Microbiology FINAL Test Cards

question

T1Q1
T/F
Organisms that lack a nucleus within their cells are called helminthes
answer

False
question

T1Q2
T/F
A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a staphylococcus
answer

True
question

T1Q3
T/F
Fungi are Eukaryotes
answer

True
question

T1Q4
T/F
A trophozoite is the mobile feeding stage of a fungus
answer

False
question

T1Q5
T/F
Nutrient broth is classified a chemically defined media
answer

False
question

T1Q6
T/F
The main role of the agar found in many types of solid media is to provide nutritional value to the microorganisms
answer

False
question

T1Q7
T/F
The influenza virus contains ssDNA as its genetic material
answer

False
question

T1Q8
T/F
Archae are prokaryotic
answer

True
question

T1Q9
T/F
Fungi typically prefer more acidic conditions than “normal” bacteria
answer

True
question

T1Q10
T/F
Pinocytosis is one form of facilitated diffusion
answer

False
question

T1Q11
T/F
Cilia can be found on both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
answer

False
question

T1Q12
T/F
The cell walls of gram-negative bacteria contain techoic acid
answer

False
question

T1Q13
MC
A nucleated, green photosynthetic cell that moves by means of a single flagella is most likely a(n):
A)Fungus
B)Helminth
C)Bacterium
D)Alga
answer

Answer:
D)Alga
question

T1Q14
MC
Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three domain systemA)Archaea
B)Bacteria
C)Eukarya
D)Animalia
answer

Answer:
D)Animalia
question

T1Q15
MC
After returning from a trip to Africa, Tim begins to feel very tired and weak. He has sever anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan that is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tim he has malaria. Which of the following is the causative agentA)Toxoplasma gondii
B)Plasmodium falciparum
C)HIV
D)Typanosoma cruzi
answer

Answer:
B)Plasmodium falciparum
question

T1Q16
MC
Which of the following would be an example of bioremediationA)Using plants to manufacture antibiotics
B)Using bacteria to manufacture insulin
C)Using bacteria to clean up an oil spill
D)Using yeast cells to make bread
answer

Answer:
C)Using bacteria to clean up an oil spill
question

T1Q17
MC
Which of the following is TRUE about Joseph ListerA)He was the first to describe bacteria viewed under a microscope
B)He created a series of postulates for connecting a microorganism to a particular disease state
C)He advocated hand washing prior to surgery
D)He discovered the first antibiotic
answer

Answer:
C)He advocated hand washing prior to surgery
question

T1Q18
MC
Periplasmic flagella are found on which of the following:
A)E. coli cells
B)Yeasts
C)Euglena
D)Helminthes
E)Spirochetes
answer

Answer:
E)Spirochetes
question

T1Q19
MC
Which of the following is a viral GenusA)Orthopoxvirus
B)Smallpox
C)Filoviridae
D)Variola
E)Myoviridae
answer

Answer:
A)Orthopoxvirus
question

T1Q20
MC
The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the
A)Medium
B)Loop
C)Inoculum
D)Incubate
E)Culture
answer

Answer:
C)Inoculum
question

T1Q21
MC
Which of the following is most likely an opportunistic pathogenA)Obligate saprobe
B)Obligate parasite
C)Photoautotroph
D)Obligate intracellular parasite
E)Facultative saprobe
answer

Answer:
E)Facultative saprobe
question

T1Q22
MC
The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after completing a gram-stain should be which of the followingA)Brown
B)Purple
C)Colorless
D)Red
answer

Answer:
D)Red
question

T1Q23
MC
Which of the following bacteria genus has mycolic acid in its cell wallsA)Mycobacterium
B)Mycoplasma
C)Escherichia
D)Streptococcus
answer

Answer:
A)Mycobacterium
question

T1Q24
MC
Which of the following classes of organisms would use H2S as an energy sourceA)Photoheterotroph
B)Chemoautotroph
C)Chemoheterotroph
D)Photoautotroph
E)Lithotroph
answer

Answer:
E)Lithotroph
question

T1Q25
MC
Who’s postulates are used to prove that a microorganism causes a particular diseaseA)van Leeuwenhoek
B)Pasteur
C)Koch
D)Hooke
answer

Answer:
C)Koch
question

T1Q26
MC
A fastidious organism would grow best on which of the following mediaA)glucose minimum salts agar
B)Blood agar
C)nutrient broth
D)Tryptic soy agar
answer

Answer:
B)Blood agar
question

T1Q27
MC
Imagine you are a microorganism that has an outer membrane containing Lipid A. What type of life form are you:
A)Archae
B)Fungi
C)Gram Negative Bacteria
D)Gram Positive Bacteria
E)Plant
answer

Answer:
C)Gram Negative Bacteria
question

T1Q28
MC
Which of the following binomial names is formatted correctlyA)Staphylococcus a.
B)Staphylococcus aureus
C)Staphylococcus Aureus
D)staphylococcus aureus
answer

Answer:
B)Staphylococcus aureus
question

T1Q29
MC
Which of the following series of steps correctly describes the Gram-stain processA)Iodine, rinse, wash with acid alcohol, crystal violet, stain with safranin
B)Stain with safranin, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, crystal violet
C)Crystal violet, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, stain with safranin
D)Stain with safranin, wash with acid alcohol, iodine, rinse crystal violet
answer

Answer:
C)Crystal violet, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, stain with safranin
question

T1Q30
MC
Which of the following is the source of Agar used in microbiological mediaA)Rhodophyta
B)Dinophyta
C)Euglenophyta
D)Phaeophyta
E)Chlorophyta
answer

Answer:
A)Rhodophyta
question

T1Q31
MC
Which of the following is the correct mathematical formula for determining the pH of a solutionA)pH=[H20]pi
B)pH=-log[OH-]
C)pH=-log[H+]
D)pH=[H+]
answer

Answer:
C)pH=-log[H+]
question

T1Q32
MC
Which of the following characteristics refers to a microscope’s ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinctA)Refraction
B)Magnification
C)Resolving power
D)Condensation
answer

Answer:
C)Resolving power
question

T1Q33
MC
If you are using a compound microscope with an ocular lens of 10X power and an objective lens of 35X power, what is the magnification that you actually see with your eyesA)200X
B)350X
C)300X
D)150X
answer

