid upon validation of tangible savings and/or intangible benefits.

question

Air Force resources should be used in what way?

answer

Appropriate use requires using resources as available and as directed.

question

What are Standards?

answer

Standards are morals, ethics, or habits established by an authority, custom, or an individual as acceptable behavior.

question

At the unit level, what 2 things does discipline do?

answer

Unit discipline allows units to operate faster than the enemy, gaining advantage, generating decisive force, and achieving decisive results. It also enables unit leadership to stop undesirable behavior quickly and to maintain or increase the unit's mission effectiveness.

question

What is the definition of Discipline?

answer

Training expected to produce a specific character or pattern of behavior, especially training that produces moral or mental improvement. It is a state of training, resulting in orderly conduct.

question

Is discipline meant to be negative?

answer

Discipline is not meant to be negative; instead, it is designed to train and guide an individual toward improving performance or behavior.

question

What is Military Discipline?

answer

Founded upon respect for and loyalty to properly constituted authority; it is that mental attitude and state of training which renders obedience instinctive under all conditions.

question

What is Imposed Discipline?

answer

Imposed discipline refers to the enforced obedience to legal orders and regulations. It is essential in combat or in emergencies when there is no time to explain or discuss an order.

question

What is Task Discipline?

answer

Task discipline requires a strong sense of responsibility in performing your job to the best of your abilities, volunteering for the tough jobs, and working overtime, if necessary, to accomplish your mission as it relates to the Air Force mission.

question

What is Group Discipline?

answer

Just as you must have a sense of responsibility to your job, you should also have a sense of group responsibility and effective team membership. You must \"pull your own weight,\" and at times you may have to deny some personal preferences for the good of your group,

question

What is Unit Discipline?

answer

A state of order and obedience existing within a unit that involves the ready subordination of an individual's will for the good of the unit; it demands habitual but reasoned obedience that preserves initiative and functions even in the absence of the commander.

question

What is the purpose of Adverse Administrative and Punitive Actions?

answer

These are quality force management tools available to supervisors, superiors, and commanders. These management tools help instruct, correct, and improve those who depart from standards of performance, conduct, bearing, integrity, and whose actions degrade the individual and unit's mission. Administrative tools are corrective in nature, not punitive.

question

What are the 3 arenas of the Discipline Model?

answer

Prevention, Correction, and Punishment and are intended to build upon one another. If taken seriously, each preceding Arena can serve to preclude the following Arena.

question

Of the the 3 arenas of the Discipline Model, which is the first and most important?

answer

Prevention is the first and most important. The goal of Prevention is to \"Prevent\" or stop problems before they occur.

question

What are the 3 actions of Prevention in a work center?

answer

Prevention is all about setting clear standards, establishing rapport, and establishing a climate of accountability.

question

What are the 3 specified times the Air Force requires supervisors to provide formal, written feedback to all subordinates?

answer

Within 60 days of assuming supervision, mid-way through the rating period, and within 60 days of the close out of a performance report.

question

When is the only time Prevention is effective?

answer

Prevention is only effective when subordinates are convinced that you are observing them and you are willing to correct and reward their behavior.

question

What is the purpose behind Corrective Actions?

answer

Correction is the second Arena of the Discipline Model and is designed to address inappropriate behavior, and to bring subordinates' behavior back within acceptable boundaries using the least amount of force necessary.

question

Name 8 Administrative tools that can be used to maintain discipline.

answer

1) Feedback (formal and informal) 2) Verbal and written counseling 3) Recommendation to the commander to establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) 4) Recommendation to commander to place a member on the control rosters 5) Administrative demotions (used when one cannot achieve grade appropriate skill level, not fulfilling AFI 36-2618 responsibilities, not being fit) 6) Non-recommendation for reenlistment 7) Referral performance reports 8) Recommendation for administrative discharge/separation

question

Are Administrative tools corrective or punitive?

answer

Administrative tools are corrective in nature, not punitive. This is where you cross the line from correction to punishment, the \"Commanders Only\" zone.

question

Describe Punishment.

answer

Punishment is the third Arena in the Discipline Model. Its purpose is to correct and rehabilitate those who repeatedly or grievously violate standards. Only officers on G-series orders can punish enlisted members and only through Article 15 or courts-martial process.

question

Name 4 things that are commonly thought of as punishments, but are actually Adverse Administrative Actions.

answer

LOCs, LOAs, LORs, and UIFs. These are administrative actions only and NCOs should NEVER refer to them as punishment.

question

Name 8 things that can be the result of Command-level punishment on an individual.

answer

Articles 15's, courts-martial, administrative demotions, less than honorable and dishonorable discharges, extra duties, loss of money, loss of freedom, and reduction in rank.

question

Should punishment recommendations come from a Commander?

answer

No. NCOs should never tell commanders to take whatever action they deem appropriate. NCOs are duty-bound to know subordinates well enough to be able to provide commanders and advise them of the information they need to make fair and equitable punishment decisions.

question

When discussing discipline, what is an LOA?

answer

Line of Acceptability (LOA). Use this LOA when measuring compliance with standards. This \"line\" does not move.

question

What are the 3 parts of the Progressive Discipline Process (PDP)?

answer

Establish standards, Monitor, and apply the PDP.

question

What are the 2 parts of applying the Progressive Discipline Process?

answer

Determine the infraction's distance from the Line of Acceptability, and use the discipline tool with the least force necessary to address the infraction.

question

What is the official Air Force policy for Commanders and supervisors to follow when correcting behavior?

answer

Use the least amount of action necessary to correct behavior and then progress from there.

question

What AFI covers an Unfavorable Information File?

answer

AFI 36-2907.

question

When is 2-way communication appropriate for verbal or written counseling?

answer

Two-way communication is both appropriate and very effective at helping subordinates understand the reasons for and importance of meeting all standards.

question

When is 1-way communication appropriate for verbal or written counseling?

answer

When correcting recurring unacceptable behavior and stopping/correcting violations. One-way communication can be in verbal or written form and typically used to admonish or reprimand.

question

Written administrative actions, counseling, admonition, and reprimand are subject to what?

answer

The rules of access, protection, and disclosure outlined in the Privacy Act of 1974.

question

Counseling can sometimes be used in addition to what?

answer

Consider counseling when an individual receives harsher treatment for misconduct (e.g., Article 15). A supervisor can effectively use formal or informal counseling to inform the person of the reason for the punishment and expected behavior in the future.

question

What are the 3 forms of counseling?

answer

Informal, formal, and referral.

question

When is Informal Counseling a good tool to use?

answer

With minor mis-conduct and first-time offenses.

question

When using Verbal Counseling, what should you do afterward?

answer

It is a good idea to document verbal counseling sessions with a \"Memo for Record (MFR)\" that provides a brief description of matters discussed, then sign and place in the member's Personnel Information File (PIF).

question

What is a good rule of thumb about when to use MFR's?

answer

A good rule of thumb is to write an MFR anytime you have to correct the same subordinate for the same infraction more than once.

question

What 2 important functions do MFR's serve?

answer

As memory joggers to see what actions have been taken in the past, and as a paper trail if further administrative, punitive, or separation actions are needed.

question

When writing an MFR for a verbal counseling, what should it begin with?

answer

\"I verbally counseled...,\" \"I verbally admonished...\" or I verbally reprimanded...\".

question

What is an AF Form 174?

answer

Record of Individual Counseling (RIC).

question

Does an Airman who was counseled have to see and sign an MFR?

answer

No, there is no requirement for the counselee to sign or even see the MFR; however, you should always sign and date it.

question

After verbal counseling, in what order should the next Adverse Administrative Actions take?

answer

Letters of counseling, admonishment, and reprimand, in that order.

question

What document would you use to fill out a Record of Individual Counseling (RIC).

answer

The RIC, AF Form 174, should be filled out IAW AFI 36-2907, Unfavorable Information File.

question

What 3 things should always be included in a member's formal counseling?

answer

The date the individual actually received the letter of administrative action and the specifics of the incident and date of occurrence. The acknowledgement should also include a statement indicating the individual understands his or her right to submit matters for consideration within three duty days. It is important for members to acknowledge this right, which preserves the usefulness of the documentation, should subsequent disciplinary actions become necessary.

question

What should you do if an individual refuses to acknowledge receipt of written counseling?

answer

Annotate above their signature block, \"Member refused to acknowledge.\" initial, and date the entry.

question

What 3 signatures are needed on written counseling?

answer

The person issuing the letter should sign first, as the issuer. The 1st Ind. should have the member sign for receipt of the letter, within three duty days, a second signature (2nd Ind.) by the member stating if they waive the right to respond, and then the final signature is the person issuing the letter.

question

What is the time frame for filing written counseling?

answer

Since individuals have 3 duty days to respond, you must wait the 3 duty days before taking additional actions or forwarding the documentation for filing in the PIF. If members do not respond within three duty days, indicate that on the document and forward for filing in the member's PIF.

