Microbiology Test 4 Chaps 18-21 – Flashcards
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| Q18.1q1 The integument includes all of the following except A)Surface capillaries B)Nails C)Skin D)Sweat glands E)Hair |
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| Answer: A)Surface capillaries |
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| Q18.1q2 Blisters are A)Originate in the dermis B)Result from a separation of the epidermis 100% from the dermis C)Confined to the epidermis D)Originate in the subcutaneous layer |
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| Answer: B)Result from a separation of the epidermis 100% from the dermis |
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| Q18.1q3 Protective features of the skin include all but A)Resident biota B)High salt content C)Lysozyme D)High pH E)Keratinized surface |
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| Answer: D)High pH |
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| Q18.1q4 What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage and microorganism entryA)Salt B)Keratin C)Sweat D)Lysozyme E)Sebum |
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| Answer: B)Keratin |
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| Q18.1q5 What enzyme is NOT found in S. epidermis but is found in S. aureusA)Lysozyme B)Catalase C)Peroxidase D)Lipase E)Coagulase |
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| Answer: E)Coagulase |
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| Q18.1q6 The causative agent of acne is A)Propionibacterium acnes B)Staphylococcus aureus C)Corneybacterium diphtheriae D)Micrococcus luteus E)Streptococcus epidermis |
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| Answer: A)Propionibacterium acnes |
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| Q18.1q7 The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in Scalded Skin Syndrome is: A)Hemolysin B)Enterotoxin C)Erythrogenic toxin D)Exfoliative toxin E)Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin |
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| Answer: D)Exfoliative toxin |
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| Q18.1q8 Streptococcus pyrogenes causes all of the following EXCEPT: A)Scalded Skin Syndrome B)Impetigo C)Erysipelas D)Necrotizing fasciitis E)Scarlet Fever |
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| Answer: A)Scalded Skin Syndrome |
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| Q18.1q9 This organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis A)Clostridium botulinum B)Clostridium perfringens C)Clostridium difficile D)Clostridium tetani E)All of these are correct |
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| Answer: B)Clostridium perfringens |
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| Q18.1q10 This disease is a chronic progressive disease of the skin and nerves caused by Mycobacterium leprae A)Leishmaniasis B)Erysipelas C)Hansen's disease D)Scalded Skin Syndrome E)Reye's Syndrome |
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| Answer: C)Hansen's disease |
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| Q18.2q1 The smallpox vaccine uses the ______virus A)Vaccinia B)Herpes virus 8 C)Herpes virus 6 D)Small pox E)Herpes simplex |
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| Answer: A)Vaccinia |
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| Q18.2q2 Chickenpox A)Is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions B)Is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne speed of lesion material C)Has an incubation of 10-20 days D)Has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Q18.2q3 Varicella-zoster virus A)Uses the respiratory epithelium as a portal of entry B)Becomes latent in the dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatones C)Has humans as its reservoir D)Causes Chickenpox and shingles E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Q18.2q4 Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with A)Influenza B)Measles (Rubeola) C)Croup D)Rubella E)Mumps |
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| Answer: B)Measles (Rubeola) |
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| Q18.2q5 Which of the following is incorrect about wartsA)Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal B)Include deep plantar warts on the soles of feet C)Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites D)Are frequently cancerous E)Caused by HPV |
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| Answer: D)Are frequently cancerous |
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| Q18.2q6 Anthrax is A)Transmitted primarily via tick bites B)Transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion C)A disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia D)Never seen in the US |
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| Answer: B)Transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion |
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| Q18.2q7 Which of the following is NOT a causative agent of cutaneous mycosesA)Malassezia furfur B)Microsporum C)Trichophyton D)Epidermophyton |
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| Answer: A)Malassezia furfur |
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| Q18.2q8 Tinea pedis = Ringworm of the foot Tinea curis = Ringworm of the groin Tinea corporis = Ringworm of the body Tinea Unguium = Ringworm of the nails Tinea Capitis = Ringworm of the scalp |
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| Answers on other side |
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| Q18.2q9 What eye disease is characterized by pannus forming over the corneaA)Keratitis B)Simple conjunctivitis C)River blindness D)Trachoma E)Sty |
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| Answer: D)Trachoma |
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| Q18.2q10 River blindness is A)Transmitted by mosquito vector B)A disease in which worms can invade the eyes C)Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti D)Caused by a flood fluke |