Answer:
B)350X
question

T1Q34
MC
What do photoautotrophs use as their energy sourceA)CO
B)CO2
C)Light
D)Organic compounds
answer

Answer:
C)Light
question

T1Q35
MC
Which of the following places the following categories in order from lowest temperature to highest temperature? Mesophiles, thermophiles, psychotrophs, hyperthermophiles, psychrophiles.
A)High – Hyperthermophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Psychrophiles – Low
B)Low – Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles – High
C)Low – Psychrotrophs-Psychrophiles-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles – High
D)High – Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles – Low
answer

Answer:
B)Low – Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles – High
question

T1Q36
MC
Filamentous fungi grow with threadlike structures called______, the entire body of these threads are called a_______.
A)yeast; fungi
B)hyphae; mycelium
C)mycelium; mold
D)hyphae; yeast
answer

Answer:
B)hyphae; mycelium
question

T1Q37
MC
A nucleocapsid is
A)The protein capsid of a virus
B)The outer layer of gram – cell wall
C)The genetic material found within the protein shell of a virus
D)The genetic material and the protein capsid of a virus
answer

Answer:
D)The genetic material and the protein capsid of a virus
question

T1Q38
MC
Bacterial growth media that suppresses the growth of unwanted microbes is most appropriately calledA)NA media
B)Selective media
C)Enrichment media
D)Differential media
answer

Answer:
B)Selective media
question

T1Q39
MC
Lysogenic conversion
A)describes the process of the phage genome merging with the bacterial host chromosome
B)describes increased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages
C)described the differences in the infection cycles of lytic and temperate phages
D)describes decreased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages
E)describes a spiritual renewal of bacteriophages
answer

Answer:
B)describes increased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages
question

T1Q40
Which of the following is NOT part of a bacteriophage infection cycleA)Synthesis
B)Capsid Penetration
C)Replication
D)Adsorption
E)Release
answer

Answer:
B)Capsid Penetration
question

T1Q41
MC
Which of the following lists contains ONLY cytoskeletal elementsA)Actin, intermediate filaments, Microtubules
B)Microtubules, Actin, Flagella, lipid A
C)Intermediate filaments, cristae, Myosin
D)Actin, ribosomes, techoic acid
answer

Answer:
A)Actin, intermediate filaments, Microtubules
question

T1Q42
MC
Thioglycollate is a reducing medium, which of the following describes it bestA)A medium that contains sugars that can be fermented
B)A medium that contains Hemoglobin or extra growth factors and vitamins
C)A medium that contains substances that remove oxygen
D)A medium that has selective inhibiting agents
answer

Answer:
C)A medium that contains substances that remove oxygen
question

T1Q43
MC
Who discovered PenicillinA)Louis Pasteur
B)Louis Armstrong
C)Dr. Timothy D. Trott
D)Robert Koch
E)Alexander Flemming
answer

Answer:
E)Alexander Flemming
question

T1Q44
MC
Which of the following requires high osmotic pressure to surviveA)Obligate anaerobes
B)Obligate halophiles
C)Facultative halophiles
D)Facultative carbonophiles
answer

Answer:
B)Obligate halophiles
question

T1Q45
MC
Agar solidifies as it cools at which of the following temperatures? (Degrees Celsius)
A)100
B)80
C)25
D)42
E)37
answer

Answer:
D)42
question

T1Q46
A single flagella is called?
answer

Monotrichous
question

T1Q47
Flagella with a tuft at one end
answer

Lophotrichous
question

T1Q48
Flagella all over
answer

Peritrichous
question

T1Q49
No flagella
answer

Atrichous
question

T1Q50
Flagella at both ends
answer

Amphitrichous
question

T1Q51
Clusters of round cells
answer

Staphylococcus
question

T1Q52
Chains of round cells
answer

Streptococcus
question

T1Q53
Comma shaped cells
answer

vibrio
question

T1Q54
Pairs of round cells
answer

diplococcus
question

T1Q55
Chains of rod-shaped cells
answer

Streptobacilli
question

T1Q56
Non-motile organism
answer

Plasmodium vivax
question

T1Q57
Organism that moves using pseudopods
answer

Naegleria fowleri
question

T1Q58
Parasitic helminth
answer

Trematode
question

T1Q59
Ciliaphora
answer

Paramecium
question

T1Q60
Moves using flagella
answer

Mastigophora
question

T1Q61
Microaerophillic bacteria
answer

Require concentrations of oxygen lower than those found in the normal atmosphere
question

T1Q62
Aerotolerant anaerobes
answer

Neither use oxygen nor are affected by it
question

T1Q63
Obligate anaerobe
answer

is killed in the presence of oxygen
question

T1Q64
Capnophiles
answer

Require increased concentrations of CO2 for optimal growth
question

T1Q65
Facultative anaerobes
answer

Capable of using oxygen when present or growing without it
question

T1Q66
You are a microbiologist studying the growth rate of a particular bacteria. You very carefully start a new culture by adding only 2 bacteria to a new tube of tryptic soy broth. After 4 hours you count ALL the cells in the culture and determine that there are 2048 cells present. What was the doubling time for this bacteria (meaning how much time elapsed between each round of cell division)?
answer

24 minutes.
How to:
2048/2=1024; 1024/2=512; 512/2=256; 256/2=128; 128/2=64; 64/2=32; 32/2=16; 16/2=8; 8/2=4; 4/2=2
There are 10 divisions, now take the time (4hrs=240 minutes) and divide by the number of divisions (10): 240/10=24
question

T1Q67
Draw a graph illustrating a typical growth curve for bacteria in culture. Be sure to label each axis and label the following segments of your graph correctly:
Logarithmic decline phase, Lag phase, log growth phase, stationary phase
answer

[image]
question

T1Q68
Endosymbiotic theory describes the potential evolutionary origins of what two organelles?
answer

Mitochondria & Plastids (chloroplasts)
question

T1Q69-BONUS
Where could you find Ergosterol, be as specific as possible as to what type of organism and where in that organism (+2 points possible)
answer

