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Which of the following conditions would increase scientific confidence in a particular research finding? a) if other researchers felt that the finding fit with their personal experience b) if the study was conducted by a well-known or famous psychologist c) if the study was reported by CNN, MSNBC, and other news agencies d) if independent researchers repeated the study using different participants and the same basic finding occurred again
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d) if independent researchers repeated the study using different participants and the same basic finding occurred again
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Like other scientists, psychologists are guided by the assumption that: a) statistically significant results always have practical significance b) only experimental data has scientific relevance. c) certain phenomena will never be understood. d) events are lawful and ultimately explainable.
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d) events are lawful and ultimately explainable.
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Based on the findings of the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R) which of the following statements is FALSE? a) The majority of people with the symptoms of a mental disorder (59 percent) received excellent care and treatment during the past year. b) The treatment obtained by many people for their psychological disorders was often inadequate, falling short of established guidelines. c) There are many effective treatments for psychological disorders that can produce fairly enduring improvements relatively quickly. d) The symptoms of many psychological disorders, especially those involving mild to moderately disruptive symptoms, diminish with the passage of time.
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a) The majority of people with the symptoms of a mental disorder (59 percent) received excellent care and treatment during the past year.
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Psychologists assume that: a) most aspects of behavior and mental processes cannot be understood by scientific means. b) there are no parallels between human and animal behavior. c) behavior and mental processes have a cause or causes. d) human behavior can be accurately predicted in any situation.
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c) behavior and mental processes have a cause or causes.
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If a person suffered from problems with primary support group, this would be found on Axis I of the DSM-IV-TR. A) True B) False
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B) False
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Placebo or expectancy effects refer to: a) the researcher's confidence in his or her findings. b) the results that the researcher expects to discover. c) the instructions that are given to the research subjects before the experiment begins. d) a change in a subject's behavior that is produced by the subject's beliefs and expectations rather than the actual drug, treatment, or procedure.
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d) a change in a subject's behavior that is produced by the subject's beliefs and expectations rather than the actual drug, treatment, or procedure.
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The following are key provisions in the most recent APA ethical principles regulating research with human participants: A) informed consent and voluntary participation B) the use of deception C) confidentiality D) all of the above
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D) all of the above
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Which of the following people emphasized conscious experiences and each person's unique potential for psychological growth and self-direction? a) John B. Watson b) Carl Rogers c) B. F. Skinner d) Sigmund Freud
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b) Carl Rogers
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The term _____ refers to the scientific study of the origins, symptoms, and development of psychological disorders. a) comorbidity pathology b) sociopathology c) psychopathology d) biosocial developmental pathology
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c) psychopathology
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Which of the following would be an acceptable operational definition for anxiety? a) an unpleasant emotional state b) None of the other alternatives is correct because anxiety is a subjective emotional state that cannot be operationally defined. c) feelings of worry, tension, dread, or fear d) asking people to rate their current level of anxiety on a 1-to-10 scale
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d) asking people to rate their current level of anxiety on a 1-to-10 scale
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Dr. Jackson is studying changes in the brain after stressful experiences. Dr. Jackson is most likely to subscribe to the _____ perspective. a) psychodynamic b) cross-cultural c) behavioral d) biological
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d) biological
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Critical thinkers engage in reflective thinking. This means that they: a) use their intuition to solve problems. b) maintain an attitude of healthy skepticism. c) assume other perspectives. d) expect and accept complexity.
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d) expect and accept complexity.