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| Answer: B)A disease in which worms can invade the eyes |
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| Q19.1q1 Which tip of neuroglia has phagocytic capabilities in the CNSA)Astrocytes B)Macrophages C)Microglial cells D)Neurons E)Schwann cells |
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| Answer: C)Microglial cells |
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| Q19.1q2 The normal biota of the CNS consists of A)Neisseria meningitidis B)Herpes simplex I C)Herpes simplex II D)Streptococcus agalactiae E)The CNS has no normal biota |
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| Answer: E)The CNS has no normal biota |
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| Q19.1q3 Which of the following is a sign of meningitisA)Headache B)Stiff neck C)White blood cells in CSG D)Fever E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Q19.1q4 Meningococci initially colonize the... A)Nasopharynx B)Eustacian tube C)Lacrimal ducts D)tongue E)Oral mucosa |
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| Answer: A)Nasopharynx |
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| Q19.1q5 Treatment for Neisseria meningitides consists of several possible drugs. Which of the following is the MOST potent and is typically given in high doses as a first line of defense for existing infectionsA)Penicillin G orally B)Rifampin C)Vancomycin D)Penicillin G intravenously E)Tetracycline |
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| Answer: D)Penicillin G intravenously |
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| Q19.1q6 Which of the following is NOT true of streptococcus pneumoniaA)Produces alpha-hemolysin and H2O2 B)Most frequent cause of community acquired meningitis C)Small gram + flattened coccus D)Responds well to Penicillin E)Has a polysaccharide capsule that resists phagocytosis |
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| Answer: D)Responds well to Penicillin |
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| Q19.1q7 The virulence of Haemophilus influenza serotype be is associated with its A)Enterotoxin B)Fimbriae C)Capsule D)Ribosomes E)Neurotoxin |
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| Answer: C)Capsule |
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| Q19.1q8 Cryptococcus neoformans is a A)Protozoan B)Bacteria C)Worm D)Fungus E)Virus |
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| Answer: D)Fungus |
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| Q19.1q9 Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by A)Exposure in the birth canal B)Transplacental infection C)Hospital personnel D)Breast feeding E)Exposure from other infants |
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| Answer: A)Exposure in the birth canal B)Transplacental infection |
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| Q19.1q10 The organism found in powdered baby formula which can cause meningitis is: A)Cryptococcus neoformans B)Streptococcus agalactiae C)Enterobacter sakazakii D)Lactococcus lactis E)Escherchia coli 0157:H7 |
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| Answer: C)Enterobacter sakazakii |
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| Q19.2q1 Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a A)algae B)Helminth C)protozoan D)bacteria E)virus |
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| Answer: E)virus |
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| Q19.2q2 The best defense against arbor viruses is A)prompt treatment with acyclovir B)prophylactic rifampin C)vaccination in immunoglobulin D)vector control |
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| Answer: D)vector control |
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| Q19.2q3 Which of the following has the highest mortality rateA)Eastern Equine Encephalitis B)Western Equine Encephalitis C)St. Louis Encephalitis D)West Nile Virus E)California Encephalitis |
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| Answer: A)Eastern Equine Encephalitis |
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| Q19.2q4 What organism is the main reservoir and host for Toxoplasma gondiiA)Cat B)Dog C)Mosquito D)Raccoon E)Human |
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| Answer: A)Cat |
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| Q19.2q5 Spongiform encephalopathies are A)Associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain B)Chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system C)Caused by prions D)Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, Kuru, and Gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Q19.2q6 Subacute encephalitis may be caused by A)Prions, persistent measles, virus, and toxoplasma gondii B)Toxoplasma gondii C)persistent measles virus D)Herpes simplex virus E)Prions |
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| Answer: A)Prions, persistent measles virus, and toxoplasma gondii |
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| Q19.2q7 Treatment of an animal bite (on a human) for possible rabies includes A)Debridement B)Washing bite with soap/detergent C)Infusing the wound with human rabies immune glob in (HRIG) D)Post-exposure vaccination with inactive vaccine E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above are correct |
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| Q19.2q8 The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is A)Inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk B)Oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk C)Inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin D)Oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin |
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| Answer: A)Inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk |
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| Q19.2q9 Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of A)Clostridium botulinum B)Clostridium perfringens C)Clostridium difficile D)Clostridium tetani E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: D)Clostridium tetani |