Ergosterol is found in fungi, inside the cells of fungi. Serves the same function as cholesterol in animal cells.
question

T1Q70-BONUS
Name the two carbohydrate residues present in the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cell wall (+2 points possible).
answer

N-Acetylglucosamine &
N-Acetylmuramic Acid
question

T2Q1
T/F
Sulfa drugs are generally bacteriocidal in action
answer

False
question

T2Q2
T/F
The stomach and lower respiratory tracts are always sterile
answer

False
question

T2Q3
T/F
Dry heat is more effective and efficient at killing organisms than moist heat
answer

False
question

T2Q4
T/F
Disinfectants should not be used on living tissue
answer

True
question

T2Q5
T/F
Boiling for 10 minutes will remove all viable endospores from a sample
answer

False
question

T2Q6
T/F
HEPA filters remove all viruses from air/water
answer

False
question

T2Q7
T/F
In double stranded DNA, Guanine pairs with Thymine
answer

False
question

T2Q8
T/F
The suffix -emia refers to an inflammation
answer

False
question

T2Q9
T/F
Oxidation is the gaining of electrons
answer

False
question

T2Q10
T/F
Glycolysis results in the gross production of 4 ATP
answer

True
question

T2Q11
A mutation that changes a cytosine to a Thymine is an example of…
A)a transition
B)a tautomer
C)a transversion
D)an insertion
answer

Answer:
A)a transition
question

T2Q12
Which of the following is an example of antisepsisA)Autoclaving surgical instruments
B)Washing dishes in very hot water
C)Betadine swab before blood donation
D)Administering an antibiotic intravenously
answer

Answer:
C)Betadine swab before blood donation
question

T2Q13
Leukocidin is
A)a substance that kills WBC’s
B)a substance that dissolves blood clots
C)an enzyme that dissolves connective tissues
D)an exoenzyme that allows bacteria to penetrate mucous membranes
answer

Answer:
A)a substance that kills WBC’s
question

T2Q14
In DNA, Adenine pairs with which of the followingA)Thymine
B)Uracil
C)Adenine
D)Cytosine
E)Guanine
answer

Answer:
A)Thymine
question

T2Q15
The Propionibacterium used in Swiss cheese making exhibit which of the following
A)Oxygen production during glycolysis
B)Alcoholic fermentation
C)mixed acid fermentation
D)Acidic fermentation
answer

Answer:
C)mixed acid fermentation
question

T2Q16
Other than producing a small amount of ATP, fermentation reactions are important to recycle which of the following:
A)pyruvate
B)NAD
C)ADP
D)Oxygen
answer

Answwer:
B)NAD
question

T2Q17
Which of the following treatments would be most effective in killing bacteria on a surfaceA)100% Ethanol
B)75%^Ethanol
C)40% Ethanol
D)30% Ethanol
answer

Answer:
B)75% Ethanol
question

T2Q18
The synthesis of folic acid as an intermediate to the synthesis of nucleic acids can be inhibited in some microbes by which of the following:
A)Isoniazid
B)Penicillins
C)Sulfonamides
D)Clavulanic acid
answer

Answer:
C)Sulfonamides
question

T2Q19
According to the data in the figure below, which antibiotic was least effectiveA)D
B)E
C)F
D)B
E)A
answer

Answer:
E)A
question

T2Q20
The visible outward appearance of an organism is best described as its
A)karyotype
B)genotype
C)nototype
D)phenotype
answer

Answer:
D)phenotype
question

T2Q21
According to the data in the figure below, what is the MICA)8 ug/ml
B)4 ug/ml
C)1 ug/ml
D)2 ug/ml
E)0.5 ug/ml
answer

Answer:
D)2 ug/ml
question

T2Q22
Amphotericin B
A)is an antibacterial
B)is an antifungal
C)is an antiviral
D)is an antiprotozoan
answer

Answer:
B)is an antifungal
question

T2Q23
Which of the following is NOT a PRODUCT of (a molecule produced by) transcriptionA)tRNA
B)a double stranded DNA molecule
C)mRNA
D)rRNA
answer

Answer:
B)a double stranded DNA molecule
question

T2Q24
Hydrogen peroxide is
A)Bactericidal
B)Fungicidal
C)Virucidal
D)Sporicidal
E)All of these: Sporicidal, Fungicidal, Bactericidal, and Virucidal
answer

Answer:
E)All of these: Sporicidal, Fungicidal, Bactericidal, and Virucidal
question

T2Q25
A sequence of bases within a gene that codes for amino acid sequences is called a/an
A)prions
B)exon
C)genotype
D)intron
E)operon
answer

Answer:
E)operon
question

T2Q26
Ethylene Oxide is
A)a heavy metal
B)the final electron receptor in some anaerobes
C)an enzyme in the kreb’s cycle
D)the sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves
answer

Answer:
D)the sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves
question

T2Q27
Which of the following microbes colonizes the human stomachA)Staphylococcus epidermiditis
B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C)Lactococcus lactis
D)Helicobacter pylorii
answer

Answer:
D)Helicobacter pylorii
question

T2Q28
During transcription:
A)RNA is read to produce amino acid chains
B)DNA is copied to produce RNA
C)DNA is replicated
D)DNA is changed to protein
answer

Answer:
B)DNA is copied to produce RNA
question

T2Q29
Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of B-lactamaseA)Clavulanic acid
B)Imipenum
C)PABA
D)N-acetyl-glucosamine
answer

Answer:
A)Clavulanic acid
question

T2Q30
Which of the following is an electron acceptor in anaerobic respirationA)NAD
B)Oxygen
C)Nitrate
D)Carbon dioxide
answer

Answer:
C)Nitrate
question

T2Q31
During which phase of cellular respiration is MOST of the ATP formedA)Krebs cycle
B)Electron transport
C)Glycolysis
D)Substrate level phosphorylation
answer

Answer:
B)Electron transport
question

T2Q32
Transformation is:
A)the transfer of DNA by a bacteriophage
B)the uptake of naked DNA from the environment
C)the transfer of DNA by way of a fungus
D)DNA transfer by direct cell-to-cell contact
answer