question

If a member has an Unfavorable Information File (UIF) or is on a Control Roster, what should be done with their written counseling?

answer

Forward it to the first sergeant for appropriate actions associated with adding documents to one's UIF/Control Roster.

question

What must happen if documents are added to a member's UIF/Control Roster?

answer

Commanders are required to notify members in writing when adding or removing documents to an UIF/Control Roster.

question

What Article 31 requirements must be met during a counseling session?

answer

If the counseling session involves a suspect in a criminal matter, you must advise the service member of his or her rights under Article 31 of the UCMJ before questioning. Failure to do so will prevent use of the individual's statements or admissions in subsequent judicial actions.

question

When is Referral Counseling used?

answer

When a supervisor is aware of a problem a subordinate is experiencing that goes beyond the scope of the subordinate's and the supervisor's abilities.

question

After the Counseling stage has been used, what is the next step in the Progressive Discipline Process?

answer

Admonitions and Reprimands.

question

What is an Admonition?

answer

An admonition (also known as an admonishment), either verbal or written, is more severe than counseling. Use it for infractions serious enough to warrant admonishment but not serious enough to warrant reprimand.

question

When is a Letter of Admonition or a Letter of Reprimand used?

answer

A letter of admonition (LOA) or letter of reprimand (LOR) is appropriate when a letter of counseling has failed to correct a problem or when the misconduct is too serious for mere counseling.

question

What is a Letter of Reprimand used for?

answer

Use an LOR for those acts not severe enough for non judicial punishment, but in situations where verbal or written counseling or admonishment would not sufficiently address the misconduct.

question

What does an LOR indicate, and how is it presented?

answer

An LOR is a one-way communication, and it indicates the highest degree of written censure for the most serious infractions and/or repeat infractions, and is always presented in a formal setting.

question

In order, what are the degrees of written counseling?

answer

Letter of Counseling (LOC), Letter of Admonishment (LOA), and Letter of Reprimand (LOR).

question

What 5 details must all LOC's, LOA's, and LOR's contain?

answer

They each must contain a privacy act statement, must clearly state what the member did or failed to do, where and when the infraction occurred, expected future behavior, and the consequences of future infractions.

question

What 3 pieces of information about the receipt of an LOC, LOA, or LOR must be included?

answer

These letters must include a place for the counselee to acknowledge receipt of the letter, indicate that the counselee has three duty days to respond, and the letters must contain a statement indicating whether the counselee responded.

question

How does a unit Commander use a member's Unfavorable Information File?

answer

The Unfavorable Information File (UIF) provides commanders with an official repository of substantiated derogatory data concerning an Air Force member's personal conduct and duty performance.

question

How long do UIF's exist?

answer

UIFs can exist for only one year or as long as several years depending on the type of documents it contains and when documents were placed in the folder.

question

Describe the Control Roster.

answer

Placement on the Control Roster is the most serious of all administrative actions. It establishes a 6-month observation period for individuals whose duty performance is substandard or who fail to meet or maintain Air Force standards. Members may only remain on the control roster for six consecutive months. Commanders initiate more severe action for members not rehabilitated in this time.

question

What does \"Prudence first, Justice second\" mean?

answer

\"Prudence first, Justice second\" means to always consider the facts and extenuating circumstances surrounding a situation. This will ensure we treat people in a fair and equitable manner while still ensuring the correction/ punishment fits the crime.

question

How should unit members treat someone undergoing punishment?

answer

NCOs must ensure other members of the unit DO NOT treat members undergoing punishment unprofessionally. Because of the focus on rehabilitation, it is unprofessional to continuously remind members of their infraction or offense.

question

Once a punishment period starts, how should an NCO treat that individual?

answer

NCOs should take the high road and consider the first day of a member's punishment as the first day of the member's journey toward full recovery.

question

Who is the ADC?

answer

The Area Defense Council (ADC) is a certified judge advocate performing defense counsel duties. They are assigned outside the local chain of command with the responsibility of vigorously and ethically representing their client.

question

What makes the Correction Arena of the DM actually work?

answer

The Progressive Discipline Process. The key to both is using the least force necessary to change the behavior and then progressing as needed.

question

What is Article 91 of the UCMJ?

answer

One of the three legal sources of your NCO Authority is Article 91 of the UCMJ, \"Insubordinate conduct toward a warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer.\" This article ensures others obey NCOs' orders and protects NCOs from assault, insult, or disrespect.

question

What is Article 92 of the UCMJ?

answer

The second source of your legal authority from the UCMJ is Article 92 is entitled, \"Failure to obey an order or regulation.\" This article covers anyone who 1) has a duty to obey an order; 2) has knowledge of the order and 3) violates or fails to obey the lawful order or regulation.

question

Are verbal orders official orders?

answer

An NCO's spoken directions are orders, even if you don't say \"This is a direct order.\"

question

What is Article 7 of the UCMJ?

answer

One more article that will provide you legal authority as an NCO is Article 7, \"Apprehension.\" The UCMJ authorizes you to apprehend individuals in certain situations. If you truly believe a crime is about to happen, try and stop it from happening without placing yourself into jeopardy. Using your rank/authority, order the individual to cease the behavior. If the Airmen disobey your direct order, you have the authority to \"quell quarrels, frays, and disorders among persons subject to [the UCMJ] and to apprehend persons subject to [the UCMJ] who take part therein.

question

To apprehend someone, what must you do?

answer

To apprehend someone, you must verbally inform the person you are apprehending him or her, and clearly inform the individual why you are doing so.

question

What is \"earned authority\"?

answer

While legal authority holds airmen accountable when they fail to meet standards, earned authority encourages airmen to trust you and want to follow you, based on your referent power.

question

In ORDER, what are the 7 Basic Rights of the Accused?

answer

1. presumption of innocence 2. protection from compulsory self-incrimination 3. pretrial investigation 4. representation by counsel 5. fair and impartial trial 6. right of appeal 7. protection from double (former) jeopardy

question

What 4 things should you tell someone before questioning them about a suspected offense?

answer

1) Advising them of their rights (similar to civilian Miranda Warning) 2) Telling them what the offense is 3) Advising them that they DO NOT have to make any statements 4) Advising them that any statements they make, oral or written, may be used as evidence in a court-martial.

question

What is Article 31 of the UCMJ?

answer

Article 31, Rights Advisement, is the military version of the civilian Miranda Warning.

question

What is the Rights Advisement form?

answer

AF IMT 1168, Statement of Suspect/ Witness/Complainant

question

What is Article 32 of the UCMJ?

answer

The Pretrial Investigation is the third basic right and is covered by Article 32 of the UCMJ. Article 32 entitles the accused to full participation during the pre-trial investigation.

question

Describe Representation by Counsel.

answer

The fourth Basic Right of the Accused is for the individual to have Representation by Counsel. Military Counsel is ALWAYS FREE, but the member does have the option to hire a civilian attorney at his or her own expense. If the accused elects to hire a civilian counsel, the military counsel acts as \"associate counsel\" unless excused by the accused.

question

If an accused person gets convicted of a crime, what 2 rights do they still have?

answer

Right of Appeal and protection from Former Jeopardy.

question

Can an Article 15 be appealed?

answer

Yes, but members who accept non-judicial (Article 15) proceedings have the Right to Appeal the punishment only, not the Article 15 itself.

question

Can members submit rebuttal documents against Adverse Administrative Actions?

answer

Yes, members have three duty days to submit rebuttal documents for consideration.

question

If supervisors or Commanders receive rebuttal documents within 3 duty days, what are the 3 actions they can take?

answer

They can let the adverse administrative action stand, reduce the adverse administrative actions, or remove the adverse administrative action altogether.

question

What is meant by Former Jeopardy?

answer

Former Jeopardy is commonly referred to as Double Jeopardy and is covered under the Fifth Amendment and Article 44 of the UCMJ. Both prohibit any person from being tried twice for the same offense; however, constitutional law has been interpreted by the courts to mean that no person can be tried more than once by the same jurisdiction. Therefore, members can be tried twice for the same offense, but only if the trial is by a higher jurisdiction.

question

Does the Air Force normally use the higher jurisdiction option in order to prosecute members?

answer

Although trial and prosecution by higher jurisdiction is possible, such dual prosecutions rarely serve good order and discipline or serve justice; therefore, the Air Force does not pursue court-martial or Article 15 action for the same act or omission for members tried and convicted in state court. Only the Secretary of the Air Force can authorize exceptions to this policy.

question

Do Adverse Administrative actions follow punitive actions imposed by a civilian court against an Air Force member?

answer

Although the Air Force does not pursue judicial or non-judicial actions against members convicted in civilian court, ALL administrative actions remain an option and their use is highly encouraged.