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Dr. McNair has been studying the effects of different levels of estrogen hormones on mating behaviors in male and female hamsters. Dr. McNair is most likely a _____ psychologist. a) biological b) developmental c) clinical d) cognitive
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a) biological
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If a person is given a GAF of 75, he/she is functioning with some symptoms but they are transient and expectable reactions to psycho-social, occupational, or school functioning (e.g., difficulty concentrating after a family argument). A) True B) False
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A) True
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Which of the following is a definition of the experimental method? a) a research strategy that allows the precise conclusion of how strongly two factors are related to each other b) a research method used to determine a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effect that is produced on another variable c) a method of study that involves an intensive, in-depth investigation of a single individual or small group of individuals d) the systematic observation and recording of behaviors as they occur in their natural setting
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b) a research method used to determine a cause-and-effect relationship between changes in one variable and the effect that is produced on another variable
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Juanita participated in a psychology research project that involved answering a number of arithmetic problems. During the experiment, she was informed that her answers were incorrect. After the experiment was completed, a research assistant explained the purpose of the experiment. He told Juanita that she had actually answered all items correctly, and then explained why the experiment required that she be told that her answers were wrong. This stage of the research represents: a) voluntary participation. b) informed consent. c) confidentiality. d) debriefing.
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d) debriefing.
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The cognitive perspective of psychology focuses on: a) the diversity of human behavior in different cultural settings and countries. b) how overt behavior is acquired and modified by environmental influences. c) the motivation of people to grow psychologically, the influence of interpersonal relationships on a person's self-concept, and the importance of choice and self-direction in striving to reach one's potential. d) the important role of mental processes in how people process information, develop language, solve problems, and think.
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d) the important role of mental processes in how people process information, develop language, solve problems, and think.
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One finding of the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (NCS-R) is that: a) the lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders was 29 percent. b) the lifetime prevalence of substance use disorders was 56 percent. c) the lifetime prevalence of mood disorders was 15 percent. d) the lifetime prevalence of impulse-control disorders was 10 percent.
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a) the lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders was 29 percent.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE? a) When someone's behavior strikes you as strange or unusual, you can correctly label the behavior as "psychopathological." b) "Abnormal" behavior is almost always easy to distinguish from "normal" behavior. c) The dividing line between normal and abnormal behavior is often determined by the social or cultural context in which a particular behavior occurs. d) According to DSM-IV-TR, a person who refused to eat foods such as fish, meat, onions, garlic, or other "hot" foods, for six months or longer would be classified as suffering from a mental disorder.
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c) The dividing line between normal and abnormal behavior is often determined by the social or cultural context in which a particular behavior occurs.
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When Susan learned that infants in Mayan families in Guatemala often sleep in their mother's bed until the child is two or three years old, she expressed her surprise that the Mayan culture was so "backward" compared with American culture. Susan's views are a good example of _____ in action. a) demand characteristics b) expectancy effects c) normative social influence d) ethnocentrism
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d) ethnocentrism
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When President John F. Kennedy was hit by a sniper's bullet in the back of his head, he died almost instantly, because the bullet destroyed the part of his brain called the _____, which controls breathing, heartbeat, and other vital body functions. a) medulla b) amygdala c) thalamus d) hippocampus
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a) medulla
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Parkinson's disease is caused by the degeneration of neurons that produce: a) acetylcholine. b) GABA. c) dopamine. d) norepinephrine.
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c) dopamine.
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Information is transmitted along the axon: a) at the speed of light or 186,000 miles per second. b) by chemical substances called neurotransmitters. c) in the form of a brief electrical impulse. d) by glial cells.
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c) in the form of a brief electrical impulse.
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What was the logic behind the first split-brain operations that were tried experimentally with humans? a) By cutting the corpus callosum, the brain would be forced to use the left and right hemispheres for different functions. b) By removing the precise brain location where epileptic seizures originated, the seizures should stop. c) By selectively removing portions of the left hemisphere, language functions should shift to the right hemisphere. d) By cutting the corpus callosum, seizure activity should be contained in just one hemisphere of the brain.
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d) By cutting the corpus callosum, seizure activity should be contained in just one hemisphere of the brain.
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The brain's ability to physically change in response to environmental stimulation is called: a) functional plasticity. b) neurogenesis. c) aphasia. d) structural plasticity.
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d) structural plasticity.