Answer:
B)the uptake of nake DNA from the environment
question

T2Q33
A patient tells you they feel sick to their stomach, are achy all over, and have a head-ache. These are:
A)Signs
B)Pathologies
C)Symptoms
D)Syndromes
E)Etiologies
answer

Answer:
C)Symptoms
question

T2Q34
Prokaryotic chromosomes are different from Eukaryotic chromosomes. Which of the following is FALSEA)Eukaryotes have linear chromosomes
B)Prokaryotes have histone proteins
C)Eukaryotes typically have more than one chromosome
D)Eukaryotes have histone proteins
E)Prokaryotes have circular chromosomes
answer

Answer:
B)Prokaryotes have histone proteins
question

T2Q35
Flaming your loop in lab is an example of
A)Oxidation
B)Tindallization
C)Steam sterilization
D)Sensitization
E)Gas sterilization
answer

Answer:
A)Oxidation
question

T2Q36
What is the name of the enzyme responsible for “deactivating” many natural penicillins
A)Clavulanicase
B)B-lactamase
C)PABA
D)Gyrase
answer

Answer:
B)B-lactamase
question

T2Q37
Staphylococcus aureus’ DNA is 22% Adenosine, what % is GuanineA)27%
B)28%
C)100%
D)23%
E)This can not be determined from the information provided
answer

Answer:
B)28%
question

T2Q38
Cephalosporins act by
A)denaturing proteins
B)membrane disruption
C)inhibiting RNA synthesis
D)inhibiting cell wall cross-linking
answer

Answer:
D)inhibiting cell wall cross-linking
question

T2Q39
Which of the following describes an endotoxin
A)Is composed of lipids
B)produced by both gram + and gram – organisms
C)Good vaccines are available
D)A substance secreted by the bacteria
answer

Answer:
A)is composed of lipids
question

T2Q40
Where do the Krebs cycle and ETC occur in eukaryotesA)in the mitochondria
B)in the extracellular matrix
C)in the cytosol
D)in the nucleus
answer

Answer:
A)in the mitochondria
question

T2Q41
Which of the following occurs in the cytosol in prokaryotes and in the nucleus in eukaryotes
A)transcription
B)replication
C)Both transcription and replication
D)Translation
E)Both transcription and translation
answer

Answer:
C)Both transcription and replication
question

T2Q42
Which of the following has the highest resistance to physical and chemical growth controls
A)Envelope viruses
B)Yeast cells
C)Mycobacterium
D)Bacterial endospores
E)Protozoan cysts
answer

Answer:
D)Bacterial Endospores
question

T2Q43
Substrate level phosphorylation produces
A)FAD
B)Glucose
C)ADP
D)ATP
answer

Answer:
D)ATP
question

T2Q44
A)An antibiotic administered parenterally would be given
A)2x a day by your mom or dad
B)Orally
C)Via nasal spray
D)As an injection
answer

Answer:
D)As an injection
question

T2Q45
Which of the following is NOT true of catabolismA)Part of digestion
B)Used during the creation of complex biomolecules
C)Mediated by enzymes
D)Generally exergonic
E)Produces some heat loss
answer

Answer:
B)Used during the creation of complex biomolecules
question

[T2]Matching
46)Affects protein synthesis – Zithromycin
47) Useful in treating mycobacterium infections – Ethambutol
48)An antifungal – Ketoconazole
49)Toxic to the kidneys – Bacitracin
50)Inhibits DNA gyrase – Ciprofloxacin
answer

Answers on other side
question

[T2]Matching
51)Vector is infected, pathogen is internal – Biological Vector
52)Perinatal transmission – Vertical transmission
53) Inanimate objects that can carry infectious agents from one host to another – Fomite
54)Passive carrier, pathogens are external – Mechanical vector
55)Kissing – Horizontal transmission
answer

Answers on other side
question

[T2]Matching
56) Translation – The process of creating an amino acid chain using information in mRNA
57)Replication – The process of creating two dsDNA molecules from one dsDNA molecule
58)Codon-A series of three nucleotides in mRNA
59)Reverse transcription – The process of creating a ssDNA molecule from an RNA molecule
60)Transcription – The process of creating an RNA molecule from a DNA template
answer

Answers on other side
question

[T2]Matching
61)A disease that has a steady frequence over time in a particular geographic region – Endemic
62)The total number of deaths in a population due to an illness – Mortality
63)The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population – Epidemiology
64)The number of new cases in a population in a specific period of time – Incidence
65)The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease – Morbidity
answer

Answers on other side
question

T2Q66
A ________ is a segment of DNA that contains information for a protein or for the control of expression of that information
answer

Answer:
gene
question

T2Q67
Name two (2) activated carriers (energy carrying molecules) other than ATP
answer

Answer:
NAD/NADH
question

T2Q68
Name the three forms of genetic recombination in bacteria discussed in chapter 9
answer

1)Transformation
2)Transduction
3)Congugation
question

T2Q69
Label the graph using the terms below:
Incubation period
Period of invasion
Height of infection
Prodromal stage
Convalescent period
Time
Intensity of infection
Initial exposure to microbe
answer

question

T2Q70
An infectious agen that originates from outside the body is called ___________; while an infectious agent already present on or in the body is called ______________.
answer

Answer:
exogenous; endogenous
question

T2Q71
The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the ________________.
answer

Answer:
Thermal Death Point
question

T2Q72
What is the name of this molecule?
answer

Answer:
Adenosine tri-phosphate
question

T2Q73
Define the term ID50
answer

Answer:
Number of cells required to cause infection in 50% of test population
question

T2Q74
What is the name of this molecule?
answer

Penicillin
question

T2Q75
Differentiate between LOCAL and FOCAL infections
answer

Answer:
Local is localized in one area of the body while focal is all through-out the body
question

T2Q76
Why are there fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan, and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs?
answer

Answer:
Because they are similar to already present human cells in our bodies
question

T2Q77
A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) _____________.
answer

Answer:
Mutation
question

T2Q78-BONUS
What is Tyndallization, what is its use?
answer

Answer:
Method used to sterilize. Boil at 121 degrees C for 15 minutes at 15psi
question

T2Q79-BONUS
Groups of coordinately regulated genes in prokaryotes are known as ______________.
answer