question

What do your personal values and beliefs have to do with the Rights of the Accused?

answer

If your values and beliefs conflict with that of the person accused, you may not be able to handle the situation in an objective manner. You may even advocate for justice without considering prudence. If personal values or beliefs interfere with your ability to protect the Rights of the Accused, you must immediately inform your chain of command.

question

Should treatment of the accused depend on the type of crime they are accused of?

answer

No. Treatment of the Accused should not depend on the nature of the crime; you must presume people are innocent until proven guilty. As an NCO, you must kill rumors to protect the accused and the unit, ensure the accused is treated with respect, and stop conversations about the incident from happening at the unit.

question

What is Adaptability?

answer

Adaptability is the ability to adjust to changed, unexpected, or ambiguous situations by actively seeking information and by demonstrating openness and support of different and innovative change ideas.

question

What are the 3 elements of Adaptability?

answer

Cognitive flexibility, Emotional flexibility, and Dispositional flexibility.

question

Describe Cognitive flexibility.

answer

The ability to use different thinking strategies and mental frameworks.

question

Describe Emotional flexibility.

answer

The ability to vary your approach to dealing with your own emotions and those of others.

question

Describe Dispositional flexibility.

answer

The ability to remain optimistic and at the same time realistic.

question

How many Elements of Adaptability must you have to have an effective level of adaptability?

answer

You must have at least 2 of the 3 elements of adaptability.

question

NCOs with cognitive flexibility do what three things habitually?

answer

1) They scan the environment 2) They develop an understanding, and 3) They create strategies.

question

What does \"scanning the environment\" refer to?

answer

Scanning the environment refers to the ability to identify changes as they occur and to see the changes coming.

question

What does \"developing an understanding\" refer to?

answer

\"Making sense\" out of a situation. This process may include opposing thinking, or contemplating a totally new direction that turns obstacles into opportunities and ideas into innovative practices.

question

What does it mean to \"create strategies\"?

answer

Creating strategies involves developing several possible plans for responding to change. NCOs who possess adaptability develop several strategies because they recognize the impracticality of predicting exactly how any given situation will play out.

question

Name 4 habits of NCO's with Emotional Flexibility.

answer

Understand and manage emotions, connect and address the emotions of others, emotional engagement, and balance emotions and actions.

question

Describe the difference between NCO's who have and do not have emotional flexibility.

answer

Leaders who do not possess emotional flexibility are dismissive of others' concerns and emotions, and shut down such discussions. Leaders who possess emotional flexibility deal effectively with emotions and concerns in order to move the change agenda forward.

question

Should a supervisor allow the expression of negative emotions?

answer

Yes, but should discourage wallowing in those emotions. A more effective message is one that recognizes the emotion while at the same time offers optimism grounded in realism and openness.

question

Dispositional flexibility can be seen in what?

answer

Optimism, support, and self identification of tendencies.

question

A leader who displays dispositional flexibility operates from where?

answer

A place of optimism grounded in realism and openness. They acknowledge bad situations while imaging a better future, at the same time.

question

Name 6 steps to Cognitive Development.

answer

Be curious, Accept the difference, Observe, Have a plan, Be resilient, and Keep learning.

question

Name 3 negative reactions to change.

answer

Grieving, complaining, and resistance.

question

Name 10 steps to Emotional Development.

answer

Support systems, feedback, decisiveness, Avoid bulldozing change, motivation, triage, listen, collaborate, change your approach, and face reality.

question

What does it mean to \"avoid bulldozing change\"?

answer

Effectively manage others' resistance to change by explaining, answering questions, and patiently listening to concerns.

question

Name 9 steps to Dispositional Development.

answer

Be genuine, accept change as positive, adapt your plans, cast a wide net, rehearse, immerse yourself in the new environment, be a mentor or coach, pay attention to life beyond work, and seek feedback.

question

What is the definition of Change Management?

answer

Change Management is a proactively coordinated and structured period of transition from situation A to situation B using a systematic approach that addresses planning for the change; implementing, monitoring, and controlling the change effort; and effecting the change by minimizing resistance through the involvement of key players and stakeholders...resulting in lasting change within an organization

question

What are the 3 Roles of Change Management?

answer

Change Sponsor, Change Agent, and Change Target.

question

Who are Change Sponsors?

answer

Change Sponsors are the people responsible for initiating change within an organization.

question

Who are Change Agents?

answer

Change Agents are responsible for implementation of change in an organization

question

Who are Change Targets?

answer

Change Targets are those individuals or groups who actually undergo the change.

question

What are the 4 stages of Janssen's Model of Change?

answer

Comfort, denial, confusion, and renewal.

question

Briefly describe the 4 stages of Janssen's Model of Change.

answer

Comfort (Stage 1) where things are routine. Denial (Stage 2). When you're forced to confront external change, you go through a state of resistance where you'd just as soon not deal with the new, but stay with the old. Confusion (Stage 3). Where one accepts the change and begins to grapple for ways to proceed from the known to the unknown. Renewal (Stage 4), where you accept the change. You may not like the change, but you've accepted it.

question

What are Mayo's 4 Levels of Change that are present in people?

answer

Knowledge changes, attitudinal changes, individual behavioral changes, and group or organizational behavioral changes.

question

Compare self-imposed change to forced change.

answer

Change that is not of your own choosing is more difficult to deal with. Your reaction to imposed change is typically resistance. You choose to see only the disadvantages while ignoring the advantages.

question

What are the 2 change cycles called?

answer

Directive Change Cycle and the Participative Change Cycle.

question

Define and give 6 examples of Directive Change.

answer

Directive Change is change that's implemented by an authority figure (i.e., commander, superintendent, or supervisor). Examples include Uniform changes, dress and appearance standards, career field reorganizations, tri-care for healthcare, APRs to EPRs, and the Use of seat belts.

question

What is Participative Change?

answer

Participative Change is change that's implemented when new knowledge is made available to the group. It comes from the bottom up and actively seeks input from the change target.

question

Give 6 examples of Participative Change.

answer

New uniform styles, re-accomplishing operating instructions, adjusting shop/office policies, improving communication lines, any process improvement effort, and reorganization.

question

What are the 3 Phases in the Change Process?

answer

Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing.

question

What is the purpose of the Unfreezing Phase, and what are the 2 parts of it?

answer

The unfreezing phase is intended to motivate your subordinates and help get them ready for change. It is made up of creating a felt need for the change, and dealing with resistance to the change.

question

What happens during the Changing Phase, and what are the 3 NCO responsibilities during this phase?

answer

The changing phase is the movement from the old way of doing things to the new way of doing business. NCO's monitor the change as it occurs, pay close attention to those most affected by it, and adjust as necessary to keep the change moving forward.

question

What happens during the Refreezing Phase, and is it permanent?

answer

The refreezing phase is the locking in of the new procedures until they're a permanent part of daily operations. It is not permanent because change happens frequently in the military, so a state of \"slushiness\" is sometimes in place in order to make future unfreezing easier.

question

Name 5 Refreezing techniques.

answer

Evidence stream that the change has happened, Institutionalization by making the change part of the organization's norm, New challenges by giving Airmen challenges related to the change, Rationalization by helping people understand why the change happened, and Socializing by making the change part of the culture of the unit.

question

What is the Diffusion of Innovation?

answer

The 5 levels or reactions to change.

question

In order of their acceptance to change, what are the 5 Individual Levels or Reaction to Change?

answer

Innovators, Early adopters, Early majority, Late majority, and Laggards.

question

What are 2 important things to remember about the Early Majority?

answer

They tend to represent mainstream thinking as one of the largest groups, and they tend to get involved only AFTER something has become big or successful.

question

What is Continuous Improvement (CI)?

answer

Continuous Improvement (CI) is the strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way you perform tasks. CI employs a collection of methodologies including Lean, Six Sigma, Theory of Constraints, and Business Process.

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Name 4 reasons why NCO's should actively support continuous improvement?

answer

It requires Airmen to maintain the highest level of readiness to meet mission requirements, it promotes a culture of Airmen who are capable of mastering multiple tasks, it allows Airmen to take a leadership role by staying involved with fellow Airmen and subordinates on a regular basis, and it forces all Airmen to abide by the Core Values.

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What is AFSO 21, and what does it do?

answer

Air Force Smart Operations 21 is a continuous improvement CULTURE that focuses on generating efficiencies and improving combat capabilities across the Air Force, and applies to all processes associated with the Air Force mission.

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What is the key to AFSO 21 success?

answer

A culture where every Airman thinks about improvement and is empowered to communicate with his or her supervisor, commander, or a change agent.

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What are AFSO 21's Five Desired Effects?

answer

Increase productivity of your people, Increase critical equipment availability rates, Improve response time and agility, Sustain safe and reliable operations, and Improve energy efficiency.