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| Q19.2q10 Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of A)Clostridium botulinum B)Clostridium perfringens C)Clostridium difficile D)Clostridium tetani E)None of the above are correct |
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| Answer: A)Clostridium botulinum |
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| Q20.1q1 The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the A)Ectocardium B)Myocardium C)Pericardium D)Epicardium E)Endocardium |
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| Answer: C)Pericardium |
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| Q20.1q2 ___________ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the bloodstream A)Bacteremia B)Septicemia C)Fungemia D)Viremia E)Hemovirus |
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| Answer: B)Septicemia |
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| Q20.1q3 Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through A)Casual contact B)Ingestion C)Fomites D)Droplets E)Parenteral entry |
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| Answer: E)Parenteral entry |
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| Q20.1q4 Septicemic form = called Black Death Bubonic form = Buboes develop Pneumonic form = Sputum highly contagious Disease control = control of rodent populations |
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| Q20.1q5 Which is NOT associated with TularemiaA)Sometimes called Rabbit Fever B)A zoonosis C)Transmitted by arthropod vectors D)A gram + bacterium E)Symptoms include: Fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, pneumonia |
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| Answer: D)A gram + bacterium |
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| Q20.1q6 Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the point of entry is associated with A)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever B)Plague C)Q Fever D)Lyme Disease E)Yellow Fever |
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| Answer: D)Lyme Disease |
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| Q20.1q7 Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include: A)Fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis B)Vesicular lesions in oral mucosa C)Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly D)None of these are correct E)Fever and pocks on skin |
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| Answer: C)Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly |
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| Q20.1q8 Cytomegalovirus A)Causes the most prevalent fetal infection B)Is transmitted by saliva, mucus, milk, urine, semen, cervical secretions, and feces C)Can be sexually transmitted D)Is commonly carried in the latent state E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Q20.1q9 Which of the following is a hemorrhagic feverA)Yellow fever B)Cat scratch fever C)Trench fever D)Q fever E)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever |
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| Answer: A)Yellow fever |
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| Q20.1q10 Which of the following is NOT true of Ebola and MarburgA)Disruption of clotting factors B)There is no treatment C)Caused by filoviruses D)Transmitted by direct contact with body fluids E)Transmitted by mosquitoes |
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| Answer: E)Transmitted by mosquitoes |
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| Q20.2q1 Brucellosis is: A)A zoonosis B)Seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness C)Associated with a pathogen in the blood D)An occupational illness of people who work with animals E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Q20.2q2 the gram negative bacillus associated with abscesses from cat bites or scratches is A)Yershinia enterocolitica B)Francisella tularensis C)Bartonella henselae D)Salmonella typhimurium E)Brucella suis |
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| Answer: C)Bartonella henselae |
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| Q20.2q3 Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Q FeverA)Humans infected from unpasteurized milk and airborne spread B)Is a zoonosis C)Cause fever, muscle aches, rash, and sometimes pneumonia D)Pathogen produces resistant spores E)Transmitted by lice |
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| Answer: E)Transmitted by lice |
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| Q20.2q4 Matching Yersinia pestis = plague Coxiella burnetii = Q-Fever Bartonella quintanta = Trench fever Bartonella henselae = Cat scratch disease Rickettsia rickettsii = Rocky Mountain spotted fever |
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| Q20.2q5 The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48-72 hour episodes in a malaria patient are: A)Urinary frequency and pain and vaginal discharge B)Chills, fever, and sweating C)Fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain D)Bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss E)Sore throat, low grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes |
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| Answer: B)Chills, fever, and sweating |
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| Q20.2q6 Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all of the following EXCEPT A)Spore-former B)Capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors C)Reservoir include grazing animals and contaminated soil D)Anaerobic E)Gram positive bacillus |
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| Answer: D)Anaerobic |
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| Q20.2q7 A common cardiovascular/ lymph system disease in AIDS patients is: A)Brucellosis B)Eherlichioses C)Acute endocarditis D)Burkitt's lymphoma E)Scarlet fever |