Answer:
Operon? – Not sure about that
question

T2Q80
______________ causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase.
answer

Answer:
Cyanide
question

T2Q81
Jumping Genes are also known as ________________.
answer

Answer:
Transposable Elements (TE)
question

T3Q1
Bee sting venom is an example of a contactant allergen.
answer

False
question

T3Q2
Atop is a systemic, severe reaction often involving airway obstruction
answer

False
question

T3Q3
Allergies tend to run in families (have a hereditary component)
answer

True
question

T3Q4
Poison ivy is often used as an example of Type I allergic responses
answer

False
question

T3Q5
Histamine, sereotonin, and bradykinin are all vasoactive mediators
answer

True
question

T3Q6
Epidemiology is the study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system
answer

False
question

T3Q7
Like Smallpox, poliomyelitis has been completely eradicated from the world
answer

False
question

T3Q8
The tuberculin skin test can accurately be read after only 18 hours
answer

False
question

T3Q9
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are called Haptens
answer

True
question

T3Q10
The migration of WBC’s from the blood out into the tissues is
A)Exudate
B)Diapedesis
C)Redness
D)GALT
answer

Diapedesis
question

T3Q11
What step of phagocytosis do capsules interfere withA)Oxidative killing
B)Lysosomal fusion
C)Chemotaxis
D)Binding and engulfment
answer

D)Binding and engulfment
question

T3Q12
Which of the following is NOT a target for Tc cellsA)Cancer cells
B)Virus infected cells
C)Bacteria
D)Human transplanted cells
answer

C)Bacteria
question

T3Q13
What type of T-cells are most important for helping B-cells to proliferate and differentiateA)Killer T-cells
B)Cytotoxic T-cells
C)CD4 T-cells
D)CD8 T-cells
answer

C)CD4 T-cells
question

T3Q14
Keratin is an important aspect of non-specific defense because
A)it weakens gram + cell walls
B)it is toxic to pathogens
C)it creates a physical barrier against pathogens
D)it destroys pathogens
answer

C)it creates a physical barrier against pathogens
question

T3Q15
The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is
A)Lysozyme
B)Histamine
C)Lactic acid
D)Hydrochloric acid
answer

A)Lysozyme
question

T3Q16
Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytesA)GALT
B)Lymph nodes
C)Thymus
D)Tonsils
answer

C)Thymus
question

T3Q17
Antibodies attach the myelin sheath cells of the central nervous system in which of the following:
A)Lupus
B)SCIDs
C)Arthritis
D)Multiple Sclerosis
answer

D)Multiple Sclerosis
question

T3Q18
Which of the following is NOT a phenotypic analysis of a potential pathogenA)Microscopic morphology
B)Morphology on plates
C)Acid fast stain
D)PCR
E)Gram stain
answer

D)Gram stain
question

T3Q19
Which of the following lymphoid organs/tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the bloodA)Tonsils
B)Thymus
C)SPleen
D)Lymph nodes
answer

C)Spleen
question

T3Q20
Which of the following is NOT a chief function of inflammationA)to cause a fever
B)Start tissue repair
C)Mobilize and attract immune components to the injury site
D)Destroy microbes
answer

A)To cause a fever
question

T3Q21
Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergenA)Degranulation
B)Histamine acts on smooth muscle
C)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE biding sites on Mast cells and Basophils
D)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
answer

D)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils
question

T3Q22
Allergies result from the immune system generating which type of immunoglobulin against an antigenA)IgM
B)IgD
C)IgB
D)IgE
E)IgG
answer

D)IgE
question

T3Q23
In general the pH of the skin is about
A)7-10
B)3-5
C)6-8
D)1.2-3.0
answer

B)3-5
question

T3Q24
Transferrins
A)help complement bind bacteria
B)secrete histamine
C)are oily waxy substances on the skin
D)Bind iron in the blood
answer

D)Bind iron in the blood
question

T3Q25
Live, attenuated vaccines…
A)include the Sabin polio vaccine
B)All of these choices are correct
C)include the MMR vaccine
D)Require smaller doses and fewer boosters than inactivated vaccines
E)Contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person
answer

B)All of these choices are correct
question

T3Q26
If you perform a complement fixation test and the RBC’s DON’T lyse, what is your conclusionA)The patient has not been vaccinated against this pathogen
B)The patient’s serum has pathogen antigens
C)The patient’s serum has antibodies to the pathogen
D)The patient’s serum doesn’t have antibodies to the pathogen
answer

C)The patient’s serum has antibodies to the pathogen
question

T3Q27
Which of the following is INCORRECT about complementA)can be activated in multiple ways
B)Acts in a cascade reaction
C)only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
D)composed of 20 or more blood proteins
answer

C)Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen
question

T3Q28
__________ function in humoral immunity, while _________ function in cell-mediated immunity.
A)B cells; T cells
B)B cells; Neutrophils
C)T cells; B cells
D)Monocytes; T cells
answer

A)B cells; T cells
question

T3Q29
Which type of cells secrete antibodies
A)B-cells
B)Plasma cells
C)Memory cells
D)APC’s
E)T-cells
answer

B)Plasma cells
question

T3Q30
Where does T-cell maturation occurA)pyers patches
B)thymus
C)bone marrow
D)lymph nodes
answer

B)thymus
question

T3Q31
Which of the following is NOT a classic sign/symptom of inflammationA)Swelling
B)Chills
C)Pain
D)Warmth
E)Redness
answer

B)Chills
question

T3Q32
Which type of antibody is best for agglutination reactions since it has 10 binding sitesA)IgM
B)IgA
C)IgD
D)IgG
E)IgE
answer

A)IgM
question

T3Q33
Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins
A)Histamine
B)Interferon
C)Complement
D)Albumin
E)IgG
answer

B)Interferon
question

T3Q34
What is the main component of our first line of defense
A)Phagocytes
B)Antibodies
C)Physical barriers
D)Chemicals
answer

C)Physical barriers
question

T3Q35-39
35)Eosinophils – [A] The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms
36)Monocytes – [E] These cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC’s, are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages
37) Basophils – [B] The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions
38) Lymphocytes – [C] White blood cells that comprise 20-30% of circulating WBC’s and are the cells that function in the body’s immune system
39)Neutrophils – [D] The most numerous WBC’s, they have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic
answer

