Microbiology FINAL Test Cards – Flashcards
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| T1Q1 T/F Organisms that lack a nucleus within their cells are called helminthes |
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| False |
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| T1Q2 T/F A chain of rod-shaped cells would be called a staphylococcus |
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| True |
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| T1Q3 T/F Fungi are Eukaryotes |
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| True |
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| T1Q4 T/F A trophozoite is the mobile feeding stage of a fungus |
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| False |
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| T1Q5 T/F Nutrient broth is classified a chemically defined media |
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| False |
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| T1Q6 T/F The main role of the agar found in many types of solid media is to provide nutritional value to the microorganisms |
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| False |
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| T1Q7 T/F The influenza virus contains ssDNA as its genetic material |
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| False |
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| T1Q8 T/F Archae are prokaryotic |
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| True |
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| T1Q9 T/F Fungi typically prefer more acidic conditions than "normal" bacteria |
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| True |
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| T1Q10 T/F Pinocytosis is one form of facilitated diffusion |
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| False |
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| T1Q11 T/F Cilia can be found on both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells |
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| False |
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| T1Q12 T/F The cell walls of gram-negative bacteria contain techoic acid |
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| False |
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| T1Q13 MC A nucleated, green photosynthetic cell that moves by means of a single flagella is most likely a(n): A)Fungus B)Helminth C)Bacterium D)Alga |
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| Answer: D)Alga |
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| T1Q14 MC Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three domain systemA)Archaea B)Bacteria C)Eukarya D)Animalia |
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| Answer: D)Animalia |
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| T1Q15 MC After returning from a trip to Africa, Tim begins to feel very tired and weak. He has sever anemia. A blood smear reveals a protozoan that is present in his blood. The health care provider tells Tim he has malaria. Which of the following is the causative agentA)Toxoplasma gondii B)Plasmodium falciparum C)HIV D)Typanosoma cruzi |
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| Answer: B)Plasmodium falciparum |
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| T1Q16 MC Which of the following would be an example of bioremediationA)Using plants to manufacture antibiotics B)Using bacteria to manufacture insulin C)Using bacteria to clean up an oil spill D)Using yeast cells to make bread |
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| Answer: C)Using bacteria to clean up an oil spill |
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| T1Q17 MC Which of the following is TRUE about Joseph ListerA)He was the first to describe bacteria viewed under a microscope B)He created a series of postulates for connecting a microorganism to a particular disease state C)He advocated hand washing prior to surgery D)He discovered the first antibiotic |
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| Answer: C)He advocated hand washing prior to surgery |
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| T1Q18 MC Periplasmic flagella are found on which of the following: A)E. coli cells B)Yeasts C)Euglena D)Helminthes E)Spirochetes |
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| Answer: E)Spirochetes |
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| T1Q19 MC Which of the following is a viral GenusA)Orthopoxvirus B)Smallpox C)Filoviridae D)Variola E)Myoviridae |
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| Answer: A)Orthopoxvirus |
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| T1Q20 MC The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the A)Medium B)Loop C)Inoculum D)Incubate E)Culture |
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| Answer: C)Inoculum |
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| T1Q21 MC Which of the following is most likely an opportunistic pathogenA)Obligate saprobe B)Obligate parasite C)Photoautotroph D)Obligate intracellular parasite E)Facultative saprobe |
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| Answer: E)Facultative saprobe |
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| T1Q22 MC The appearance of gram-negative bacteria after completing a gram-stain should be which of the followingA)Brown B)Purple C)Colorless D)Red |
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| Answer: D)Red |
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| T1Q23 MC Which of the following bacteria genus has mycolic acid in its cell wallsA)Mycobacterium B)Mycoplasma C)Escherichia D)Streptococcus |
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| Answer: A)Mycobacterium |
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| T1Q24 MC Which of the following classes of organisms would use H2S as an energy sourceA)Photoheterotroph B)Chemoautotroph C)Chemoheterotroph D)Photoautotroph E)Lithotroph |
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| Answer: E)Lithotroph |
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| T1Q25 MC Who's postulates are used to prove that a microorganism causes a particular diseaseA)van Leeuwenhoek B)Pasteur C)Koch D)Hooke |
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| Answer: C)Koch |
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| T1Q26 MC A fastidious organism would grow best on which of the following mediaA)glucose minimum salts agar B)Blood agar C)nutrient broth D)Tryptic soy agar |
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| Answer: B)Blood agar |
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| T1Q27 MC Imagine you are a microorganism that has an outer membrane containing Lipid A. What type of life form are you: A)Archae B)Fungi C)Gram Negative Bacteria D)Gram Positive Bacteria E)Plant |
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| Answer: C)Gram Negative Bacteria |
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| T1Q28 MC Which of the following binomial names is formatted correctlyA)Staphylococcus a. B)Staphylococcus aureus C)Staphylococcus Aureus D)staphylococcus aureus |
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| Answer: B)Staphylococcus aureus |
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| T1Q29 MC Which of the following series of steps correctly describes the Gram-stain processA)Iodine, rinse, wash with acid alcohol, crystal violet, stain with safranin B)Stain with safranin, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, crystal violet C)Crystal violet, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, stain with safranin D)Stain with safranin, wash with acid alcohol, iodine, rinse crystal violet |
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| Answer: C)Crystal violet, rinse, iodine, wash with acid alcohol, stain with safranin |