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| Answer: D)Burkitt's lymphoma |
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| Q20.2q8 Documented transmission of HIV involves: A)Mosquitos B)Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products C)Respiratory droplets D)Contaminated foods E)All of the above choices are correct |
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| Answer: B)Unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products |
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| Q20.2q9 Which drugs interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virusA)Reverse transcriptase inhibitors B)Protease inhibitors C)Fusion inhibitors D)Integrase inhibitors E)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: B)Protease inhibitors |
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| Q20.2q10 A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is A)Melanoma B)Kaposi's sarcoma C)Myeloma D)Hodgkin's lymphoma E)Leukemia |
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| Answer: B)Kaposi's sarcoma |
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| Q21q1 Normal biota of the lower respiratory tract include A)Crynebactyerium B)Candida Albicans C)Haemophilus influenzae D)Staphylococcus aureus E)None of the above choices are correct = There is no normal biota of the lower respiratory tract |
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| Answer: E)None of the above choices are correct = There is no normal biota of the lower respiratory tract |
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| Q21q2 Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the... A)Sinuses B)Nasal cavity C)Eustachian tube(s) D)Subarachnoid space E)Oval window |
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| Answer: C)Eustachian tube(s) |
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| Q21q3 The most common causative agent of the otitis media is: A)Streptococcus pneumoniae B)Haemophilus influenzae C)Candida albicans D)Aspergillus fumigatus E)Corynebacterium |
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| Answer: A)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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| Q21q4 Which of the following is NOT true of S. pyogenesA)Sensitive to bacitracin B)Beta-hemolytic C)Gram + D)Group A streptococcus E)Forms spores |
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| Answer: E)Forms spores |
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| Q21q5 Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in A)Pharyngitis B)Diphtheria C)SARS D)Tuberculosis E)Pertussis |
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| Answer: B)Diphtheria |
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| Q21q6 The enzyme associated with the influence virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating the respiratory tract is A)Neuraminidase B)Catalase C)Hyaluronidase D)Reverse transcriptase E)Kinase |
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| Answer: A)Neuraminidase |
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| Q21q7 Tuberculin skin testing A)injects PPD intradermally B)Uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis C)Will be positive if the person has had previous exposure to TB D)Will be positive in active TB E)All of these choices are correct |
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| Answer: E)All of these choices are correct |
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| Q21q8 Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable mistersA)Legionellosis B)Plague C)Brucellosis D)Pertussin E)Traveler's diarrhea |
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| Answer: A)Legionellosis |
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| Q21q9 The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is A)Pneumovax B)DTaP C)MMR D)Hib E)Protolactive |
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| Answer: D)Hib |
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| Q21q10 This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients A)Candida albicans B)None of these are correct C)Pneumocystis (carinii)) jiroveci D)Malassezia furfur E)Cryptococcus neoformans |
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| Answer: C)Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci |
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| Ch18q1 Which of the following enzymes is most specifically associated with Staphylococcus aureusA)Catalase B)Coagulase C)Hemagglutinin D)Hemolysin |
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| Answer: B)Coagulase - unlike other staphylococci, S. aureus is coagulase-positive |
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| Ch18q2 Why are deep puncture wounds more apt to lead to gas gangrene than superficial cutsA)Less exposure to the immune system B)Better access to the circulatory system C)More likely to become anaerobic D)Less nutrients are available |
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| Answer: C)Clostridium perfringens requires an anaerobic environment for growth and spreading to take place |
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| Ch18q3 What location is affected by ringworm in Tinea BarbaeA)Scalp B)Beard C)Groin D)Nails |
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| Answer: B)Beard - Tinea Barbae affects the beard region |
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| Ch18q4 What vaccine would offer the best protection against chickenpox and shinglesA)Gardasil B)MMR C)Tdap D)Zostavax |
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| Answer: D)Zostavax - spread of the varicella-zoster virus can be controlled with Zostavax |
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| Ch19q1 What term refers to the red or purple spots found on the trunk area of some meningitis patientsA)Boils B)Koplik spots C)Petechiae D)Chancres |
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| Answer: C)Petechiae - petechiae form due to small hemorrhages |