Answers on other side for 35-39
question

T3Q40-43
40)AB – [D] A person who has both A antigens on the RBC’s is of this blood type
41)O – [A]A person who has anti-A & anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type
42)A- – [C] A female of this blood type is at risk for a pregnancy with hemolytic disease of the newborn
43)A+ – [B]A person of this blood type will have antiB antibodies and no anti-RH antibodies
answer

Answers on other side for 40-43
question

T3Q44-47
44)Can be gained transplactally – Naturally acquired passive immunity [B]
45)Exposure to antigen due to an infection leads to – Naturally acquired active immunity [A]
46)Vaccinations lead to this type – Artificially acquired active immunity [C]
47)Rhogam and most antivenims lead to this type – Artificially acquired passive immunity [D]
answer

Answers on other side for 44-47
question

T3Q48-52
48)Prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion – HIV [D]
49)Kill phagocytes with leukocidins – Staphylococcus aureus [B]
50)Survive “happily” in the phagolysosome – Coxiella burnetti [E]
51)Inhibit adherence with M protein and capsules – Streptococcus pyrogenes [A]
52)Escape the phagososme – Shigella [C]
answer

Answers on other side for 48-52
question

T3Q53-56
53)White process involves antibodies covering the surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? – Neutralization [A]
54)Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates – Agglutination [B]
55)Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis – Opsonization [C]
56)Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen – Anamnestic response[D]
answer

Answers on other side for 53-56
question

T3Q57-60
57)The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion – Leukotriene [B]
58)Reverses constriction of airways – Epinephrine [D]
59)Increased sensitivity to pain – Histamine does not cause [A]
60)Will inhibit the activity of lymphocytes – Corticosteroids [C]
answer

Answers on other side for 57-60
question

T3Q61-64
61)Immediate hypersensitivity – Type I reaction [A]
62)Antibody mediated cytotoxic – Type II reaction [B]
63)Antibody-complex mediated – “bystander damage” – Type III reaction [C]
64)T-cell mediated delayed response – Type IV reaction [D]
answer

Answers on other side for 61-64
question

T3Q65-69
65)The only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta – IgG[A]
66)The first antibodies produced in response to an infection – IgM [E]
67)Can fix complement – IgM & IgG [D]
68)Found on the surface of B-cells IgM & IgD [C]
69)Has a Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells – IgE [B]
answer

Answers on other side for 65-69
question

T3Q70
What do the letters of the acronym RFLP stand for?
answer

Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
question

T3Q71
Name at least one Metal Chelator that can be found in our bodies
answer

One of the following:
Hemoglobin, lactoferrin, transferrin
question

T3Q72
Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by treatment with heat, radiation, or the chemical called
answer

Formalin?
question

T3Q73
What does each letter in the acronym PCR stand for?
answer

Polymerase Chain Reaction
question

T3Q74
Know how to read a dichotomous key
answer

Read a dichotomous key
question

T3Q75
According to the theory behind allergic desensitization, the immunoglobulin _____ blocks the allergen from binding to IgE?
answer

IgG
question

T3Q76
What does Anaphylaxis literally translate to mean?
answer

The opposite of protected
question

T3Q77
The DTaP vaccine protects against what diseases?
answer

Diphtheria, Tetanus (lockjaw), Pertussis (whooping cough)
question

T3Q78
Briefly list the three outcomes of complement activation/binding
answer

1)Classical pathway
2)Lectin pathway
3)Alternative pathway
question

T3Q79-BONUS
The Major Histocompatability Complex proteins (MHC) that allow our bodies to identify self/non-self are sometimes called by a different acronym with 3 letters. What is that acronym and what does each letter stand for?
answer

HLA – Human Leukocyte Antigen
question

T3Q80-BONUS
What is the name of the compound(s) found in poison ivy that can stimulate an allergic response?
answer

?
question

T3Q81-BONUS
What is the name of the antibody that binds to RBC’s and complement in the complement fixation test?
answer

?
question

T3Q82
What are the names of the two enzymes commonly linked to secondary antibodies in the ELISA and Western Blot tests?
answer

?
question

T4Q1-T/F
Tularemia is caused by a gram negative bacterium
answer

True
question

T4Q2-T/F
The pH of the skin is typically around 8.5
answer

False
question

T4Q3-T/F
Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through contact with fomites
answer

False
question

T4Q4-T/F
Population level vaccination is the most effective measure for preventing cases of Yersina pestis infection in humans
answer

False
question

T4Q5-T/F
Staphylococcal infections tend to be more resistant to antibiotics than streptococcal infections
answer

True
question

T4Q6Chicken pox can be transmitted via inhalation of respiratory droplets and/or skin lesion contact and/or airborne spread of lesion material
answer

True
question

T4Q7-T/F
There are organisms found in some powdered baby milk formulas that are capable of causing meningitis
answer

True
question

T4Q8-T/F
Herpes simplex virus can cause subacute encephalitis
answer

True
question

T4Q9-T/F
HIV is commonly transmitted through mosquito bites
answer

False
question

T4Q10-T/F
Ebola and Marburg viruses are transmitted by mosquitos
answer

False
question

T4Q11-T/F
Streptococcus pyogenes is a spore forming bacillus
answer

False
question

T4Q12
Which bacteria causes Scalded Skin Syndrome
A)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Staphylococcus pyogenes
C)none of these are correct
D)Pseudomonas auriginosa
E)Staphylococcus epidermis
answer

A)Staphylococcus aureus
question

T1Q13
A patient presents with an upper respiratory tract infection involving gram-positive blub-shaped bacteria, and a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat. What is the most correct diagnosisA)Bortatella pertussis
B)Streptococcus pyogenes
C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E)Haemophilus influenzae
answer

C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae
question

T4Q14
Which of the following is commonly acquired through non-pasteurized milk, on improperly washed/contaminated foodsA)streptococcus pneumoniae
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Listeria monocytogenes
E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
answer