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Which statement most accurately describes the length of axons? a) The length of axons can range from a few thousandths of an inch to 3 or 4 feet. b) The length of any particular axon changes depending upon whether muscles are stretched or clenched. c) Most axons are approximately one-tenth of an inch long. d) Most axons are several feet long.
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a) The length of axons can range from a few thousandths of an inch to 3 or 4 feet.
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The primary communication link between the left and right cerebral hemispheres is called: a) the hypothalamus. b) Broca's area c) the hippocampus. d) the corpus callosum.
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d) the corpus callosum.
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The discoveries of Pierre Paul Broca and Karl Wernicke: a) provided compelling evidence that language and speech functions are lateralized on the left hemisphere. b) provided compelling evidence that language and speech functions are lateralized on the right hemisphere. c) discredited the idea of cortical localization.
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a) provided compelling evidence that language and speech functions are lateralized on the left hemisphere.
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What occurs during the refractory period? a) Neurotransmitters are released by the dendrites. b) The neuron depolarizes. c) The neuron reestablishes the negative-inside/positive-outside condition. d) The charge of the neuron's interior increases to about +60 millivolts.
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c) The neuron reestablishes the negative-inside/positive-outside condition.
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Which of the following is TRUE of glial cells? a) They assist neurons by providing nutrition, structural support, and by removing waste products. b) They are neurons that specifically signal muscles to relax or contract. c) They are a type of neuron whose primary function is to communicate information from one neuron to the next. d) They are neurons that are specialized for conveying information to the brain from receptor cells in the sense organs and internal organs.
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a) They assist neurons by providing nutrition, structural support, and by removing waste products.
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Which of the following is NOT a hindbrain structure? a) pons b) cerebellum c) medulla d) hypothalamus
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d) hypothalamus
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Which of the following is TRUE regarding the development and growth of new neurons in the human brain? a) Animals such as primates, birds, and rodents do not experience neurogenesis. b) Glial cells of human brains continue to reproduce and grow in number through adulthood but neurons do not. c) There is no evidence that the human brain continues to develop new neurons after birth. d) The human brain has the capacity to generate new neurons throughout the lifespan.
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d)The human brain has the capacity to generate new neurons throughout the lifespan.
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Which brain structure exerts considerable influence over the secretion of hormones throughout the body? a) the hypothalamus b) the hippocampus c) the thalamus d) the amygdala
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a) the hypothalamus
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Too little dopamine in the brain is associated with symptoms of: a) schizophrenia. b) Alzheimer's disease. c) anxiety. d) Parkinson's disease
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d) Parkinson's disease
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The peripheral nervous system is made up of: a) the brain. b) the brain and the spinal cord. c) all the nerves lying outside the central nervous system. d) motor neurons.
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c) all the nerves lying outside the central nervous system.
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As you are walking on a beach, you pick up an odd-looking seashell that has a very rough texture. As you rub your fingers over the shell, the sensory messages are communicated via the _____ nervous system to the central nervous system. a) parasympathetic b) somatic c) autonomic d) sympathetic
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b) somatic
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The analogy used in the book referred to the axon membrane as a "gatekeeper." This means that the membrane: a) uses the nodes of Ranvier to allow some ions to move out of the axon and neurotransmitters to move into the axon. b) operates in an "all-or-none" fashion, either opening to allow neurotransmitters to pass or not. c) determines whether an action potential will "pass" through the axon. d) controls the balance of positive and negative ions in the interior and the exterior of the axon.
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d) controls the balance of positive and negative ions in the interior and the exterior of the axon.
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Standing at an arrival gate, you scan the faces of the passengers as they walk off the plane, looking for your friend. This visual information is being processed in your: a) occipital lobe. b) temporal lobe. c) frontal lobe. d) parietal lobe
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a) occipital lobe.