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| T1Q30 MC Which of the following is the source of Agar used in microbiological mediaA)Rhodophyta B)Dinophyta C)Euglenophyta D)Phaeophyta E)Chlorophyta |
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| Answer: A)Rhodophyta |
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| T1Q31 MC Which of the following is the correct mathematical formula for determining the pH of a solutionA)pH=[H20]pi B)pH=-log[OH-] C)pH=-log[H+] D)pH=[H+] |
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| Answer: C)pH=-log[H+] |
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| T1Q32 MC Which of the following characteristics refers to a microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinctA)Refraction B)Magnification C)Resolving power D)Condensation |
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| Answer: C)Resolving power |
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| T1Q33 MC If you are using a compound microscope with an ocular lens of 10X power and an objective lens of 35X power, what is the magnification that you actually see with your eyesA)200X B)350X C)300X D)150X |
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| Answer: B)350X |
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| T1Q34 MC What do photoautotrophs use as their energy sourceA)CO B)CO2 C)Light D)Organic compounds |
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| Answer: C)Light |
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| T1Q35 MC Which of the following places the following categories in order from lowest temperature to highest temperature? Mesophiles, thermophiles, psychotrophs, hyperthermophiles, psychrophiles. A)High - Hyperthermophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Psychrophiles - Low B)Low - Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles - High C)Low - Psychrotrophs-Psychrophiles-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles - High D)High - Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles - Low |
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| Answer: B)Low - Psychrophiles-Psychrotrophs-Mesophiles-Thermophiles-Hyperthermophiles - High |
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| T1Q36 MC Filamentous fungi grow with threadlike structures called______, the entire body of these threads are called a_______. A)yeast; fungi B)hyphae; mycelium C)mycelium; mold D)hyphae; yeast |
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| Answer: B)hyphae; mycelium |
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| T1Q37 MC A nucleocapsid is A)The protein capsid of a virus B)The outer layer of gram - cell wall C)The genetic material found within the protein shell of a virus D)The genetic material and the protein capsid of a virus |
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| Answer: D)The genetic material and the protein capsid of a virus |
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| T1Q38 MC Bacterial growth media that suppresses the growth of unwanted microbes is most appropriately calledA)NA media B)Selective media C)Enrichment media D)Differential media |
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| Answer: B)Selective media |
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| T1Q39 MC Lysogenic conversion A)describes the process of the phage genome merging with the bacterial host chromosome B)describes increased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages C)described the differences in the infection cycles of lytic and temperate phages D)describes decreased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages E)describes a spiritual renewal of bacteriophages |
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| Answer: B)describes increased virulence of some bacteria following infection with certain bacteriophages |
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| T1Q40 Which of the following is NOT part of a bacteriophage infection cycleA)Synthesis B)Capsid Penetration C)Replication D)Adsorption E)Release |
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| Answer: B)Capsid Penetration |
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| T1Q41 MC Which of the following lists contains ONLY cytoskeletal elementsA)Actin, intermediate filaments, Microtubules B)Microtubules, Actin, Flagella, lipid A C)Intermediate filaments, cristae, Myosin D)Actin, ribosomes, techoic acid |
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| Answer: A)Actin, intermediate filaments, Microtubules |
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| T1Q42 MC Thioglycollate is a reducing medium, which of the following describes it bestA)A medium that contains sugars that can be fermented B)A medium that contains Hemoglobin or extra growth factors and vitamins C)A medium that contains substances that remove oxygen D)A medium that has selective inhibiting agents |
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| Answer: C)A medium that contains substances that remove oxygen |
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| T1Q43 MC Who discovered PenicillinA)Louis Pasteur B)Louis Armstrong C)Dr. Timothy D. Trott D)Robert Koch E)Alexander Flemming |
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| Answer: E)Alexander Flemming |
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| T1Q44 MC Which of the following requires high osmotic pressure to surviveA)Obligate anaerobes B)Obligate halophiles C)Facultative halophiles D)Facultative carbonophiles |
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| Answer: B)Obligate halophiles |
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| T1Q45 MC Agar solidifies as it cools at which of the following temperatures? (Degrees Celsius) A)100 B)80 C)25 D)42 E)37 |
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| Answer: D)42 |
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| T1Q46 A single flagella is called? |
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| Monotrichous |
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| T1Q47 Flagella with a tuft at one end |
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| Lophotrichous |
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| T1Q48 Flagella all over |
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| Peritrichous |
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| T1Q49 No flagella |
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| Atrichous |
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| T1Q50 Flagella at both ends |
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| Amphitrichous |
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| T1Q51 Clusters of round cells |
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| Staphylococcus |
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| T1Q52 Chains of round cells |
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| Streptococcus |
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| T1Q53 Comma shaped cells |
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| vibrio |
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| T1Q54 Pairs of round cells |
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| diplococcus |
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| T1Q55 Chains of rod-shaped cells |
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| Streptobacilli |
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| T1Q56 Non-motile organism |
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| Plasmodium vivax |
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| T1Q57 Organism that moves using pseudopods |
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| Naegleria fowleri |
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| T1Q58 Parasitic helminth |
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| Trematode |
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| T1Q59 Ciliaphora |
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| Paramecium |
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| T1Q60 Moves using flagella |