D)Listeria monocytogenes
question

T4Q15
A baby presents with Neonatal meningitis. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of transmission to the babyA)Breast feeding
B)Hospital personnel
C)Exposure from other infants
D)Exposure in the birth canal
E)Exposure from siblings
answer

D)Exposure in the birth canal
question

T4Q16
Inner ear infections are caused by microorganisms that travel to the ear via which of the following avenues:
A)The Eustachian tube(s)
B)The nasal cavity
C)The external auditory meatus
D)The sinuses
E)The subarachnoid space
answer

A)The Eustachian tube(s)
question

T4Q17
Which of the following forms of leprosy is responsible for the gross disfiguration sometimes seenA)Systemic leprosy
B)Cutaneous leprosy
C)Tuberculoid leprosy
D)Lepromatous leprosy
E)Superficial leprosy
answer

D)Lepromatous leprosy
question

T4Q18
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of otitis mediaA)Asperfillus fumigatus
B)Corynebacterium
C)Haemophilus influenzae
D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
E)Candida albicans
answer

D)Streptococcus pneumoniae
question

T4Q19
Cat-scratch fever is transmitted by
A)Brucella suis
B)Francisella tularensis
C)Yersinia enterocolitica
D)Bartonella henselae
E)Salmonella typhimurium
answer

D)Bartonella henselae
question

T4Q20
A patient presents with a fever and chills occurring in 48 hour cycles, anemia, and a blood smear reveals ring-shapes in many of their RBC’s. What is their diagnosisA)They have Q-fever
B)They have malaria
C)They have round worms
D)They have ebola virus
E)They have sleeping sickness
answer

B)They have malaria
question

T4Q21
What is the vector for arborviruses
A)Snails
B)Arthoropods
C)Humans
D)Ungulates
E)Cats
answer

B)Arthoropods
question

T4Q22
Which of the following organisms can infect deep wound sites, and by the action of its enzymes and exotoxins cause tissue and muscle necrosisA)Clostridium tetani
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)All of these Clostridium can do that
E)Clostridium perfringens
answer

E)Clostridium perfringens
question

T4Q23
Which of the following is the causative agent of Hansen’s diseaseA)Staphylococcus aureus
B)Clostridium perfringens
C)Streptococcus pyogenes
D)Mycobacterium leprae
E)Staphylococcus epidermis
answer

D)Mycobacterium leprae
question

T4Q24
What eye disease is characterized by pannus forming over the corneaA)Sty
B)Trachoma
C)River blindness
D)Keratitis
E)Simple conjunctivitis
answer

B)Trachoma
question

T4Q25
Which of the following is an enzyme found in Staphylococcus aureus whose presence can be used to distinguish this bacteria from other StaphylococciA)Peroxidase
B)Coagulase
C)Catalase
D)Lysozyme
E)Lipase
answer

B)Coagulase
question

T4Q26
A patient presents with headache, stiff neck, and petechiae on the trunk. What should be your diagnosisA)Meningitis
B)Plague
C)Herpes virus
D)Mononucleosis
E)HIV
answer

A)Meningitis
question

T4Q27
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contractions is characteristic of:
A)Clostridium tetani
B)Clostridium botulinum
C)Bacillus cereus
D)Clostridium perfringens
E)Clostridium difficile
answer

A)Clostridium tetani
question

T4Q28
Which antibody is concentrated in the mucous membranes of the respiratory tractA)IgM
B)IgG
C)IgD
D)IgA
E)IgE
answer

D)IgA
question

T4Q29
Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton all cause
A)cutaneous mycoses
B)Pulmonary mycoses
C)These are not human pathogens, they do not cause disease states
D)CNS infections
E)gastrointestinal enteritis
answer

A)Cutaneous mycoses
question

T4Q30
Which of the following is the most common cause of EncephalitisA)Virus
B)Helminth
C)Protozoan
D)Bacteria
E)Prion
answer

A)Virus
question

T4Q31
Cryptococcus neoformans is a
A)Virus
B)Prion
C)Bacteria
D)Helminth
E)Fungus
answer

E)Fungus
question

T4Q32
Which of the following might be more common during November (this past fall semester) at SAU because of SA sponsored eventsA)Tinea Barbae
B)Tinea cruis
C)Tinea capitis
D)Tinea pedis
E)Tinea Unguium
answer

A)Tinea Barbae
question

T4Q33
HIV preferentially binds to
A)HIV does not have a preference
B)Cells of the respiratory system
C)CD-8 Th cells
D)CD-4 Th cells
E)Cells of the GI tract
answer

D)CD-4 Th cells
question

T4Q34
Propionibacterium acnes causes which of the following:
A)Shingles
B)Acne
C)Blisters
D)Peptic ulcers
E)Chicken pox
answer

B)Acne
question

T4Q35
Which of the following is NOT part of the integument systemA)Surface capillaries
B)Sweat glands
C)Skin
D)Hair
E)Nails
answer

A)Surface capillaries
question

T4Q36
According to our notes, which of the following is the most common microbiota of the skin in terms of relative abundance? (there was a graph that showed this)
A)Candida albicans and other yeasts
B)E. coli
C)Staphylococcus epidermis
D)Pseudomonas
E)Neisseria and other Betaproteobacteria
answer

D)Pseudomonas
question

T4Q37
Gamma hemolysis
A)is the absence of hemolysis
B)I have no idea
C)is complete hemolysis
D)is seen in malaria patients
E)is incomplete hemolysis
answer

A)is the absence of hemolysis
question

T4Q38
A patient presents with a fluctuating fever, headache, muscle pain, and weakness. Their history reveals that they work commonly with animals, and have been in contact with animal milk and blood recently, Which is the most likely diagnosisA)Brucellosis
B)Malaria
C)Influenza
D)Rabies
E)Plague
answer

A)Brucellosis
question

T4Q39
What is the most common form of bacterial meningitis? Also the leading cause of community acquired meningitis
A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B)Neisseria meningitidis
C)Listeria monocytogenes
D)Haemophilus influenzae
E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
answer

E)Streptococcus pneumoniae
question

T4Q40
Which of the following is a feature of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b that is associated with its virulenceA)Cytotoxin
B)Capsule
C)Fimbriae
D)Enterotoxin
E)Neurotoxin
answer