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Neurons are: a) highly specialized cells that produce myelin. b) found in primates and humans, but not in other animals. c) found only in the spinal cord and bone marrow. d) highly specialized cells that receive and transmit information from one area of the body to another.
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d) highly specialized cells that receive and transmit information from one area of the body to another
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What keeps an action potential continuing down an axon? a) Ion channels open and close at the nodes of Ranvier, allowing neurotransmitters to enter into the axon and regenerate an action potential at each node. b) Neurotransmitters are constantly being released to generate the action potential at each successive segment of the axon. c) At each successive segment of the axon, the action potential is regenerated by depolarization and the movement of ions across the axon's membrane. d) Action potentials are conducted down the axon just as electricity is conducted through a wire.
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c) At each successive segment of the axon, the action potential is regenerated by depolarization and the movement of ions across the axon's membrane.
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According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Red-green color blindness is caused by the absence of the red-green opponent pair. b) Red and green receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. c) Red and blue receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited. d) Cones are sensitive to either red, green, yellow, or blue.
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b) Red and green receptors cannot be stimulated simultaneously; if one is activated, the other is inhibited.
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When you were younger, you probably had your hearing checked. Headphones were placed over your ears and you were to respond when you heard a sound. You were being tested for your hearing: a) accommodation potential. b) threshold. c) transduction. d) sensory adaptation.
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b) threshold
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Both theories (trichromatic and opponent-process) of color vision are accurate. A) True B) False
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A) True
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Which theory best explains color vision in humans? a) the trichromatic theory b) the opponent-process theory c) both the opponent-process theory and the trichromatic theory d) both the place theory and the frequency theory
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c) both the opponent-process theory and the trichromatic theory
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In contrast to sensation, the term perception is formally defined as the: a) way in which different areas of the brain interact. b) active mental process of understanding the meaning of a difficult new concept. c) the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure. d) active mental process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory data.
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d) active mental process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory data.
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The smallest possible stimulus that can be detected half the time, or the minimum level of stimuli that we can detect is called: a) the absolute threshold. b) the perceptual threshold. c) subliminal perception. d) the just noticeable difference, or difference threshold.
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a) the absolute threshold.
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Herman von Helmholtz proposed the Trichromatic Theory of vision. A) True B) False
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A) True
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The smallest possible difference between two stimuli that can be detected is called the: a) difference threshold, or just noticeable difference. b) the absolute threshold. c) transduction threshold. d) subliminal difference
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a) difference threshold, or just noticeable difference.
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Which of the following phenomena can be explained by the trichromatic theory of color vision? a) the blind spot b) red-green color blindness c) afterimages d) glow-in-the-dark paint
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b) red-green color blindness
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The sensory receptor cells for vision are sensitive to what kind of stimulus? a) chemical molecules b) heat c) airborne molecules d) light
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d) light
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The process of integrating, organizing, and interpreting sensory information in a way that is meaningful is called: a) kinesthesia. b) perception. c) sensation. d) transduction
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b) perception.
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Jill runs a hot bath. She starts to get into the tub but the water feels extremely hot. She stands in the hot water for a few moments, then slowly sits down, easing the rest of her body into the water. After a few minutes, she feels quite comfortable; the water no longer feels too hot to her. This decline in sensitivity to a constant stimulus that Jill has experienced is called: a) sensory saturation. b) sensory adaptation. c) bottom-up processing. d) transduction.
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b) sensory adaptation.
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Detecting the colors of a painting on the wall involves the process of _____, while interpreting those stimuli as the representation of a vase of flowers involves the process of _____. a) sensation; perception b) sensation; transduction c) kinesthesia; perception d) perception; sensation
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a) sensation; perception
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The process by which physical energy, such as light, is converted into a coded neural signal that can be transmitted to and interpreted by the brain is called: a) sensation. b) gate-control theory. c) transduction. d) the mere exposure effect
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c) transduction.