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What are AFSO 21's Three Levels of Priorities?

answer

1. Just Do It 2. Rapid Improvement Events (RIE) 3. High Value Initiative (HVI)

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What does AFSO 21's \"Just Do It\" priority mean?

answer

Just do it is a quick fix to a process irritant; a simple answer to an obstacle in an individual process. A \"Just Do It\" typically does not involve formal process reviews, teams, or an improvement event. It is an improvement that, when implemented, yields immediate results.

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What are AFSO 21's \"Rapid Improvement Events\"?

answer

Rapid Improvement Events usually last a week and apply a series of problem solving steps to determine root causes of problems, eliminate waste, set improvement targets, and establish clear performance measures to reach desired effects.

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What are the 4 components of a successful Rapid Improvement Event?

answer

Strong leadership buy-in, knowledgeable and open-minded participants, a tightly focused event scope, and an implementation plan and metrics to track results.

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What are AFSO 21's \"High Value Initatives\"?

answer

High value initiatives produce significant returns against key Air Force challenges. HVIs typically require four to six months in order to successfully define and implement the required process changes.

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What are the 2 Systems of Thinking?

answer

System 1 - Reactive Thinking and System 2 - Reflective Thinking.

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What is System 1, Reactive Thinking?

answer

Reactive Thinking (System 1) relies heavily on situational cues, prominent memories, trial and error, and heuristic thinking (discovering solutions for self) to arrive quickly and confidently at judgments, particularly when situations are familiar and immediate action is required. Many of the judgments that you make every day are automatic or reactive, rather than reflective.

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Give 3 examples of System 1, Reactive Thinking.

answer

Routine duties/paperwork, Assigning tasks, and Driving.

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Name 6 positive impacts that System 1 Reactive Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.

answer

Decisiveness, Time management, Routine decisions made quickly, Perceived as credible/reliable, Helps balance System 2 thinking (over thinking), and Provides you with intuition or \"gut feeling\"

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Name 8 negative impacts that System 1 Reactive Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.

answer

Mistakes, Overlook details, Miss improvement opportunities, Perceived as poor judgment/unreliable, Impacts others, Sometimes misinterpret, or estimate/underestimate chances of success, Trusts feelings and hunches, and Judges things credible when they are not.

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What is System 2, Reflective Thinking?

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Reflective Thinking (System 2) is broad and informed problem-solving and deliberate decision making. It is useful for judgments in unfamiliar situations, for processing abstract concepts, and for deliberating when there is time for planning and more comprehensive consideration.

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Is Critical Thinking considered System 1 or System 2 thinking?

answer

Critical thinking is considered System 2 (Reflective) thinking because it is often focused on resolving the problem at hand and at the same time monitoring and self-correcting the process of the situation or problem.

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Give 4 examples of System 2, Reflective Thinking.

answer

Complex tasks, New situations, Processing abstract concepts, and When time allows for planning and more comprehensive consideration.

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Name 3 positive impacts that System 2 Reflective Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.

answer

Improves critical thinking and problem solving skills, Forces consideration of logical arguments, and Allows time to monitor and process your system of thinking.

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Name 2 Negative impacts that System 2 Reflective Thinking has on NCO effectiveness.

answer

If people take too long, they could appear reluctant to make decisions, and Possibility of \"over thinking\" simple tasks.

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What is System Thinking?

answer

In essence, system thinking is a discipline of seeing the \"whole\", recognizing patterns and interrelationships, and learning how to structure more effective, efficient decisions.

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What are the 4 distinct processes of the Kepner-Tregoe Problem Solving and Decision Making Process?

answer

Situation Appraisal, Problem Analysis, Decision Analysis, and Potential Problem Analysis.

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What is the Situation Appraisal process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?

answer

Situation Appraisal separates, clarifies, and prioritizes concerns. When to use: When confusion is mounting, the correct approach is unclear, or priorities overwhelm plans.

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What is the Problem Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?

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Problem Analysis identifies the cause of a positive or negative deviation. When to use: Through this analysis, you may find people, machinery, systems, or processes that are not performing as expected. Problem Analysis points to the relevant information and leads the way to the root cause.

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What is the Decision Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?

answer

Decision Analysis is used for making a choice by standing back and looking at \"the whole picture\". When to use: When the path ahead is uncertain, when there are too many choices, or the risk of making the wrong choice is high, Decision Analysis clarifies the purpose and balances risks and benefits to arrive at a solid and supported choice.

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What is the Potential Problem Analysis process of the KT Problem solving and Decision making Process, and when is it used?

answer

Potential Problem Analysis - protects actions or plans. When to use: When a project simply must go well, risk is high, or myriad things could go wrong, a Potential Problem Analysis reveals the driving factors and identifies ways to lower risk.

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What are the 4 components of Decision Analysis.

answer

Decision Statement, Determine Objectives, Locate Alternatives, and Risk Analysis.

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What are the 2 parts of a Decision Statement?

answer

The specific objective, and a specific level of success, or resolution, i.e. - \"I want to buy a new care for less than $15,000.\"

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What does the Decision Statement accomplish?

answer

Determines your objective and Provides a specific level of success or resolution.

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Name 4 ways to find alternative to solving a problem.

answer

Brainstorming with end users, Research, Your own creative thinking, and Subject matter experts.

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Name the 4 steps of Risk Analysis.

answer

1) Is there anything I overlooked? 2) Are there any potential issues as a result of a Must? 3) Is there a possibility that my choice is invalid (if so, how severe are the implications)? 4) Is there anything that might prevent me from being comfortable with my choice?

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What is the purpose of the OODA Loop?

answer

The OODA Loop provides NCOs with a systematic and deliberate method for looking at the current situation, determining what problems exists, and then deciding an appropriate and/or effective action.

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What are the 4 steps of the OODA Loop?

answer

1) Observe - Look at the current situation and form theories about the problem. 2) Orient - Gather data and information to substantiate theories. 3) Decide - Develop solutions to address the problem. 4) Act - Implement and evaluate solutions.

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When would you use the OODA Loop?

answer

When you encounter a familiar situation, you use System 1 Thinking to quickly run through all four steps of the OODA Loop.

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When would you use Systematic Problem Solving, such as with System 2 Thinking?

answer

Systematic problem solving helps you focus on fixing big issues that affect your mission, your work center, and your people.

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What is the 8-Step Problem Solving Process?

answer

The Eight-Step Problem Solving Process is a team-centered, systematic, common-sense problem solving approach aimed at increasing combat capability, making Air Force units more effective and efficient, and enhancing and enabling the Warfighter.

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What are the steps of the 8-Step Problem Solving Process?

answer

1) Clarify and validate the problem. 2) Breakdown the problem, Review key process indicators, and identify performance gaps 3) Set improvement target 4) Determine root cause 5) Develop countermeasures 6) See countermeasures through 7) Confirm results and process 8) Standardize successful processes

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What is an important general rule to remember about problem solving?

answer

\"A problem well stated is a problem half solved.\"

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What are 3 aspects of a good Problem Statement?

answer

It is written down, factual, and agreed to by all parties.

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What 4 questions should be answered by a good Problem Statement?

answer

What is the problem (2 or 3 words)? Where did the problem happen? When did the problem happen? What is the significance of the problem?

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What are metrics?

answer

Metrics are the means to measure results that must complement your organization's operations and determine whether you have achieved the desired goal(s)/ objective(s).

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What are the 2 types of Metrics?

answer

Leading and lagging.

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What is the difference between Leading Metrics and Lagging Metrics?

answer

Leading metrics (outcome-based) make future predictions about a likely occurrence, thus allowing you to predict or forecast potential problems and neutralize or avoid them. 2. Lagging metrics (results-oriented) track overall performance trends that are collected and reported after-the-fact.

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What are 8 types of Waste?

answer

Defects, over-production, waiting, nonstandard over-processing, transportation, intellect, motion, and excess inventory.

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What is Nonstandard over-processing?

answer

Efforts that create no value from the customer's viewpoint.

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When can Intellect be a waste?

answer

When it results in any failure to fully utilize the time and talents of people.

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What is the purpose of a Performance Gap Analysis?

answer

Performance Gap Analysis identifies the difference between the current level of performance and the desired level of performance.

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What is Strategic Vision?

answer

Strategic vision is a view into the future that describes how an organization will strategically perform or conduct business. It implies a gap between the current performance and a better future performance.

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What are Tactical Targets?

answer

Tactical targets define the performance levels required to make the goal a reality. Targets should be challenging but achievable and have B-SMART characteristics.

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What does B-SMART stand for?

answer

Balanced, Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Results-oriented, and Timely.

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When problem solving, what is the Root Cause Analysis Tradeoff?

answer

Root Cause Analysis is a tradeoff between digging as deeply as possible, and finding the deepest point that is still within your sphere of influence.