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| Mastigophora |
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| T1Q61 Microaerophillic bacteria |
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| Require concentrations of oxygen lower than those found in the normal atmosphere |
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| T1Q62 Aerotolerant anaerobes |
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| Neither use oxygen nor are affected by it |
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| T1Q63 Obligate anaerobe |
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| is killed in the presence of oxygen |
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| T1Q64 Capnophiles |
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| Require increased concentrations of CO2 for optimal growth |
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| T1Q65 Facultative anaerobes |
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| Capable of using oxygen when present or growing without it |
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| T1Q66 You are a microbiologist studying the growth rate of a particular bacteria. You very carefully start a new culture by adding only 2 bacteria to a new tube of tryptic soy broth. After 4 hours you count ALL the cells in the culture and determine that there are 2048 cells present. What was the doubling time for this bacteria (meaning how much time elapsed between each round of cell division)? |
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| 24 minutes. How to: 2048/2=1024; 1024/2=512; 512/2=256; 256/2=128; 128/2=64; 64/2=32; 32/2=16; 16/2=8; 8/2=4; 4/2=2 There are 10 divisions, now take the time (4hrs=240 minutes) and divide by the number of divisions (10): 240/10=24 |
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| T1Q67 Draw a graph illustrating a typical growth curve for bacteria in culture. Be sure to label each axis and label the following segments of your graph correctly: Logarithmic decline phase, Lag phase, log growth phase, stationary phase |
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| [image] |
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| T1Q68 Endosymbiotic theory describes the potential evolutionary origins of what two organelles? |
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| Mitochondria & Plastids (chloroplasts) |
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| T1Q69-BONUS Where could you find Ergosterol, be as specific as possible as to what type of organism and where in that organism (+2 points possible) |
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| Ergosterol is found in fungi, inside the cells of fungi. Serves the same function as cholesterol in animal cells. |
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| T1Q70-BONUS Name the two carbohydrate residues present in the peptidoglycan layer of the bacterial cell wall (+2 points possible). |
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| N-Acetylglucosamine & N-Acetylmuramic Acid |
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| T2Q1 T/F Sulfa drugs are generally bacteriocidal in action |
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| False |
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| T2Q2 T/F The stomach and lower respiratory tracts are always sterile |
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| False |
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| T2Q3 T/F Dry heat is more effective and efficient at killing organisms than moist heat |
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| False |
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| T2Q4 T/F Disinfectants should not be used on living tissue |
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| True |
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| T2Q5 T/F Boiling for 10 minutes will remove all viable endospores from a sample |
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| False |
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| T2Q6 T/F HEPA filters remove all viruses from air/water |
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| False |
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| T2Q7 T/F In double stranded DNA, Guanine pairs with Thymine |
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| False |
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| T2Q8 T/F The suffix -emia refers to an inflammation |
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| False |
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| T2Q9 T/F Oxidation is the gaining of electrons |
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| False |
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| T2Q10 T/F Glycolysis results in the gross production of 4 ATP |
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| True |
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| T2Q11 A mutation that changes a cytosine to a Thymine is an example of... A)a transition B)a tautomer C)a transversion D)an insertion |
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| Answer: A)a transition |
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| T2Q12 Which of the following is an example of antisepsisA)Autoclaving surgical instruments B)Washing dishes in very hot water C)Betadine swab before blood donation D)Administering an antibiotic intravenously |
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| Answer: C)Betadine swab before blood donation |
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| T2Q13 Leukocidin is A)a substance that kills WBC's B)a substance that dissolves blood clots C)an enzyme that dissolves connective tissues D)an exoenzyme that allows bacteria to penetrate mucous membranes |
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| Answer: A)a substance that kills WBC's |
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| T2Q14 In DNA, Adenine pairs with which of the followingA)Thymine B)Uracil C)Adenine D)Cytosine E)Guanine |
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| Answer: A)Thymine |
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| T2Q15 The Propionibacterium used in Swiss cheese making exhibit which of the following A)Oxygen production during glycolysis B)Alcoholic fermentation C)mixed acid fermentation D)Acidic fermentation |
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| Answer: C)mixed acid fermentation |
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| T2Q16 Other than producing a small amount of ATP, fermentation reactions are important to recycle which of the following: A)pyruvate B)NAD C)ADP D)Oxygen |
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| Answwer: B)NAD |
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| T2Q17 Which of the following treatments would be most effective in killing bacteria on a surfaceA)100% Ethanol B)75%^Ethanol C)40% Ethanol D)30% Ethanol |
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| Answer: B)75% Ethanol |
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| T2Q18 The synthesis of folic acid as an intermediate to the synthesis of nucleic acids can be inhibited in some microbes by which of the following: A)Isoniazid B)Penicillins C)Sulfonamides D)Clavulanic acid |
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| Answer: C)Sulfonamides |
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| T2Q19 According to the data in the figure below, which antibiotic was least effectiveA)D B)E C)F D)B E)A |
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| Answer: E)A |
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| T2Q20 The visible outward appearance of an organism is best described as its A)karyotype B)genotype C)nototype D)phenotype |
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| Answer: D)phenotype |
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| T2Q21 According to the data in the figure below, what is the MICA)8 ug/ml B)4 ug/ml C)1 ug/ml D)2 ug/ml E)0.5 ug/ml |