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In psychology, the term sensation formally refers to: a) the interpretation and organization of sensory stimuli. b) the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure. c) the transformation of physical energy into chemical energy. d) a vague feeling of excitement or pleasure.
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b) the process of detecting a physical stimulus such as light, sound, heat, or pressure.
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According to the opponent-process theory of color vision, the types of color receptors are: a) red, blue, green, and yellow. b) red/green, blue/yellow, and black/white. c) red, yellow, and blue. d) red/blue, green/yellow, and black/white.
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b) red/green, blue/yellow, and black/white.
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In order to answer this test item, you must read the words on this page. Detecting the black marks on the page relies on the process of _____, and the ability to interpret these black lines and curves as letters and words involves the process of _____. a) sensation; perception b) perception; sensation c) proprioception; sensory adaptation d) sensory adaptation; proprioception
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a) sensation; perception
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When Andrew had his hearing tested, some sounds were too soft for him to detect. These sounds were below his _____ for hearing. a) absolute threshold b) transduction threshold c) difference threshold d) Weber's threshold
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a) absolute threshold
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The perceived color of an object is determined by the: a) activation of rods in the retina of the eye. b) wavelength of light that an object reflects. c) activation of bipolar cells in the cornea. d) intensity of the light wave that strikes the pupil.
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b) wavelength of light that an object reflects.
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Marcel has red-green color blindness. In other words, Marcel: a) cannot tell the difference between red and green. b) sees the world in shades of black, white, and gray. c) sees the world in shades of red and green. d) sees the world in shades of blue and yellow.
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a) cannot tell the difference between red and green.
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The graphic record of brain activity produced by an electroencephalograph is called a(n): a) electromyogram (EMG). b) electroencephalogram or EEG. c) circadian rhythm. d) electrooculogram (EOG).
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b) electroencephalogram or EEG.
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Keeping circadian rhythms synchronized and operating on a 24-hour schedule: a) occurs naturally when people are deprived of all time cues. b) is normally impossible because of sleep spindles. c) involves the detection of sunlight by special photoreceptors in the eye and the communication of this information to the brain. d) involves the release of the neurotransmitter hypocretin by the hypothalamus.
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c) involves the detection of sunlight by special photoreceptors in the eye and the communication of this information to the brain.
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Sleepwalking, or somnambulism, is characterized by: a) episodes of going to the kitchen and eating compulsively during NREM sleep. b) an episode of walking or performing other actions usually during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep. c) increased physiological arousal and terrifying and frightening experiences that last for a few seconds. d) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep.
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b) an episode of walking or performing other actions usually during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep.
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Sleep disorders involving undesirable physical arousal, behaviors, or events during sleep, or sleep transitions are called: a) parasomnias. b) dissociative anesthesias. c) dyssomnias. d) delirium tremens
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a) parasomnias.
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Sleep disorders involve: a) a consistent need to sleep eight hours or more per night and an intense desire to have afternoon naps. b) regular sleep disruptions that do not cause subjective distress. c) consistently occurring abnormal sleep patterns that cause subjective distress and interfere with a person's daytime functioning. d) symptoms that resemble stimulant-induced psychosis.
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c) consistently occurring abnormal sleep patterns that cause subjective distress and interfere with a person's daytime functioning.
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When he is asleep, Doug's airway becomes narrowed or blocked, causing very shallow breathing and repeated pauses in breathing. This happens from 5 to 30 or more times per hour and disrupts his sleep. Doug suffers from: a) obstructive sleep apnea. b) cataplexy. c) narcolepsy. d) somnambulism.
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a) obstructive sleep apnea.
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Seventy-year-old Mr. Gregory has a sleep disorder caused by a failure of the brain mechanisms that normally suppress voluntary actions during REM sleep, and he verbally and physically responds to an unfolding dream story. He remembers what happens in vivid detail upon awakening. Gregory suffers from: a) REM sleep behavior disorder. b) sleep-related eating disorder. c) obstructive sleep apnea. d) sleepwalking disorder
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a) REM sleep behavior disorder.