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Why is the Five-Why method of determining root cause so effective?

answer

By repeatedly asking the question, 'Why?' we are able to peel away the more obvious layers of an issue (the symptoms), thus revealing the true, root cause.

question

Give an example of the Five-Why method.

answer

1. Why did the car break down? Because the battery was dead. 2. Why was the battery dead? Because the alternator belt broke. 3. Why did the alternator belt break? Because the driver could not afford to replace the belt at this time. 4. Why was the driver out of money? Because he/she was fired by employer two weeks ago. 5. Why was the driver fired? Because he/she was deemed unreliable.

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What is Brainstorming?

answer

A technique designed to stimulate a chain reaction of ideas relating to a problem.

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What are the 4 rules of Brainstorming?

answer

Withhold judgment, Encourage freewheeling, Aim for quantity - not quality, and Hitchhike (piggyback) ideas.

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What are 4 techniques for conducting a brainstorming session.

answer

Structured approach, Unstructured approach, Silent approach, and Fish Bone Diagram.

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What is the difference between the structured and unstructured approach to brainstorming?

answer

Structured approach means soliciting one idea at a time from each person on the team. Participants only comment when it is their turn. If they have no comment, they say, \"Pass.\" The session ends when everyone says, \"Pass.\" Unstructured approach (also called free-form brainstorming) includes team members call out ideas as they come to mind.

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What is the Silent Approach to brainstorming?

answer

This is used when you want team members to write ideas on small slips of paper. You then collect the papers and jot down the ideas for all to see.

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What is a brainstorming Fish Bone Diagram?

answer

This cause and effect diagram diagram is used to depict the relationship between specific categories of process inputs and the undesirable output. This technique helps to identify potential causes to a problem.

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What is done during Step 5, Develop Countermeasures?

answer

Analysis of Alternatives

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What are the 3 things you should do to test possible countermeasures for workability?

answer

Look for effectiveness, feasibility, and impact.

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What is the equation to determine the Impact of countermeasures?

answer

(Quality of solution) x (Acceptance) = Impact.

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What are the steps of the Six \"S\" system to improve profitability, efficiency, and service?

answer

1. Sort - clean and organize 2. Straighten - identify, organize, and arrange 3. Shine - routine cleaning and maintenance 4. Standardize - simplify and standardize 5. Sustain - continue training and maintaining standards 6. Safety - priority in all improvement areas

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What is meant by \"Standard Work\"?

answer

This represents the best known approach to complete a task by ensuring consistency throughout the working process. The same work will take the same amount of resources to achieve the same results every time.

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What is the most common mistake in problem solving?

answer

Incorrect root cause determination is the most common mistake in problem solving.

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What are the 6 Principles of Recognition Efforts?

answer

1. Timely - Given as soon as possible (immediately if possible) after the desired performance 2. Proportional - Don't overdo for average or mediocre performance 3. Sincere - Honest and open appreciation of effort 4. Specific - Recognize notable efforts in detail 5. Individual - Recognize personal contributions 6. Personal - Recognition should fit the individual's desires

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What is the most commonly skipped and most under completed step of the entire problem solving process?

answer

Standardizing Successful Processes.

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What is needed to standardize the improvements?

answer

1. Changes to: a. Technical orders b. Air Force Instructions c. Other official policies or procedures d. Equipment e. Material f. Vendors or Suppliers 2. Communicate improvements and lessons learned: a. Key Meetings b. Air Force Publications, message traffic, chain of command c. Communities of Practice (Air Force Knowledge Now) 3. What other opportunities (problems) were identified by the problem solving process?

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What should you take into consideration to create effective writing and speaking?

answer

The experience, background, and expectations of your audience.

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What 6 things can effective speaking and writing skills provide?

answer

1) Clear instructions 2) Clear policies and procedures 3) Help to articulate mission and goals 4) Effective subordinate performance (EPRs, Awards, Decs, Admin Actions, etc.) 5) How others perceive your knowledge and intelligence 6) Positive viewpoints of your work center (unit, organization, service, etc.)

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What are the 4 Basic Communication Process elements?

answer

Sender, message, receiver, and feedback.

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What is the process of selecting and arranging symbols called?

answer

Encoding.

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What is the process of deciphering a sender's message called?

answer

Decoding.

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In Air Force organizations, communication flows in what directions?

answer

Upward, downward, and laterally.

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What is Upward Communication?

answer

The flow of communication through the chain of command from the lowest organizational position to the highest. Upward communication is important to the survival of any organization. It provides feedback on the effectiveness of downward communication.

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What is Downward Communication?

answer

Downward communication normally begins with the organization's upper level of management and filters down through the chain of command. There are many different ways you can communicate information down the chain: memos, letters, meetings, phone calls, etc. The difficulty is in knowing which channel and how much information to use to converse without causing information overload.

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What is Lateral Communication?

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With lateral communication, information across organizational channels. In the Air Force, each organization depends on another to carry out its respective mission. Lateral communication allows for coordination or integration of all diverse functions within and outside an organization.

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What are the 3 broad phases of effective communication?

answer

Diagnose communication needs, prepare the communication, and deliver the message.

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What are the 5 basics steps for diagnosing the communication needs of any given situation?

answer

Defining the general purpose, selecting and narrowing the topic, defining the specific objective, analyzing the audience, and defining parameters.

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According to The Tongue and Quill, all Air Force writing or speaking falls under one or a combination of what 4 general purposes?

answer

To direct, inform, persuade, and inspire.

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What is Directive Communication?

answer

Directive communication is generally used to pass on information describing actions you expect to be carried out by your audience.

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What is Informative Communication?

answer

Informative communication passes on information to the audience. The communication is successful if the audience understands the message exactly the way the speaker or writer intended. The emphasis in informative communication is clear, direct communication with accurate and adequate information tailored to the education and skill levels of the audience.

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What is Persuasive Communication?

answer

Persuasive communication is typically used when you are trying to \"sell\" your audience on a new idea, new policy, new product, or change in current operations. Though emotions are one tool of persuasion, most persuasive communication in the workplace requires convincing evidence put together in a logical way.

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What is the purpose of Inspirational Communication?

answer

Retirements, promotions, commander's calls, etc., present opportunities where you will want to inspire the audience with your profound insight on someone's career or possibly your philosophy on leadership.

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What is the \"sending audience\" and why is that relevant?

answer

The sending audience is the person responsible for the message, such as a supervisor, commander, etc. Analyzing your sending audience will help you understand the sender's intentions, expected responses from the receiving audience, communication style, deadlines, etc. Determine what information you might need from your sending audience before you can proceed.

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Why is information about your \"receiving audience\" important?

answer

So you can tailor your message to best accomplish the specific objective of your message.

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What type of parameters might be defined for a message that you want to send out?

answer

The amount of product to complete (quantity), the amount of time to prepare the communication (timeliness), the specific form of communication needed (type), the desired level of formality, the tone of the communication, and the amount of time allowed for delivering the message.

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When preparing communication, what sequence of events is recommended by the Tongue and Quill?

answer

Doing your research first, then gathering support, then organizing your data.

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In what order should you include your research sources?

answer

Yourself, others who are familiar with your subject, and then reference sources.

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What does it mean to develop support for your message?

answer

Referring to factual information provides an effective motivator for the listener, especially if they are hostile to the message. Not all people interpret things the same way, so providing different perspectives helps the listener understand the concepts.

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What are the 4 primary purposes for using support material?

answer

To clarify, amplify, reinforce, or emphasize your ideas or prove your assertions.

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What are the 2 types of support?

answer

Clarification support and proof support.

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Do you need to acknowledge yourself as a source during communications?

answer

If all of the information you share is obviously your own knowledge, experience, and research, there is no requirement to formally acknowledge yourself as the source.

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Do you need to acknowledge Common Knowledge as a source during communications?

answer

No. Some examples of common knowledge include: • There are four seasons in the year. • There 365 days in a year. • The United States entered World War II after the bombing of Pearl Harbor. • The state bird of Georgia is the brown thrasher.

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What is AFH 33-337?

answer

The Tongue and Quill - guidance on written and spoken communication.

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What is Clarification Support?

answer

Clarification support presents a clearer message to the audience and gives variety to your communication. When you use clarification support, you're able to provide examples and additional descriptive details and emphasize the ideas.

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Why is Proof Support so important?

answer

Statistics are considered the most powerful proof support you can use. Always remember to consider how recent the statistics are; old statistics can hurt your credibility.

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When quoting or paraphrasing, do you need to give credit to the original author?

answer

When quoting or paraphrasing, you must give credit to the original author for his or her work. Otherwise, you could be in danger of plagiarizing.

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What does Integration mean?

answer

Integration means the source is incorporated into the text, paper, or speech; it allows the reader or listener to know where the information came from simply by reading or listening. Example: Dr. Green said that stress accounts for over 60% of heart attacks.