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| Answer: D)2 ug/ml |
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| T2Q22 Amphotericin B A)is an antibacterial B)is an antifungal C)is an antiviral D)is an antiprotozoan |
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| Answer: B)is an antifungal |
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| T2Q23 Which of the following is NOT a PRODUCT of (a molecule produced by) transcriptionA)tRNA B)a double stranded DNA molecule C)mRNA D)rRNA |
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| Answer: B)a double stranded DNA molecule |
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| T2Q24 Hydrogen peroxide is A)Bactericidal B)Fungicidal C)Virucidal D)Sporicidal E)All of these: Sporicidal, Fungicidal, Bactericidal, and Virucidal |
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| Answer: E)All of these: Sporicidal, Fungicidal, Bactericidal, and Virucidal |
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| T2Q25 A sequence of bases within a gene that codes for amino acid sequences is called a/an A)prions B)exon C)genotype D)intron E)operon |
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| Answer: E)operon |
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| T2Q26 Ethylene Oxide is A)a heavy metal B)the final electron receptor in some anaerobes C)an enzyme in the kreb's cycle D)the sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves |
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| Answer: D)the sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves |
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| T2Q27 Which of the following microbes colonizes the human stomachA)Staphylococcus epidermiditis B)Mycobacterium tuberculosis C)Lactococcus lactis D)Helicobacter pylorii |
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| Answer: D)Helicobacter pylorii |
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| T2Q28 During transcription: A)RNA is read to produce amino acid chains B)DNA is copied to produce RNA C)DNA is replicated D)DNA is changed to protein |
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| Answer: B)DNA is copied to produce RNA |
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| T2Q29 Which of the following is a competitive inhibitor of B-lactamaseA)Clavulanic acid B)Imipenum C)PABA D)N-acetyl-glucosamine |
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| Answer: A)Clavulanic acid |
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| T2Q30 Which of the following is an electron acceptor in anaerobic respirationA)NAD B)Oxygen C)Nitrate D)Carbon dioxide |
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| Answer: C)Nitrate |
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| T2Q31 During which phase of cellular respiration is MOST of the ATP formedA)Krebs cycle B)Electron transport C)Glycolysis D)Substrate level phosphorylation |
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| Answer: B)Electron transport |
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| T2Q32 Transformation is: A)the transfer of DNA by a bacteriophage B)the uptake of naked DNA from the environment C)the transfer of DNA by way of a fungus D)DNA transfer by direct cell-to-cell contact |
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| Answer: B)the uptake of nake DNA from the environment |
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| T2Q33 A patient tells you they feel sick to their stomach, are achy all over, and have a head-ache. These are: A)Signs B)Pathologies C)Symptoms D)Syndromes E)Etiologies |
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| Answer: C)Symptoms |
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| T2Q34 Prokaryotic chromosomes are different from Eukaryotic chromosomes. Which of the following is FALSEA)Eukaryotes have linear chromosomes B)Prokaryotes have histone proteins C)Eukaryotes typically have more than one chromosome D)Eukaryotes have histone proteins E)Prokaryotes have circular chromosomes |
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| Answer: B)Prokaryotes have histone proteins |
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| T2Q35 Flaming your loop in lab is an example of A)Oxidation B)Tindallization C)Steam sterilization D)Sensitization E)Gas sterilization |
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| Answer: A)Oxidation |
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| T2Q36 What is the name of the enzyme responsible for "deactivating" many natural penicillins A)Clavulanicase B)B-lactamase C)PABA D)Gyrase |
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| Answer: B)B-lactamase |
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| T2Q37 Staphylococcus aureus' DNA is 22% Adenosine, what % is GuanineA)27% B)28% C)100% D)23% E)This can not be determined from the information provided |
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| Answer: B)28% |
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| T2Q38 Cephalosporins act by A)denaturing proteins B)membrane disruption C)inhibiting RNA synthesis D)inhibiting cell wall cross-linking |
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| Answer: D)inhibiting cell wall cross-linking |
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| T2Q39 Which of the following describes an endotoxin A)Is composed of lipids B)produced by both gram + and gram - organisms C)Good vaccines are available D)A substance secreted by the bacteria |
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| Answer: A)is composed of lipids |
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| T2Q40 Where do the Krebs cycle and ETC occur in eukaryotesA)in the mitochondria B)in the extracellular matrix C)in the cytosol D)in the nucleus |
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| Answer: A)in the mitochondria |
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| T2Q41 Which of the following occurs in the cytosol in prokaryotes and in the nucleus in eukaryotes A)transcription B)replication C)Both transcription and replication D)Translation E)Both transcription and translation |
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| Answer: C)Both transcription and replication |
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| T2Q42 Which of the following has the highest resistance to physical and chemical growth controls A)Envelope viruses B)Yeast cells C)Mycobacterium D)Bacterial endospores E)Protozoan cysts |
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| Answer: D)Bacterial Endospores |
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| T2Q43 Substrate level phosphorylation produces A)FAD B)Glucose C)ADP D)ATP |
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| Answer: D)ATP |
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| T2Q44 A)An antibiotic administered parenterally would be given A)2x a day by your mom or dad B)Orally C)Via nasal spray D)As an injection |
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| Answer: D)As an injection |
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| T2Q45 Which of the following is NOT true of catabolismA)Part of digestion B)Used during the creation of complex biomolecules C)Mediated by enzymes D)Generally exergonic E)Produces some heat loss |
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| Answer: B)Used during the creation of complex biomolecules |
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| [T2]Matching 46)Affects protein synthesis - Zithromycin 47) Useful in treating mycobacterium infections - Ethambutol 48)An antifungal - Ketoconazole 49)Toxic to the kidneys - Bacitracin 50)Inhibits DNA gyrase - Ciprofloxacin |
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| Answers on other side |
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| [T2]Matching 51)Vector is infected, pathogen is internal - Biological Vector 52)Perinatal transmission - Vertical transmission 53) Inanimate objects that can carry infectious agents from one host to another - Fomite 54)Passive carrier, pathogens are external - Mechanical vector 55)Kissing - Horizontal transmission |