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A parasomnia called _____ involves sharply increased physiological arousal, restlessness, sweating, a racing heart, and intense fear accompanied by a panic-stricken scream or cry for help with no recollection of the episode in the morning. a) REM sleep behavior disorder b) somnambulism c) sleep terrors d) sexsomnia
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c) sleep terrors
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Which of the following characterizes obstructive sleep apnea? a) The individual suddenly loses voluntary muscle control and strength, usually collapsing to the floor. b) As the person is waking up but is not yet fully awake, he or she feels as though they are unable to move. c) The sleeper repeatedly stops breathing during sleep. d) The dreamer is able to control and guide the dream's story.
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c) The sleeper repeatedly stops breathing during sleep.
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A therapy used to treat obstructive sleep apnea that involves a special mask and a machine that gently blows air into the sleeper's throat, keeping the airway from becoming too narrow or blocked, is called: a) SRED. b) OSA. c) CPAP. d) RBD.
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c) CPAP.
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A parasomnia that involves abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during NREM stage 3 and 4 slow-wave sleep, such as masturbation, sleep-sex talking, groping or fondling their bed partner's genitals, or sexual intercourse, is called: a) narcolepsy. b) RBD. c) somnambulism. d) sleepsex.
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d) sleepsex.
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Fred volunteered for a sleep deprivation study. After he is deprived of sleep for two nights: a) it is very probable that he will experience disruptions in mood, mental abilities, reaction time, perceptual skills, and complex motor skills. b) it is very probable that he will develop one of the most common dyssomnias, transient insomnia. c) he is very likely to experience episodes of bed wetting. d) he will feel refreshed and alert once he gets his "second wind
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a) it is very probable that he will experience disruptions in mood, mental abilities, reaction time, perceptual skills, and complex motor skills.
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The cycles of NREM sleep and REM sleep begin: a) almost immediately after birth. b) during fetal development. c) when the infant is about one year old. d) about six months after birth.
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b) during fetal development.
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Sleep-related eating disorder (SRED) involves: a) episodes of walking or performing other actions that typically occur during NREM stage 3 or 4 slow-wave sleep. b) abnormal sexual behaviors and experiences during sleep. c) increased physiological arousal and terrifying and frightening experiences that last for a few seconds. d) episodes of frequent sleepwalking to the kitchen and compulsive eating during stage 3 and 4 NREM slow-wave sleep, with no memory of the episodes upon awakening in the morning.
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d) episodes of frequent sleepwalking to the kitchen and compulsive eating during stage 3 and 4 NREM slow-wave sleep, with no memory of the episodes upon awakening in the morning.
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It was the famous American psychologist named _____ who described consciousness as being like a river or a stream. a) Sigmund Freud b) Ernest Hilgard c) J. Allan Hobson d) William James
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d) William James
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For several nights in a row, a sleep researcher wakes you up whenever you show signs of entering REM sleep. On the first night that you are allowed to sleep uninterrupted, you will most likely experience: a) REM rebound. b) very little REM sleep. c) microsleeps. d) a dramatic increase in stages 3 and 4 NREM sleep
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a) REM rebound.
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Mrs. Wilkinson notices that her middle-aged husband stops breathing in his sleep, awakens slightly to gulp in air, then goes back to sleep. This happens several times a night. Mr. Wilkinson is displaying symptoms of which of the following sleep disorders? a) microsleeps b) narcolepsy c) obstructive sleep apnea d) REM sleep behavior disorder
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c) obstructive sleep apnea
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Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is therapy used to treat _____ and involves a special mask and a machine that gently blows air into the sleeper's throat, keeping the airway from becoming too narrow or blocked. a) sexsomnia b) narcolepsy c) cataplexy d) obstructive sleep apnea
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d) obstructive sleep apnea
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REM is an acronym that stands for: a) rapid eye movements. b) restless eye movements. c) random eye motion. d) rapid ear movements.