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What is a Citation?

answer

Citation is a method used to verify the source's credibility on a book, article, webpage, or other published item.

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What should you do when using material word for word from a source?

answer

Use quotation marks around the entire statement.

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How do you do a verbal citation during spoken projects?

answer

Qualify the information as part of the statement, such as \"Dr. Green, a heart specialist at the Mayo Clinic, says stress accounts for over 60% of all heart attacks.\"\".

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When should you use integration and citation vs integration and qualification?

answer

Always integrate and cite source support in papers and integrate and qualify source support in speeches and briefings.

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Do you have to fully integrate and qualify a source each time you cite them in a speech or a briefing?

answer

You do not have to fully integrate and qualify the source each time. Instead, once you have qualified the source in your presentation, simply reintroduce the name of the author, book, etc. to communicate the source information.

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What are the 4 sub-steps to organizing communication?

answer

Selecting a suitable pattern, defining main and support points, constructing an outline, and transitioning between main points.

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Name 6 examples of communication patterns.

answer

Topical, time/chronological, spatial/geographical, reason, problem/solution, and cause/effect.

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When is the Reasoning Pattern used?

answer

When trying to convince someone of facts or a needed course of action.

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When is the Problem/Solution Pattern used?

answer

For any communication that details a process like problem-solving or step-by-step course of action.

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What is the key to selecting which Communication Patterns to use?

answer

The key to selecting patterns is to choose the one that logically develops your ideas from start to finish, and you can combine patterns as well.

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How can you begin to organize your ideas into main and sub-points?

answer

Begin by listing all ideas about the subject, combine related ideas into groups, and complete an outline to see where everything fits.

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What is the formula for handling transitions?

answer

Restate, relate, and introduce. Begin your transition by restating the main point or idea you just covered, then describe its relationship to your next main point, and finally introduce the next main point or idea you'll be covering.

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What is the purpose behind a rough draft?

answer

In the first draft, your main objective is to get your ideas down on paper. Develop your three-part structure containing an introduction, body, and a conclusion.

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Describe the 3 parts of a communications project.

answer

The introduction must capture your audience's attention, establish rapport, and announce your purpose. The body must be an effective sequence of ideas that flow logically in a series of paragraphs. The conclusion must summarize the main points stated in the body and close smoothly.

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Describe a good Introduction.

answer

A good introduction includes an Attention Step, Purpose Statement, Motivation/Hook, and Overview. These elements capture the audience's attention and inform them of the purpose of the communication. A good introduction also provides a roadmap so the audience knows where your communication is headed.

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Name 6 attention-getting techniques you can use at the beginning of a speech to get your audience's attention.

answer

• Rhetorical Questions are used to prompt listeners or readers to seek answers in their own minds and to stimulate them to think about the matters that you want them to deal with. • Quotations are also an excellent way to begin a speech or paper as long as it is relevant to what follows. • Jokes must be appropriate for your audience and relevant to what follows. • Startling Statement can be used to jar the audience into paying attention. • Gimmicks can quickly gain the audience's attention. • Common Grounds help audiences pay more attention when they have something in common with the speaker.

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What 3 things should be included in a well-developed purpose statement?

answer

First, it narrows the subject. Second, it makes an assertion or states a precise opinion about the subject. Third, it lets the reader or audience know your reason for the communication—to inform, to persuade or to motivate.

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What are 3 questions you can ask yourself when developing a purpose statement?

answer

• What is the real reason I am writing this? • What is the main idea I want to convey? • What response do I desire to elicit from the reader?

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What is the Little Brown Handbook?

answer

The Little Brown Handbook is an easy-to-use reference book that will answer your questions about grammar, writing, or research.

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What makes an effective Motivation/Hook?

answer

An effective motivation/hook tells Why the audience needs to listen, How they can use the information, and what makes them Want to listen.

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What makes a good Overview?

answer

A good overview provides a road map for your audience. It gives clues to the structure of the communication (main points), tells the audience where you will begin (main point 1) and end (main point X), and tells how you're going to accomplish your purpose.

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Where should you place the topic sentence in a paragraph?

answer

By placing the topic sentence up front, you save your readers the trouble of sorting through all the details before they decide that the information you included doesn't really apply to them.

question

What 4 things should a topic sentence do?

answer

1. express the main ideas of each paragraph; 2. serve as the focal point for supporting details, facts, figures, and examples; 3. prepare readers for supporting information; and 4. normally be the first sentence; it sets the mood and catches the reader's interest.

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What is Unity, and what is a good test to ensure Unity?

answer

Unity means all sentences support the topic sentence, which, in turn, supports the main point. One of the most effective methods for checking unity is called the \"because test.\" Simply place the word \"because\" at the end of each supporting sentence, to see if it supports the topic sentence. Likewise, place \"because\" at the end of the topic sentence to see if it supports your purpose.

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What are External Transitions?

answer

External transitions are sentences used to provide a link between paragraphs within your communication.

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Name the 3 elements of a good conclusion.

answer

Summary, restatement of purpose and/or re-motivation, and closure.

question

How is a Conclusion related to an Introduction?

answer

Your introduction and conclusion should balance each other without being identical.

question

Name 2 brainstorming tools.

answer

Mind-mapping and Free writing.

question

Name 5 types of support materials.

answer

Examples, statistics, testimony, comparisons, and explanations.

question

Name 2 types of examples.

answer

Real-life examples and brief examples.

question

Name 3 types of brief examples.

answer

Citation support, proof support, and narrative.

question

What are 2 types of testimony?

answer

Direct quote and paraphrase.

question

What should you do if a quote you want to use contains an error?

answer

If your quote contains an error (incorrect date, grammatical error, etc.), put the letters sic in brackets, for example [sic], after the error. This is Latin and means \"thus\" to indicate that you are copying the quote as written although you recognize the error. Example: \"...and George Washington, the vice president [sic] was...\"

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What does it mean to Analyze?

answer

When you Analyze, you are making sure you separate the reading into parts or elements. Ask yourself why you are reading the material and what question are you trying to answer?

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What does it mean to Synthesize?

answer

Synthesize means to put different elements together to form a new whole; to draw conclusions about the relationships and implication.

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What are the 2 types of explanations?

answer

Analysis and description.

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What is the difference between a Description and a Definition?

answer

A Description is similar to a definition but adds more adjectives or adverbs and lets the audience see, hear, or feel the expanded definition.

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Why is it hard to judge the Reliability of a source?

answer

To judge reliability you have to dig deep and you must research the background of the material's author. It is important to determine if the author has sufficient expertise in the area to be considered reliable. You must also determine if the author is biased.

question

When using Folk Literature, do you have to cite the source?

answer

No, Folk literature does not require the author to acknowledge the source, but published literature belonging to an author does.

question

Do you need to cite common sense observations?

answer

No, it is not necessary to acknowledge commonsense observations. As The Little Brown Handbook states, \"Commonsense observations\" are something most people know, such as \"inflation is most troublesome for people with low and fixed incomes.\"

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What is a Pronoun?

answer

A pronoun is a word used in place of a noun. In the sentence, 'Everyone here edits over 12 pages a day', the word everyone is a pronoun. The word everyone is also an Indefinite Pronoun.

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What do Adverbs do?

answer

Adverbs describe verbs, and they are usually directly before the verb they describe.

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What is a Subject in a sentence?

answer

The subject is that part of the sentence containing all the words identifying the person, place, object, idea, or quality that the rest of the sentence is talking about.

question

What is a Predicate?

answer

The predicate consists of words stating what the subject is doing, or what is being done to the subject. All the words after the verb in a sentence (including the verb) make up the predicate

question

What is a trick to remember subject-verb agreement?

answer

If the noun ends with an \"s,\" then the verb will not end with an \"s.\" Likewise, if the noun does not end with an \"s,\" then the verb will end with an \"s.\" The dog plays. The dogs play. Sarah always jumps rope at lunchtime. The girls jump rope at lunchtime.

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What are Clauses?

answer

A clause is a group of words with a subject and a predicate that can function either as a complete sentence or as part of a sentence.

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What is an Independent Clause?

answer

The independent clause is also known as a main clause. It expresses a complete thought and can function either as a separate sentence or as an integral part of a sentence.

question

What is a Dependent Clause?

answer

The dependent clause is also known as a subordinate clause. It doesn't make sense if placed alone. This type of clause \"depends\" upon the independent clause for its meaning.