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| Answers on other side |
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| [T2]Matching 56) Translation - The process of creating an amino acid chain using information in mRNA 57)Replication - The process of creating two dsDNA molecules from one dsDNA molecule 58)Codon-A series of three nucleotides in mRNA 59)Reverse transcription - The process of creating a ssDNA molecule from an RNA molecule 60)Transcription - The process of creating an RNA molecule from a DNA template |
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| Answers on other side |
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| [T2]Matching 61)A disease that has a steady frequence over time in a particular geographic region - Endemic 62)The total number of deaths in a population due to an illness - Mortality 63)The study of the frequency and distribution of a disease in a defined population - Epidemiology 64)The number of new cases in a population in a specific period of time - Incidence 65)The number of persons afflicted with an infectious disease - Morbidity |
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| Answers on other side |
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| T2Q66 A ________ is a segment of DNA that contains information for a protein or for the control of expression of that information |
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| Answer: gene |
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| T2Q67 Name two (2) activated carriers (energy carrying molecules) other than ATP |
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| Answer: NAD/NADH |
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| T2Q68 Name the three forms of genetic recombination in bacteria discussed in chapter 9 |
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| 1)Transformation 2)Transduction 3)Congugation |
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| T2Q69 Label the graph using the terms below: Incubation period Period of invasion Height of infection Prodromal stage Convalescent period Time Intensity of infection Initial exposure to microbe |
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| T2Q70 An infectious agen that originates from outside the body is called ___________; while an infectious agent already present on or in the body is called ______________. |
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| Answer: exogenous; endogenous |
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| T2Q71 The lowest temperature needed to kill all microbes in 10 minutes is the ________________. |
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| Answer: Thermal Death Point |
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| T2Q72 What is the name of this molecule? |
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| Answer: Adenosine tri-phosphate |
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| T2Q73 Define the term ID50 |
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| Answer: Number of cells required to cause infection in 50% of test population |
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| T2Q74 What is the name of this molecule? |
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| Penicillin |
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| T2Q75 Differentiate between LOCAL and FOCAL infections |
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| Answer: Local is localized in one area of the body while focal is all through-out the body |
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| T2Q76 Why are there fewer antifungal, anti-protozoan, and anti-helminth drugs compared to antibacterial drugs? |
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| Answer: Because they are similar to already present human cells in our bodies |
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| T2Q77 A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n) _____________. |
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| Answer: Mutation |
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| T2Q78-BONUS What is Tyndallization, what is its use? |
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| Answer: Method used to sterilize. Boil at 121 degrees C for 15 minutes at 15psi |
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| T2Q79-BONUS Groups of coordinately regulated genes in prokaryotes are known as ______________. |
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| Answer: Operon? - Not sure about that |
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| T2Q80 ______________ causes death in many eukaryotes because it blocks cytochrome C oxidase. |
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| Answer: Cyanide |
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| T2Q81 Jumping Genes are also known as ________________. |
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| Answer: Transposable Elements (TE) |
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| T3Q1 Bee sting venom is an example of a contactant allergen. |
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| False |
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| T3Q2 Atop is a systemic, severe reaction often involving airway obstruction |
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| False |
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| T3Q3 Allergies tend to run in families (have a hereditary component) |
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| True |
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| T3Q4 Poison ivy is often used as an example of Type I allergic responses |
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| False |
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| T3Q5 Histamine, sereotonin, and bradykinin are all vasoactive mediators |
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| True |
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| T3Q6 Epidemiology is the study of diseases associated with excesses and deficiencies of the immune system |
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| False |
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| T3Q7 Like Smallpox, poliomyelitis has been completely eradicated from the world |
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| False |
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| T3Q8 The tuberculin skin test can accurately be read after only 18 hours |
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| False |
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| T3Q9 Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to elicit an immune response are called Haptens |
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| True |
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| T3Q10 The migration of WBC's from the blood out into the tissues is A)Exudate B)Diapedesis C)Redness D)GALT |
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| Diapedesis |
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| T3Q11 What step of phagocytosis do capsules interfere withA)Oxidative killing B)Lysosomal fusion C)Chemotaxis D)Binding and engulfment |
answer
| D)Binding and engulfment |
question
| T3Q12 Which of the following is NOT a target for Tc cellsA)Cancer cells B)Virus infected cells C)Bacteria D)Human transplanted cells |
answer
| C)Bacteria |
question
| T3Q13 What type of T-cells are most important for helping B-cells to proliferate and differentiateA)Killer T-cells B)Cytotoxic T-cells C)CD4 T-cells D)CD8 T-cells |
answer
| C)CD4 T-cells |
question
| T3Q14 Keratin is an important aspect of non-specific defense because A)it weakens gram + cell walls B)it is toxic to pathogens C)it creates a physical barrier against pathogens D)it destroys pathogens |
answer
| C)it creates a physical barrier against pathogens |