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| Ch19q2 What is the leading cause of community acquired meningitisA)Neisseria meningitidis B)Streptococcus pneumoniae C)Haemophilus influenzae D)Listeria monocytogenes |
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| Answer: B)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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| Ch19q3 What is the best way to prevent food-borne botulissm in adultsA)Vaccination B)Avoid honey C)Thoroughly cook foods D)Proper canning of food |
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| Answer: D)Proper canning of food - The endospores of C. botulinum must be destroyed through proper canning and food preservaction |
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| Ch19q4 Which of these states has the highest incidences of coccidiosisA)Arizona B)Michigan C)Florida D)Maine |
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| Answer: C)Florida - solid media allowed microbiologists to streak for isolation and obtain pure cultures easily for the first time |
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| Ch19q5 What is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the United StatesA)EEE B)WEE C)SLE D)West Nile virus |
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| Answer: C)SLE - St. Louis encephalitis is generally recognized as the most common cause of acute encephalitis |
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| Ch20q1 Which of the following is most effective at preventing cases of Yersinia pestis infection in humansA)Vaccination B)Prophylactic antibiotic treatment C)Rodent control measures D)Flea bombs |
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| Answer: C)Rodent control measures |
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| Ch20q2 After going to the dentist for a cleaning, Fusobacterium nucleatum is detected in a patient's blood. This would best be termed ______________. A)Fungemia B)Septicemia C)Bacteremia D)Viremiasss |
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| Answer: C)Bacteremia - bacteremia refers to the presence of bacteria in the blood - introduced by the cleaning process in this case |
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| Ch20q3 What is the causative agent of Lyme DiseaseA)Borrelia burgdorferi B)Staphylococcus aureus C)Streptococcus pyogenes D)Francisella tularensis |
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| Answer: A)Borrelia burgdorferi - The spirochete, B. burgdorferi causes Lyme disease |
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| Ch20q4 Which of these states has the highest incidence of Rocky Mountain Spotted FeverA)Michigan B)Colorado C)Tennessee D)Montana |
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| Answer: C)Tennessee - RMSF actually is much more common in the Appalachian states |
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| Ch20q5 Which of the following is a bacterial diseaseA)Lassa fever B)Dengue fever C)Yellow fever D)Q fever |
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| Answer: D)Q fever - Coxiella burnetii is a Gram negative pathogen that causes Q fever |
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| Ch20q6 What type of toxin is produced by Bacillus anthracisA)Exotoxin B)Endotoxin C)A-B toxin D)All of the above are correct |
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| Answer: A bit of a trick question. There are three exotoxins produced with are of the A-B form. |
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| Ch20q7 Which of the following enzymes is NOT important for HIV replicationA)Reverse transcriptase B)Protease C)Ribonuclease D)Integrase |
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| Answer: C)Ribonuclease - only ribonuclease (an enzyme that degrades RNA) is not essential for HIV replication |
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| Ch21q1 Which portion of our respiratory system would have the least microbes in a healthy individualA)Nose B)Sinus C)Larynx D)Alveoli |
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| Answer: D)Alveoli - the lower respiratory tract is essentially sterile in healthy individuals |
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| Ch21q2 Which of these is most likely to result in damage to the heart valves following a bacterial infectionA)Diphtheria B)Scarlet fever C)Epiglottitis D)Rheumatic fever |
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| Answer: D)Rheumatic fever - cross-reaction of anti-protein M response against connective tissue can result in heart damage following Strep throat infections |
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| Ch21q3 Why is H5N1 bird flu not an IMMEDIATE threat as a human pathogenA)H5 is not efficient at attaching to our cells B)N1 is no effecient at leaving our cells C)The H5N1 virus is very drug susceptible D)The H5N1 virus is poorly transmitted in birds |
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| Answer: A)H5 is not efficient at attaching to our cells - H1, H2, and H3 are most efficient at binding to and infecting human cells |
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| Ch21q4 A friend of yours from Asia tested positive for the tuberculin skin test, but had a negative chest X-ray. What is most likely the cause of these resultsA)Primary tuberculosis B)Secondary tuberculosis C)Previous BCG vaccine given |
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| Answer: C)Previous BCG vaccine given - in Asia, the BCG vaccine is often given and can lead to false positives with the tuberculin skin test |
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| Ch21q5 What is the leading cause of community acquired bacterial pneumoniasA)Klebsiella pneumoniae B)Mycoplasma pneumoniae C)Chlamydophila pneumoniae D)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
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| Answer: D)Streptococcus pneumoniae - About two thirds of all community acquired pneumonias are cause d by S. pneumoniae |