B)Capsule
question

T4Q41
Trypanosoma brucei causes
A)Encephalitis
B)Meningitis
C)Tetanus
D)Chagas Disease
E)African sleeping sickness
answer

E)African Sleeping Sickness
question

T4Q42
Production of a naurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is characteristic of:
A)Bacillus cereus
B)Clostridium difficile
C)Clostridium botulinum
D)Clostridium tetani
E)Clostridium perfringens
answer

C)Clostridium botulinum
question

T4Q43
A patient presents with Koplik’s spots. What is the correct diagnosisA)Chicken-pox
B)Mumps
C)Roseolla
D)Measles (Rubeola)
E)Croup
answer

D)Measles(Rubeola)
question

T4Q44
A patient presents with cold like symptoms. Inspection of sputum reveals arthrospores. They have recently been working on a dusty ranch in the desert southwest. What is the most appropriate diagnosis
A)They have Lyme disease
B)They have Cryptococcus neoformans
C)They have polio
D)They have a respiratory infection with Coccidiodes immitis
E)They have bacteria pneumonia
answer

D)They have a respiratory infection with Coccidiodes immitis
question

T4Q45
Currently, most Polio infections are of this type:
A)Nonparalytic poliomyelitis
B)Polio has been eradicated from the planet so there are no current infections
C)Abortive poliomyelitis
D)Paralytic Polio
E)Asymptomatic illness
answer

E)Asymptomatic illness
question

T4Q46
Which of the following diseases could you contract from working in an air conditioned building (like this one), that had a contaminated water cooling systemA)Pertussis
B)Plague
C)Brucellosis
D)Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli
E)Legionellosis
answer

E)Legionellosis
question

T4Q47
A patient presents with non-specific symptoms and erythma migraines. What is the most likely diagnosisA)Lyme Disease
B)Plague
C)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
D)Yellow Fever
E)Chicken-Pox
answer

A)Lyme Disease
question

T4Q48
Which of the following is the most prevalent STD in the U.S.A)Chlamydia trachomatis
B)Syphillis
C)HIV
D)Gonorrhea
E)Herpes
answer

A)Chlamydia trachomatis
question

T4Q49
Plague disease can present as:
A)Pneumonic and Bubonic forms only
B)Septicemic form only
C)Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms
D)Bubonic and Septicemic forms
E)Pneumonic form only
answer

C)Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms
question

T4Q50
What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entryA)Lysozyme
B)Keratin
C)Salt
D)Sweat
E)Sebum
answer

B)Keratin
question

T4Q51
Which of the following is NOT a class of drugs used to slow HIV infectionsA)Nucleoside analogs
B)Integrase inhibitors
C)Protease inhibitors
D)Fusion inhibitors
E)Synthesis inhibitors
answer

E)Synthesis inhibitors
question

T4Q52
A patient presents with cold-like symptoms, low-grade fever, sever and uncontrollable coughing and bloodshot eyes. What is the correct diagnosisA)They have mononucleosis
B)They have Strep throat (Streptococcus pyogenes)
C)They have Whooping Cough
D)They have walking pneumonia
E)They have a viral sinus infection
answer

C)They have Whooping Cough
question

T4Q53
The common cold is caused by
A)A Herpesvirus
B)A gram positive bacteria
C)A gram negative bacteria
D)An Arborvirus
E)A Rhinovirus
answer

E)A Rhinovirus
question

T4Q54
What is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.A)SAU
B)West Nile Virus
C)WEE
D)SLE
E)EEE
answer

E)SLE
question

T4Q55
A patient present with: Sore Throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and numerous odd shaped white blood cells apparent on a blood smear. What is the most likely diagnosisA)Influenza
B)Streptococcus pyogenes infection
C)Lyme disease
D)Malaria
E)Mononucleosis
answer

E)Mononucleosis
question

T4Q56
95% of human cases of anthrax are of this type
A)Inhalation anthrax
B)Ingestion anthrax
C)Cardiovascular anthrax
D)Cutaneous anthrax
E)Lymphatic anthrax
answer

D)Cutaneous anthrax
question

T4Q57-61
Match the following:
57)Plasmodium sp. – Malaria [E]
58)Bartonella quintana – Trench Fever [C]
59)Yersinia pestis – Plague [A]
60)Coxiella burnetii – Q-Fever [B]
61)Bartonella henselae – Cat Scratch Fever[D]
answer

Answers on other side for 57-61
question

T4Q62
The normal biota of the lower respiratory system include:
answer

There are none
question

T4Q63
What organism is the main reservoir for Toxoplasma gondii
answer

Cat
question

T4Q64
Influenza has an enzyme on its surface that aids in its pathogenesis. The variations of this enzyme are part of the designation system for different strains. What is the name of this enzyme?
answer

Neuraminidase
question

T4Q65
You have Molluscum contagiosum (sorry). What do you have?
answer

Form of warts
question

T4Q66
What type of cardiovascular/lymphatic cancer is commonly seen in AIDS patients that is otherwise rare in the general population?
answer

Burkitt’s Lymphoma
question

T4Q67
What is the leading cause of community acquired bacteria pneumonia?
answer

Strep. pneumonia
question

T4Q68
What does the Hib vaccine prevent? Be as specific as possible
answer

Haemophilus influenzae Serotype b
question

T4Q69
The normal biota of the central nervous system consist of:
answer

There are none
question

T4Q70
What two diseases are caused by the Varicella-zoster virus
answer

Chicken pox (Varicella) &
Disease with painful skin rash (Zoster)
question

T4Q72-BONUS
Other than Mad Cow Disease, list two other spongiform encephalopaties.
answer

CJD
Kuru
question

T4Q73-BONUS
What is Fusobacterium necrophorum noted for?
answer

New source of sore throat, sensitive to penicillin
question

T4Q74-BONUS
What is the range of temperature tolerance for Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
answer

4-44 degrees Celsius
question

T4Q75-BONUS
What is the causative agent of “Rabbit Fever”?
answer

Francisella tularensis
question

T4Q76-BONUS
What bacterium is difficult/impossible to culture in laboratory media but can be grown in armadillos?
answer

Mycobacterium leprae

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