question
| T3Q15 The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A)Lysozyme B)Histamine C)Lactic acid D)Hydrochloric acid |
answer
| A)Lysozyme |
question
| T3Q16 Which gland shrinks in size during adulthood and has hormones that function in maturation of T-lymphocytesA)GALT B)Lymph nodes C)Thymus D)Tonsils |
answer
| C)Thymus |
question
| T3Q17 Antibodies attach the myelin sheath cells of the central nervous system in which of the following: A)Lupus B)SCIDs C)Arthritis D)Multiple Sclerosis |
answer
| D)Multiple Sclerosis |
question
| T3Q18 Which of the following is NOT a phenotypic analysis of a potential pathogenA)Microscopic morphology B)Morphology on plates C)Acid fast stain D)PCR E)Gram stain |
answer
| D)Gram stain |
question
| T3Q19 Which of the following lymphoid organs/tissues has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the bloodA)Tonsils B)Thymus C)SPleen D)Lymph nodes |
answer
| C)Spleen |
question
| T3Q20 Which of the following is NOT a chief function of inflammationA)to cause a fever B)Start tissue repair C)Mobilize and attract immune components to the injury site D)Destroy microbes |
answer
| A)To cause a fever |
question
| T3Q21 Which event occurs with the sensitizing dose of allergenA)Degranulation B)Histamine acts on smooth muscle C)Bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE biding sites on Mast cells and Basophils D)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils |
answer
| D)Binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils |
question
| T3Q22 Allergies result from the immune system generating which type of immunoglobulin against an antigenA)IgM B)IgD C)IgB D)IgE E)IgG |
answer
| D)IgE |
question
| T3Q23 In general the pH of the skin is about A)7-10 B)3-5 C)6-8 D)1.2-3.0 |
answer
| B)3-5 |
question
| T3Q24 Transferrins A)help complement bind bacteria B)secrete histamine C)are oily waxy substances on the skin D)Bind iron in the blood |
answer
| D)Bind iron in the blood |
question
| T3Q25 Live, attenuated vaccines... A)include the Sabin polio vaccine B)All of these choices are correct C)include the MMR vaccine D)Require smaller doses and fewer boosters than inactivated vaccines E)Contain viable microbes that can multiply in the person |
answer
| B)All of these choices are correct |
question
| T3Q26 If you perform a complement fixation test and the RBC's DON'T lyse, what is your conclusionA)The patient has not been vaccinated against this pathogen B)The patient's serum has pathogen antigens C)The patient's serum has antibodies to the pathogen D)The patient's serum doesn't have antibodies to the pathogen |
answer
| C)The patient's serum has antibodies to the pathogen |
question
| T3Q27 Which of the following is INCORRECT about complementA)can be activated in multiple ways B)Acts in a cascade reaction C)only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen D)composed of 20 or more blood proteins |
answer
| C)Only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen |
question
| T3Q28 __________ function in humoral immunity, while _________ function in cell-mediated immunity. A)B cells; T cells B)B cells; Neutrophils C)T cells; B cells D)Monocytes; T cells |
answer
| A)B cells; T cells |
question
| T3Q29 Which type of cells secrete antibodies A)B-cells B)Plasma cells C)Memory cells D)APC's E)T-cells |
answer
| B)Plasma cells |
question
| T3Q30 Where does T-cell maturation occurA)pyers patches B)thymus C)bone marrow D)lymph nodes |
answer
| B)thymus |
question
| T3Q31 Which of the following is NOT a classic sign/symptom of inflammationA)Swelling B)Chills C)Pain D)Warmth E)Redness |
answer
| B)Chills |
question
| T3Q32 Which type of antibody is best for agglutination reactions since it has 10 binding sitesA)IgM B)IgA C)IgD D)IgG E)IgE |
answer
| A)IgM |
question
| T3Q33 Which protein can be produced by a virus-infected cell, in order to communicate with other cells the need to produce antiviral proteins A)Histamine B)Interferon C)Complement D)Albumin E)IgG |
answer
| B)Interferon |
question
| T3Q34 What is the main component of our first line of defense A)Phagocytes B)Antibodies C)Physical barriers D)Chemicals |
answer
| C)Physical barriers |
question
| T3Q35-39 35)Eosinophils - [A] The blood cells that function in allergic reactions and inflammation, contain peroxidase and lysozyme and particularly target parasitic worms 36)Monocytes - [E] These cells comprise 3-7% of circulating WBC's, are phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages 37) Basophils - [B] The least numerous of all white blood cells that release histamine during inflammation and allergic reactions 38) Lymphocytes - [C] White blood cells that comprise 20-30% of circulating WBC's and are the cells that function in the body's immune system 39)Neutrophils - [D] The most numerous WBC's, they have multi-lobed nuclei and are very phagocytic |
answer
| Answers on other side for 35-39 |
question
| T3Q40-43 40)AB - [D] A person who has both A antigens on the RBC's is of this blood type 41)O - [A]A person who has anti-A & anti-B serum antibodies will have blood type 42)A- - [C] A female of this blood type is at risk for a pregnancy with hemolytic disease of the newborn 43)A+ - [B]A person of this blood type will have antiB antibodies and no anti-RH antibodies |
answer
| Answers on other side for 40-43 |
question
| T3Q44-47 44)Can be gained transplactally - Naturally acquired passive immunity [B] 45)Exposure to antigen due to an infection leads to - Naturally acquired active immunity [A] 46)Vaccinations lead to this type - Artificially acquired active immunity [C] 47)Rhogam and most antivenims lead to this type - Artificially acquired passive immunity [D] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 44-47 |
question
| T3Q48-52 48)Prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion - HIV [D] 49)Kill phagocytes with leukocidins - Staphylococcus aureus [B] 50)Survive "happily" in the phagolysosome - Coxiella burnetti [E] 51)Inhibit adherence with M protein and capsules - Streptococcus pyrogenes [A] 52)Escape the phagososme - Shigella [C] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 48-52 |
question
| T3Q53-56 53)White process involves antibodies covering the surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? - Neutralization [A] 54)Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates - Agglutination [B] 55)Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis - Opsonization [C] 56)Which process involves a more rapid synthesis and greatly increased titer of antibody when the immune system is subsequently exposed to the same antigen - Anamnestic response[D] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 53-56 |
question
| T3Q57-60 57)The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion - Leukotriene [B] 58)Reverses constriction of airways - Epinephrine [D] 59)Increased sensitivity to pain - Histamine does not cause [A] 60)Will inhibit the activity of lymphocytes - Corticosteroids [C] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 57-60 |
question
| T3Q61-64 61)Immediate hypersensitivity - Type I reaction [A] 62)Antibody mediated cytotoxic - Type II reaction [B] 63)Antibody-complex mediated - "bystander damage" - Type III reaction [C] 64)T-cell mediated delayed response - Type IV reaction [D] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 61-64 |
question
| T3Q65-69 65)The only immunoglobulin capable of crossing the placenta - IgG[A] 66)The first antibodies produced in response to an infection - IgM [E] 67)Can fix complement - IgM & IgG [D] 68)Found on the surface of B-cells IgM & IgD [C] 69)Has a Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells - IgE [B] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 65-69 |
question
| T3Q70 What do the letters of the acronym RFLP stand for? |
answer
| Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism |
question
| T3Q71 Name at least one Metal Chelator that can be found in our bodies |
answer
| One of the following: Hemoglobin, lactoferrin, transferrin |