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a) rapid eye movements.
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An unfolding sequence of perceptions, thoughts, and emotions during sleep (usually REM), that is experienced as a series of real-life events is a description of: a) hypnosis. b) a hypnagogic hallucination. c) sleep mentation. d) a dream.
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d) a dream.
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The basic strategy for overcoming learned helplessness is to: a) withdraw from the situation. b) displace the frustration onto another object. c) acquire a sense of control and mastery over challenging circumstances. d) use punishment by application to suppress undesirable behaviors.
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c) acquire a sense of control and mastery over challenging circumstances.
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Fred's dog was classically conditioned to salivate at the sound of a bell. Fred then repeatedly paired the bell with another stimulus, a whistle. Now whenever he blows the whistle, his dog salivates, even though the whistle has never been paired with food. This example illustrates: a) a placebo response. b) higher order conditioning (second-order conditioning). c) spontaneous recovery. d) biological preparedness
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b) higher order conditioning (second-order conditioning).
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If you touch something hot, you will reflexively withdraw your hand. Using Pavlov's terminology, reflexively withdrawing your hand would be termed a(n): a) unconditioned response (UCR). b) conditioned stimulus (CS). c) unconditioned stimulus (UCS). d) conditioned response (CR).
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a) unconditioned response (UCR).
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After lightning caused an electrical power surge and damaged his computer, Damon no longer turns his computer on during thunderstorms. This change in Damon's behavior is the result of: a) shaping. b) positive reinforcement. c) punishment. d) negative reinforcement
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c) punishment.
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The early "school" or approach to psychology called behaviorism emphasized which of the following ideas? a) the scientific study of the cognitive process involved in human and animal intelligence b) the scientific study of observable behaviors rather than mental processes c) the scientific study of mental processes in humans and animals d) the scientific study of how associations are formed between mental events and overt behaviors
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b) the scientific study of observable behaviors rather than mental processes
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A shuttlebox was used by: a) Martin Seligman and Steven Maier to demonstrate the phenomenon of learned helplessness. b) B. F. Skinner to demonstrate the phenomenon of shaping. c) Ivan Pavlov to demonstrate the phenomenon of stimulus generalization. d) John Garcia to demonstrate the phenomenon of taste aversions
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a) Martin Seligman and Steven Maier to demonstrate the phenomenon of learned helplessness.
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A deficiency in the neurotransmitters _____ seems to be associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder. a) serotonin and glutamate b) serotonin and norepinephrine c) lithium and dopamine d) dopamine and glutamate
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b) serotonin and norepinephrine
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The term elicited is: a) used in operant conditioning and means that the response is emitted in order to obtain a reward or avoid punishment. b) used in observational learning to refer to obtaining an imitative response, such as using a jump rope or swinging a baseball bat. c) used in operant conditioning to refer to creating a new response to inescapable punishment, such as passivity or unresponsiveness. d) used in classical conditioning and means that the stimulus "draws out" or causes an existing behavior to occur.
answer
d) used in classical conditioning and means that the stimulus "draws out" or causes an existing behavior to occur.
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In a series of studies, Thorndike put hungry cats into specially constructed cages called "puzzle boxes." There was a plate of food just outside the cage where the cats could see and smell it. At the end of his studies, Thorndike concluded that the cats: a) were able to escape so quickly because of their insight and reasoning abilities. b) were classically conditioned to fear the puzzle box. c) were classically conditioned to salivate at the sight of the puzzle box. d) used trial and error to escape from the puzzle box.
answer
d) used trial and error to escape from the puzzle box.