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What are the 2 voices of verbs?

answer

A verb has two voices, active or passive. In the active voice, the subject is performing an action; in the passive voice, the subject is being acted upon.

question

What type of voice is preferred in Air Force writing?

answer

Active voice is preferred over passive voice.

question

What are Modifiers?

answer

Modifiers will usually provide an answer to the questions commonly referred to as the six W's or five W's and one H: Who?, What?, Where?, When?, Why?, and How?. In addition, modifiers can clarify additional, frequently asked questions such as, What kind? How many? To what extent? Under what conditions?.

question

What are 2 types of modifiers?

answer

Adjectives and Adverbs.

question

Can nouns modify other nouns?

answer

Yes, A noun may modify another noun. In the following examples, the first noun modifies a second noun: stage play, Christmas dinner, and fire drill.

question

What is the difference between open and closed punctuation?

answer

Open punctuation involves using only what's necessary to prevent misreading. Closed punctuation involves using what the material grammatically requires. The Air Force prefers open punctuation.

question

Do you capitalize quotations used in context?

answer

Always capitalize the first word of a direct quotation because it's the first word of someone's sentence.

question

When using quotation marks, where are commas and periods placed vs where colons and semi-colons are placed?

answer

Commas and periods are placed inside quotation marks while colons and semicolons are placed outside the quotation marks.

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Where are dashes, question marks, and exclamation points placed when using quotations?

answer

Dashes, question marks, and exclamation points are placed inside quotation marks only if they belong to the quotation. Otherwise, place them outside the quotation marks.

question

Name 5 benefits of Reflective Thinking.

answer

• Enables self-awareness. • Enables personal and professional growth. • Helps you realize why your successes were successful and why your failures occurred. • Helps you reformulate personal goals and beliefs. • Helps you make life choices consistent with your beliefs.

question

What are 3 benefits of conducting Air Force Strategic Initiative Briefings?

answer

Exposes your audience to USAF Strategic Initiatives they might not know about or fully understand; become proficient at conducting research that helps expand the your worldview; and provides you with an opportunity to be prepared to speak publically about a key Air Force topic.

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What is the purpose of Key Air Force Leadership Message Briefings?

answer

They inform your work center of leadership messages from various levels of command and leaders.

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What is a Personal Air Force Narrative Briefing?

answer

An Air Force Narrative focuses on you responding to questions from key audiences that want to know what you do for the Air Force, why you joined, why you are still a member, and so forth.

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What is Interpersonal Communication?

answer

Interpersonal communication is a face-to-face, multidirectional exchange of verbal messages and nonverbal signals between two or more people, for the purpose of gaining a shared meaning.

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What are the 3 key attributes of interpersonal communication?

answer

Face-to-face, multidirectional, and verbal/nonverbal.

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Other than physical face-to-face conversations, what are 3 other mediums that are considered face-to-face interpersonal communication?

answer

Telephone, E-mail, and text message conversations.

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What is a Multidirectional Exchange?

answer

Multidirectional exchange happens when all parties involved have both permission and freedom to express themselves freely and openly about the issue under discussion.

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What carries the greatest amount of the communication burden?

answer

Nonverbal signals.

question

Why are effective self-monitors more effective in cross-cultural situations?

answer

Individuals who are high self-monitors tend to be more effective in cross-cultural situations because a high self-monitor tends to read the social situation first and then present an appropriate response as opposed to simply presenting a consistent image of self in every situation. A high self-monitor asks, \"Who does this situation want me to be and how can I be that person?\"

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How can you check to make sure your messages were understood as you intended?

answer

Ask people to tell you what you said in their own words.

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Describe the \"message\" that is sent during interpersonal communications.

answer

The message focuses on what you say and how you say it. It consists of verbal and nonverbal messages sent back and forth between a sender and receiver.

question

What is Paralanguage?

answer

Paralanguage is the characteristics of the voice - how you say something. Paralanguage is often just as important as, if not more important than, the actual words you speak.

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What is Diction?

answer

Diction is the combination of articulation (precise use of lips, tongue, and teeth to form sounds), pronunciation, and choice of words.

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What 7 things make up Paralanguage?

answer

• Rate • Diction • Tone • Rhythm • Fluency • Volume • Quality

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What is Fluency?

answer

Fluency uses pauses effectively to provide desired flow and effect. Pauses are typically described in 3 dimensions: length (milliseconds to minutes), filled (vocalized) and unfilled (silent), and location (ending of a thought, beginning of a thought, etc.).

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Name 4 unpleasant types of voice qualities.

answer

Hypernasality (speaking largely through the nose), Denasality (\"head cold\" sound), Hoarseness (laryngitis-like sound), and Huskiness (excessive exhalation of breath when expressing words).

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What are two common communication barriers you should become aware of and practice to correct?

answer

Competitive interrupting and overusing the content-only response.

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What are back-channeling cues?

answer

You may lean forward, nod your head, point, pause, or look away in an attempt to direct the conversation. Used to communicate various types of information back to the speaker without your assuming the role of the speaker.

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What is a content-only response?

answer

A content-only response focuses only on the literal meaning of a message without taking into account the emotions or cultural message behind what is being said.

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What are 2 practical ways to manage content-only responses?

answer

Recall the power of paralanguage, and be mindful of distinctions in others' behaviors.

question

What is the difference between interpreting and translating?

answer

Interpreting is about representing ideas in understandable terms as opposed to word-by-word translation.

question

Other than speech, what is the next most primary source of information in human interaction?

answer

The face is probably the primary source of information in human interaction. It is the primary site for communication of emotional states, interpersonal attitudes, and feedback to others

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What are the three most critical factors to consider in selecting or preparing the setting for interpersonal communications?

answer

Location, space, and time.

question

Describe the 3 spaces used in interpersonal communication.

answer

Intimate space is the closest \"bubble\" of space surrounding a person. Entry into this space is acceptable only for the closest friends and intimates. Social and consultative spaces are the spaces in which people feel comfortable conducting routine social interactions with acquaintances as well as strangers, and Public space is the area of space beyond which people will perceive interactions as impersonal and relatively anonymous.

question

What 3 things must be considered regarding the time used for interpersonal communications?

answer

Consideration must be given to the planning needed to prepare for the interactions (pre-session), the time spent actually in the session, and the time following up on proposed actions or promises after the session has closed (post-session).

question

Name 6 examples of interpersonal challenges.

answer

Resistance to change, closed-mindedness, negative nonverbal, mixed messages, personality conflicts, and distractions.

question

What is Preventive Feedback?

answer

Preventive feedback focuses on preventing the development of negative behaviors by letting people know upfront what is expected and the consequences for not meeting work place standards.

question

What 3 times are appropriate for Preventive Feedback to be used?

answer

• Initial/mid-term feedback sessions • To establish goals or adjust existing ones • To reinforce good actions, decisions, and behaviors in order to prompt subordinates to repeat the behavior

question

What is Rehabilitative Feedback?

answer

Rehabilitative feedback is aimed at correcting inappropriate or unacceptable actions, decisions, and behaviors. It is important to use this type of feedback when the quality and quantity of work performance is poor and/or related to personal problems that affect others and mission accomplishment.

question

What 4 times are appropriate for Rehabilitative Feedback to be used?

answer

• Poor quality/quantity of work • Interpersonal problems that affect others and mission accomplishment • Personal problems that affect others or work performance • Individual behaviors that detract from self, unit, and organizational effectiveness

question

Describe Counseling.

answer

Counseling is a type of communication used to empower subordinates to achieve goals. It is more than simply telling subordinates how they are doing, that is feedback. Good counseling focuses on developing subordinates' abilities to achieve individual and unit goals, and when performed correctly, it guides subordinates toward appropriate changes in behavior.

question

Name 6 common counseling mistakes.

answer

• Operating based on personal likes and dislikes. • Using stereotypes, personal biases, and prejudices to counsel. • Making rash judgments. • Loss of emotional control. • Using an inflexible approach. • Improper (or no) follow-up.

question

What is the difference between counseling and feedback?

answer

Counseling is much more than telling a subordinate how they are doing - that is feedback. Performed correctly, counseling guides the subordinate in a change of behavior.

question

What are the 3 major categories of counseling?

answer

Personal situation counseling and Performance/Professional growth counseling.

question

What is Personal Situation Counseling?

answer

Event-oriented, this counseling is reactive in nature, it occurs during or after a situation.

question

What is Performance/Professional Growth Counseling?

answer

Proactive in nature, it occurs in preparation for or anticipation of future events. It includes planning for the accomplishment of individual and professional short- and long-term goals based on an established timeline.

question

What is an important thing to use during a counseling session?

answer

Using an outline to conduct counseling sessions makes them easier to conduct and more productive. A good outline forces you to think, thoroughly and intentionally, about a pending counseling session, and it improves the effectiveness of your counseling.

question

Describe the ideal counseling environment.

answer

Counsel in an environment free from distractions and in a location where all parties can communicate freely. Whenever possible, counsel during the duty day. After-hour sessions are often rushed and usually perceived as unfavorable. The length of the session depends on the complexity of the issue; however, a good rule of thumb is to keep sessions to 60 minutes or less.

question

At a minimum, what 2 things should be done at the end of a counseling session?

answer

Ensure the session results in a plan of action with clear and obtainable goals. Always schedule a follow-up to close the loop.

question

What are the 3 main approaches to counseling?

answer

Directive, non-directive, and combined. The major difference is the degree to which subordinates participate and interact during the counseling session.

question

Describe a Directive or Supervisor-centered counseling session.

answer

In this approach, you do most of the talking and tell the subordinate what needs to be done. You determine the content of and assume the responsibility for the session.

question

Describe a Non-directive or Subordinate-centered counseling session.

answer

In this approach, your primary role will be to help the subordinate by providing the information he or she needs to make an informed choice about how to behave in the future. This approach puts the responsibility squarely on the subordinate, and it encourages maturity and open communication. Many see this as the preferred approach.