question
| T3Q72 Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by treatment with heat, radiation, or the chemical called |
answer
| Formalin? |
question
| T3Q73 What does each letter in the acronym PCR stand for? |
answer
| Polymerase Chain Reaction |
question
| T3Q74 Know how to read a dichotomous key |
answer
| Read a dichotomous key |
question
| T3Q75 According to the theory behind allergic desensitization, the immunoglobulin _____ blocks the allergen from binding to IgE? |
answer
| IgG |
question
| T3Q76 What does Anaphylaxis literally translate to mean? |
answer
| The opposite of protected |
question
| T3Q77 The DTaP vaccine protects against what diseases? |
answer
| Diphtheria, Tetanus (lockjaw), Pertussis (whooping cough) |
question
| T3Q78 Briefly list the three outcomes of complement activation/binding |
answer
| 1)Classical pathway 2)Lectin pathway 3)Alternative pathway |
question
| T3Q79-BONUS The Major Histocompatability Complex proteins (MHC) that allow our bodies to identify self/non-self are sometimes called by a different acronym with 3 letters. What is that acronym and what does each letter stand for? |
answer
| HLA - Human Leukocyte Antigen |
question
| T3Q80-BONUS What is the name of the compound(s) found in poison ivy that can stimulate an allergic response? |
answer
| ? |
question
| T3Q81-BONUS What is the name of the antibody that binds to RBC's and complement in the complement fixation test? |
answer
| ? |
question
| T3Q82 What are the names of the two enzymes commonly linked to secondary antibodies in the ELISA and Western Blot tests? |
answer
| ? |
question
| T4Q1-T/F Tularemia is caused by a gram negative bacterium |
answer
| True |
question
| T4Q2-T/F The pH of the skin is typically around 8.5 |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q3-T/F Acute endocarditis is most commonly contracted through contact with fomites |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q4-T/F Population level vaccination is the most effective measure for preventing cases of Yersina pestis infection in humans |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q5-T/F Staphylococcal infections tend to be more resistant to antibiotics than streptococcal infections |
answer
| True |
question
| T4Q6Chicken pox can be transmitted via inhalation of respiratory droplets and/or skin lesion contact and/or airborne spread of lesion material |
answer
| True |
question
| T4Q7-T/F There are organisms found in some powdered baby milk formulas that are capable of causing meningitis |
answer
| True |
question
| T4Q8-T/F Herpes simplex virus can cause subacute encephalitis |
answer
| True |
question
| T4Q9-T/F HIV is commonly transmitted through mosquito bites |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q10-T/F Ebola and Marburg viruses are transmitted by mosquitos |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q11-T/F Streptococcus pyogenes is a spore forming bacillus |
answer
| False |
question
| T4Q12 Which bacteria causes Scalded Skin Syndrome A)Staphylococcus aureus B)Staphylococcus pyogenes C)none of these are correct D)Pseudomonas auriginosa E)Staphylococcus epidermis |
answer
| A)Staphylococcus aureus |
question
| T1Q13 A patient presents with an upper respiratory tract infection involving gram-positive blub-shaped bacteria, and a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat. What is the most correct diagnosisA)Bortatella pertussis B)Streptococcus pyogenes C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae D)Mycobacterium tuberculosis E)Haemophilus influenzae |
answer
| C)Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
question
| T4Q14 Which of the following is commonly acquired through non-pasteurized milk, on improperly washed/contaminated foodsA)streptococcus pneumoniae B)Neisseria meningitidis C)Haemophilus influenzae D)Listeria monocytogenes E)Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
answer
| D)Listeria monocytogenes |
question
| T4Q15 A baby presents with Neonatal meningitis. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of transmission to the babyA)Breast feeding B)Hospital personnel C)Exposure from other infants D)Exposure in the birth canal E)Exposure from siblings |
answer
| D)Exposure in the birth canal |
question
| T4Q16 Inner ear infections are caused by microorganisms that travel to the ear via which of the following avenues: A)The Eustachian tube(s) B)The nasal cavity C)The external auditory meatus D)The sinuses E)The subarachnoid space |
answer
| A)The Eustachian tube(s) |
question
| T4Q17 Which of the following forms of leprosy is responsible for the gross disfiguration sometimes seenA)Systemic leprosy B)Cutaneous leprosy C)Tuberculoid leprosy D)Lepromatous leprosy E)Superficial leprosy |
answer
| D)Lepromatous leprosy |
question
| T4Q18 Which of the following is the MOST common cause of otitis mediaA)Asperfillus fumigatus B)Corynebacterium C)Haemophilus influenzae D)Streptococcus pneumoniae E)Candida albicans |
answer
| D)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
question
| T4Q19 Cat-scratch fever is transmitted by A)Brucella suis B)Francisella tularensis C)Yersinia enterocolitica D)Bartonella henselae E)Salmonella typhimurium |
answer
| D)Bartonella henselae |
question
| T4Q20 A patient presents with a fever and chills occurring in 48 hour cycles, anemia, and a blood smear reveals ring-shapes in many of their RBC's. What is their diagnosisA)They have Q-fever B)They have malaria C)They have round worms D)They have ebola virus E)They have sleeping sickness |
answer
| B)They have malaria |
question
| T4Q21 What is the vector for arborviruses A)Snails B)Arthoropods C)Humans D)Ungulates E)Cats |
answer
| B)Arthoropods |
question
| T4Q22 Which of the following organisms can infect deep wound sites, and by the action of its enzymes and exotoxins cause tissue and muscle necrosisA)Clostridium tetani B)Clostridium difficile C)Clostridium botulinum D)All of these Clostridium can do that E)Clostridium perfringens |
answer
| E)Clostridium perfringens |
question
| T4Q23 Which of the following is the causative agent of Hansen's diseaseA)Staphylococcus aureus B)Clostridium perfringens C)Streptococcus pyogenes D)Mycobacterium leprae E)Staphylococcus epidermis |
answer
| D)Mycobacterium leprae |
question
| T4Q24 What eye disease is characterized by pannus forming over the corneaA)Sty B)Trachoma C)River blindness D)Keratitis E)Simple conjunctivitis |
answer
| B)Trachoma |
question
| T4Q25 Which of the following is an enzyme found in Staphylococcus aureus whose presence can be used to distinguish this bacteria from other StaphylococciA)Peroxidase B)Coagulase C)Catalase D)Lysozyme E)Lipase |
answer
| B)Coagulase |
question
| T4Q26 A patient presents with headache, stiff neck, and petechiae on the trunk. What should be your diagnosisA)Meningitis B)Plague C)Herpes virus D)Mononucleosis E)HIV |
answer
| A)Meningitis |
question
| T4Q27 Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contractions is characteristic of: A)Clostridium tetani B)Clostridium botulinum C)Bacillus cereus D)Clostridium perfringens E)Clostridium difficile |
answer
| A)Clostridium tetani |
question
| T4Q28 Which antibody is concentrated in the mucous membranes of the respiratory tractA)IgM B)IgG C)IgD D)IgA E)IgE |
answer
| D)IgA |
question
| T4Q29 Trichophyton, Microsporum, and Epidermophyton all cause A)cutaneous mycoses B)Pulmonary mycoses C)These are not human pathogens, they do not cause disease states D)CNS infections E)gastrointestinal enteritis |
answer
| A)Cutaneous mycoses |
question
| T4Q30 Which of the following is the most common cause of EncephalitisA)Virus B)Helminth C)Protozoan D)Bacteria E)Prion |
answer
| A)Virus |
question
| T4Q31 Cryptococcus neoformans is a A)Virus B)Prion C)Bacteria D)Helminth E)Fungus |
answer
| E)Fungus |
question
| T4Q32 Which of the following might be more common during November (this past fall semester) at SAU because of SA sponsored eventsA)Tinea Barbae B)Tinea cruis C)Tinea capitis D)Tinea pedis E)Tinea Unguium |