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What was the conditioned response (CR) in Watson and Rayner's famous "Little Albert" study? a) fear in response to the sight of the rat b) fear in response to the loud clanging sound c) the loud clanging sound d) the sight of the white rat
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a) fear in response to the sight of the rat
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Which of the following examples reflects a symptom of an anxiety disorder rather than normal anxiety? a) For the past several weeks, Mavis has been unable to concentrate at work because she keeps thinking that something terrible might happen to her son at school, even though she knows that he's safe. b) The night before his final exam, Bill is unable to sleep because he is worried about doing well on the test. c) Barbara has just found out that her company has been sold, and she is very worried that she might lose her job. d) Seth is upset because his girlfriend told him she wants to start dating other guys, and he is afraid that she will break up with him.
answer
a) For the past several weeks, Mavis has been unable to concentrate at work because she keeps thinking that something terrible might happen to her son at school, even though she knows that he's safe.
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Positive reinforcement _____ the likelihood of a behavior's being repeated. Negative reinforcement _____ the likelihood of a behavior's being repeated. a) increases; increases b) increases; decreases c) decreases; increases d) decreases; decreases
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a) increases; increases
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Essentially, classical conditioning is a process of: a) learning that consequences follow a voluntarily emitted behavior. b) learning new responses by observing others' behaviors. c) learning an association between two stimuli. d) learning the relationship between a behavior and a reinforcer.
answer
c) learning an association between two stimuli.
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Which of the following alternatives to punishment represents the BEST method for reducing a problem behavior? a) Jose is reinforced for working quietly in class instead of being punished for talking in class. b) Shane and Jason have to stay after school because they had a fight at the start of class in the morning. c) Charlene is picked up and cuddled whenever she has a temper tantrum. d) Because of her defiant behavior,
answer
a) Jose is reinforced for working quietly in class instead of being punished for talking in class.
question
In operant conditioning, reinforcement: a) is based upon behaviors that are elicited by discriminative stimuli. b) is defined as any stimulus that automatically elicits an unconditioned response (UCR). c) is defined by the effect that it produces—increasing or strengthening behavior. d) is defined as any stimulus that automatically elicits a conditioned response (CR).
answer
c) is defined by the effect that it produces—increasing or strengthening behavior.
question
The ability to learn a novel behavior through observation has been demonstrated in: a) all animal species, including insects, worms, and protozoa. b) humans and other primates but not in lower animals. c) animals as diverse as hamsters, starlings, Japanese quail, rats, chimpanzees, and humans. d) adult humans and adolescents but not in children.
answer
c) animals as diverse as hamsters, starlings, Japanese quail, rats, chimpanzees, and humans
question
According to your text, the phenomenon of learned helplessness has been demonstrated in: a) athletic teams and students. b) cats and dogs. c) cockroaches and fish. d) All of these answers are correct.
answer
d) All of these answers are correct.
question
Lou Ann has been diagnosed with a psychological disorder called agoraphobia. Lou Ann is afraid of: a) heights. b) having a panic attack in a public place. c) her home. d) lightning
answer
b) having a panic attack in a public place.
question
Six-year-old Blair liked going to school right up until her first-grade teacher, Ms. Hanemayer, took maternity leave. The substitute teacher, old Mrs. Snarly, was strict and scolded Blair on several occasions, making her cry. On one Saturday morning as Blair was helping her father with grocery shopping, she suddenly came face to face with old Mrs. Snarly. Blair instantly burst into tears. Blair's crying at just the sight of Mrs. Snarly is an example of: a) instinctive drift. b) an unconditioned stimulus. c) a conditioned response. d) an unconditioned response.
answer
c) a conditioned response.
question
Whenever Stephanie changes the engine air filter in her car, she unscrews the two bolts that hold the filter cover on, then places the two bolts by the car's front tire to avoid dropping (and losing) them in the car's engine. Using operant conditioning terminology, placing the bolts by the tire is: a) the operant that is being negatively reinforced. b) the operant that is being positively reinforced. c) an operant that is being reinforced on a fixed-interval schedule. d) an unconditioned response that is being positively reinforced.
answer
a) the operant that is being negatively reinforced.