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Describe a Combined approach counseling session.

answer

Both the unit manager and subordinate share the responsibility for the session's success. This combined approach has a lot of positive impact on the relationship by creating trust. In the combined approach, you use portions of the directive and nondirective approaches. The combined approach emphasizes that the subordinate must be responsible for planning and decision making.

question

Regardless of which counseling approach is used, what should always be the case?

answer

The counseling session should always be centered on the subordinate.

question

What are 4 good skills to use during a counseling session?

answer

Active listening, responding (verbal and non-verbal), questioning (open-ended), and silence (to try to get the counselee to open up).

question

Briefly describe 6 pre-session counseling activities.

answer

• Select and narrow the individual topics you intend to address • Clearly define what you hope the session will accomplish for both you and your subordinate(s). • Analyze your audience—in this case, the subordinate; this will be important in formulating your approach and choosing the terms to use (or avoid) in the session. • Determine if there are any limiting factors such as time, place, and legal confidentiality. Check with the JAG or first sergeant if you believe there may be legal ramifications (e.g., violating one's rights). • Do research on the reasons for the session, including looking up regulations, AFI's, interviewing others, etc. • Create an outline for the counseling session.

question

Name the 5 steps of properly opening a counseling session.

answer

1. Properly greet all participants 2. Establish rapport, usually, a simple but sincere greeting and a quick inquiry about their well-being is sufficient. 3. State the purpose for your meeting. 4. Start the session by reviewing the status of any previous plan of action (if applicable). 5. Once you are certain all participants fully understand the purpose, set the proper tone for the rest of the meeting by expressing your desire to help the participants work through the issue(s).

question

What are Attending Skills?

answer

Attending refers to a combination of watching for nonverbal communication with your eyes and listening to words with your ears.

question

What are the 3 parts of Attending during a counseling session?

answer

1. Continually monitor all participants' gestures, body posturing, and other nonverbal cues. 2. Listen closely for verbal messages: specific words spoken, changes in voice, etc. 3. While listening and watching, convey acceptance and receptivity to encourage the participants to continue.

question

What are Responding Skills?

answer

Responding refers to what you say, how you say it, and how you behave in response to the participants' verbal and nonverbal messages. There is a difference between reacting and responding.

question

What is the difference between Responding and Reacting?

answer

Reacting implies you are less in control of your words and behavior than when you make a conscious effort to respond in a manner that facilitates continued communication and fosters a developing relationship.

question

What type of questions should you ask during the counseling session?

answer

Use open-ended questions (especially how and why questions) to get participants to open up and share information with you.

question

What is Reflective Listening?

answer

When you ask a question, listen for the content and the feeling of the answer, and then respond to it by making a statement about what you have heard.

question

Give 2 examples of questions to ask when practicing Reflective Listening.

answer

What I hear you saying is...\" (Statement of content), or \"You seem to be ...\" (statement of feeling).

question

What are Resolving Skills, and give 2 important aspects of good resolving skills?

answer

Resolving refers to your ability to help participants identify and resolve problems and reach goals. 1. All parties should only agree to solutions that are within the ability of both the supervisor and the participants. 2. Solutions should be appropriate to the situation; feasible with respect to money, time, and ability; and comprehensive enough to solve the problem, rather than treat symptoms.

question

What should you do if you realize during a counseling session that you do not have the skills, expertise or resources to assist in developing the plan of action, or to help the subordinate achieve the established goals?

answer

Stop the session and refer the individual(s) to the proper person or agency.

question

When should you refer a counselee, rather than continuing the counseling session?

answer

You should refer situations that are beyond your level of confidence and/or competence (e.g. suicide, sexual assault, substance abuse, etc.), if the supervisor-to-subordinate relationship can't be resolved, if the subordinate refuses to discuss the issue with you, and/or if past efforts to resolve the issue have failed.

question

What should you do after referring a counselee to another individual or another agency?

answer

As an NCO, you still have the responsibility to stay involved. First, you should help your people set up an appointment with the right person or agency. Then, you must monitor the situation to be sure the referral worked and the issue gets resolved.

question

What are the 4 things you should do when closing a counseling session?

answer

1. Summarize the highlights of the session. 2. Restate solutions to reinforce the agreement. 3. Motivate/inspire a positive outcome as you close the session by encouraging participant(s) to take the agreed upon actions. 4. Refrain from introducing new material while closing the session.

question

Name 5 must-happen follow-up actions after a counseling session.

answer

1. Focus on key issues identified in the session. 2. Be appropriate for the person and the situation. 3. Be feasible with regard to the number of actions required as well as time, money, and personal ability. 4. Be placed in supervisor's and participants' schedule. 5. Include the paperwork: Even when participants indicate their desire to resolve the issue, always document the session and the plan of action.

question

What can you do to help a counselee prepare for a counseling session?

answer

Be sure to inform counselees why, where, and when counseling is to take place and what the counselees must do to prepare for the session. Ask counselees to provide pertinent information two or three days before the scheduled session to allow you to review and prepare to discuss it.

question

Give 4 examples of formal interpersonal sessions.

answer

• Counseling sessions • Mentoring sessions • Performance feedback sessions • Training

question

Give 5 examples of informal interpersonal sessions.

answer

• Providing encouragement • Verbal warnings • Giving advice • Feedback from your subordinates • Telling subordinates what to do

question

When conducting group interpersonal communications, what is a good practice in the beginning.

answer

Set ground rules to keep the conversation from getting out of control, i.e. - no interrupting, keep voices within reason, give everyone their chance to speak, etc.

question

Give 7 examples of situations when you might use managerial one-on-one communication sessions.

answer

• Initial, midterm, and follow-up performance feedback sessions • Formal counseling sessions • Mentoring sessions • Training sessions • Day-to-day interactions on the job • Transactions with on- and off-base agencies • Cross-culturally diverse interaction

question

Describe what it means to be assertive.

answer

Being self-assured, confident, and respectful of others characterizes assertiveness. Being assertive is about having self-esteem, accepting your own feelings and opinions as valid, and having the self-confidence to express them.

question

What is the Conversational Constraint Theory?

answer

Conversational Constraint Theory suggests that cultural differences play a role in how you select communication strategies to keep your conversations running smoothly. The theory isolates two main types of conversational constraints: social-relational and task-oriented.

question

What is the difference between social-relational and task-oriented communication strategies.

answer

People who emphasize social-relational concerns want to maintain harmony in their conversations and be on good terms with others—even if it means forgoing the task at hand. On the other hand, those with task-oriented concerns prefer the discussion of tasks in the conversation over the relationship. In other words, being more concerned about either the feelings of those involved, or in accomplishing the tasks at hand.

question

What are the 3 climates that help you see how interpersonal communication affects work center climate?

answer

(1) Dehumanized climate, (2) Over humanized climate (3) Situational climate.

question

What is a dehumanized climate?

answer

A leadership philosophy that neglects human relations in the workplace. The belief is that subordinates do not have the desire to excel, so they avoid making decisions and just allow themselves to be led.

question

What are 3 leadership practices in a dehumanized environment?

answer

• Withholding information • Telling subordinates not only what to do but how to do it, doing all the upward and lateral communication themselves • Talking individually with subordinates (seldom in groups) to keep them competing for his or her favor.

question

Describe an overhumanized climate.

answer

There is undue preoccupation with human relationships. Human relations are more important than organizational objectives, conflicts and tensions should be reduced at all costs, motivation of subordinates should be almost totally intrinsic and self-directed, and participative decision making is always superior to decisions made by one or a few. Individual needs are emphasized over organizational needs.

question

Describe a situational climate.

answer

The leader communicates willingness to establish a situational climate that fits individuals as well as situations, 1. A flexible climate that can adapt to the complex and changing nature of individual and organizational needs is superior to a fixed climate. 2. Individuals are not naturally passive, resistant to organizational needs, or reluctant to assume responsibility. 3. Since individuals are not lazy, you can structure work to bring individual and organizational goals in line with one another.

question

What are the 3 components of interpersonal communication?

answer

Depth, Scope, and Suitability.

question

Basic interpersonal skills can be broken down into what 3 categories?

answer

Pre-session, Session, and Post-session skills.

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