answer
| A)Tinea Barbae |
question
| T4Q33 HIV preferentially binds to A)HIV does not have a preference B)Cells of the respiratory system C)CD-8 Th cells D)CD-4 Th cells E)Cells of the GI tract |
answer
| D)CD-4 Th cells |
question
| T4Q34 Propionibacterium acnes causes which of the following: A)Shingles B)Acne C)Blisters D)Peptic ulcers E)Chicken pox |
answer
| B)Acne |
question
| T4Q35 Which of the following is NOT part of the integument systemA)Surface capillaries B)Sweat glands C)Skin D)Hair E)Nails |
answer
| A)Surface capillaries |
question
| T4Q36 According to our notes, which of the following is the most common microbiota of the skin in terms of relative abundance? (there was a graph that showed this) A)Candida albicans and other yeasts B)E. coli C)Staphylococcus epidermis D)Pseudomonas E)Neisseria and other Betaproteobacteria |
answer
| D)Pseudomonas |
question
| T4Q37 Gamma hemolysis A)is the absence of hemolysis B)I have no idea C)is complete hemolysis D)is seen in malaria patients E)is incomplete hemolysis |
answer
| A)is the absence of hemolysis |
question
| T4Q38 A patient presents with a fluctuating fever, headache, muscle pain, and weakness. Their history reveals that they work commonly with animals, and have been in contact with animal milk and blood recently, Which is the most likely diagnosisA)Brucellosis B)Malaria C)Influenza D)Rabies E)Plague |
answer
| A)Brucellosis |
question
| T4Q39 What is the most common form of bacterial meningitis? Also the leading cause of community acquired meningitis A)Neisseria gonorrhoeae B)Neisseria meningitidis C)Listeria monocytogenes D)Haemophilus influenzae E)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
answer
| E)Streptococcus pneumoniae |
question
| T4Q40 Which of the following is a feature of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b that is associated with its virulenceA)Cytotoxin B)Capsule C)Fimbriae D)Enterotoxin E)Neurotoxin |
answer
| B)Capsule |
question
| T4Q41 Trypanosoma brucei causes A)Encephalitis B)Meningitis C)Tetanus D)Chagas Disease E)African sleeping sickness |
answer
| E)African Sleeping Sickness |
question
| T4Q42 Production of a naurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is characteristic of: A)Bacillus cereus B)Clostridium difficile C)Clostridium botulinum D)Clostridium tetani E)Clostridium perfringens |
answer
| C)Clostridium botulinum |
question
| T4Q43 A patient presents with Koplik's spots. What is the correct diagnosisA)Chicken-pox B)Mumps C)Roseolla D)Measles (Rubeola) E)Croup |
answer
| D)Measles(Rubeola) |
question
| T4Q44 A patient presents with cold like symptoms. Inspection of sputum reveals arthrospores. They have recently been working on a dusty ranch in the desert southwest. What is the most appropriate diagnosis A)They have Lyme disease B)They have Cryptococcus neoformans C)They have polio D)They have a respiratory infection with Coccidiodes immitis E)They have bacteria pneumonia |
answer
| D)They have a respiratory infection with Coccidiodes immitis |
question
| T4Q45 Currently, most Polio infections are of this type: A)Nonparalytic poliomyelitis B)Polio has been eradicated from the planet so there are no current infections C)Abortive poliomyelitis D)Paralytic Polio E)Asymptomatic illness |
answer
| E)Asymptomatic illness |
question
| T4Q46 Which of the following diseases could you contract from working in an air conditioned building (like this one), that had a contaminated water cooling systemA)Pertussis B)Plague C)Brucellosis D)Enterhemorrhagic E. Coli E)Legionellosis |
answer
| E)Legionellosis |
question
| T4Q47 A patient presents with non-specific symptoms and erythma migraines. What is the most likely diagnosisA)Lyme Disease B)Plague C)Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever D)Yellow Fever E)Chicken-Pox |
answer
| A)Lyme Disease |
question
| T4Q48 Which of the following is the most prevalent STD in the U.S.A)Chlamydia trachomatis B)Syphillis C)HIV D)Gonorrhea E)Herpes |
answer
| A)Chlamydia trachomatis |
question
| T4Q49 Plague disease can present as: A)Pneumonic and Bubonic forms only B)Septicemic form only C)Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms D)Bubonic and Septicemic forms E)Pneumonic form only |
answer
| C)Bubonic, Septicemic, and Pneumonic forms |
question
| T4Q50 What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entryA)Lysozyme B)Keratin C)Salt D)Sweat E)Sebum |
answer
| B)Keratin |
question
| T4Q51 Which of the following is NOT a class of drugs used to slow HIV infectionsA)Nucleoside analogs B)Integrase inhibitors C)Protease inhibitors D)Fusion inhibitors E)Synthesis inhibitors |
answer
| E)Synthesis inhibitors |
question
| T4Q52 A patient presents with cold-like symptoms, low-grade fever, sever and uncontrollable coughing and bloodshot eyes. What is the correct diagnosisA)They have mononucleosis B)They have Strep throat (Streptococcus pyogenes) C)They have Whooping Cough D)They have walking pneumonia E)They have a viral sinus infection |
answer
| C)They have Whooping Cough |
question
| T4Q53 The common cold is caused by A)A Herpesvirus B)A gram positive bacteria C)A gram negative bacteria D)An Arborvirus E)A Rhinovirus |
answer
| E)A Rhinovirus |
question
| T4Q54 What is the most common cause of acute encephalitis in the U.S.A)SAU B)West Nile Virus C)WEE D)SLE E)EEE |
answer
| E)SLE |
question
| T4Q55 A patient present with: Sore Throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and numerous odd shaped white blood cells apparent on a blood smear. What is the most likely diagnosisA)Influenza B)Streptococcus pyogenes infection C)Lyme disease D)Malaria E)Mononucleosis |
answer
| E)Mononucleosis |
question
| T4Q56 95% of human cases of anthrax are of this type A)Inhalation anthrax B)Ingestion anthrax C)Cardiovascular anthrax D)Cutaneous anthrax E)Lymphatic anthrax |
answer
| D)Cutaneous anthrax |
question
| T4Q57-61 Match the following: 57)Plasmodium sp. - Malaria [E] 58)Bartonella quintana - Trench Fever [C] 59)Yersinia pestis - Plague [A] 60)Coxiella burnetii - Q-Fever [B] 61)Bartonella henselae - Cat Scratch Fever[D] |
answer
| Answers on other side for 57-61 |
question
| T4Q62 The normal biota of the lower respiratory system include: |
answer
| There are none |
question
| T4Q63 What organism is the main reservoir for Toxoplasma gondii |
answer
| Cat |
question
| T4Q64 Influenza has an enzyme on its surface that aids in its pathogenesis. The variations of this enzyme are part of the designation system for different strains. What is the name of this enzyme? |
answer
| Neuraminidase |
question
| T4Q65 You have Molluscum contagiosum (sorry). What do you have? |
answer
| Form of warts |
question
| T4Q66 What type of cardiovascular/lymphatic cancer is commonly seen in AIDS patients that is otherwise rare in the general population? |
answer
| Burkitt's Lymphoma |
question
| T4Q67 What is the leading cause of community acquired bacteria pneumonia? |
answer
| Strep. pneumonia |
question
| T4Q68 What does the Hib vaccine prevent? Be as specific as possible |
answer
| Haemophilus influenzae Serotype b |
question
| T4Q69 The normal biota of the central nervous system consist of: |
answer
| There are none |
question
| T4Q70 What two diseases are caused by the Varicella-zoster virus |
answer
| Chicken pox (Varicella) & Disease with painful skin rash (Zoster) |
question
| T4Q72-BONUS Other than Mad Cow Disease, list two other spongiform encephalopaties. |
answer
| CJD Kuru |
question
| T4Q73-BONUS What is Fusobacterium necrophorum noted for? |
answer
| New source of sore throat, sensitive to penicillin |
question
| T4Q74-BONUS What is the range of temperature tolerance for Pseudomonas aeruginosa? |
answer
| 4-44 degrees Celsius |
question
| T4Q75-BONUS What is the causative agent of "Rabbit Fever"? |
answer
| Francisella tularensis |
question
| T4Q76-BONUS What bacterium is difficult/impossible to culture in laboratory media but can be grown in armadillos? |
answer
| Mycobacterium leprae |
