Microbiology Final – Flashcards
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Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?
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bacterial endospores
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The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is
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antisepsis.
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Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility
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sporicide
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Sterilization is achieved by
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steam autoclave
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Dry heat
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is less efficient than moist heat
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Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by
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pasteurization.
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HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from
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air
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The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are
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vegetative bacteria and fungi
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The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is
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ethylene oxide
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An organic nutrient that cannot be synthesized by the organism and must be provided is called a/an
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growth factor
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The term phototroph refers to an organism that
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gets energy from sunlight.
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The term autotroph refers to an organism that
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uses CO2 for its carbon source
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The term heterotroph refers to an organism that
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must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs.
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Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called
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saprobes
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Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would
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shrivel.
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Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab benchtop, on the shelf of a 37 C incubator and on the shelf of a 50 C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37 C and 50 C, slight growth out on the benchtop, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?
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psychrophile-abundant growth a cold temp
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All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except
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psychrophile-abundant growth a cold temp
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A microaerophile
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requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.
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A halophile would grow best in
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salt lakes
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The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of multiplication equals the rate of cell death is the
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stationary phase.
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The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing is the
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lag phase.
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The majority of organisms live or grow in habitats between
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pH 6 and 8
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The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to
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A. the depletion of nutrients.
B. the depletion of oxygen.
C. the excretion of biochemical pollutants.
D. the excretion of organic acids.
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You inoculate a culture into a test tube containing broth and take it out of the incubator the next day. You see the culture is growing at the bottom of the tube. You conclude the culture must be
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anaerobic
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All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
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petri dish
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Examples of different types of microbiological media include
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A. broth.
B. enriched.
C. agar.
E. gelatin.
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The decline in growth rate during the death phase is due to all of the following except
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the decrease in temperature of the culture.
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All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth
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B. anaerobes.
C. facultative anaerobes.
D. mesophiles.
E. capnophiles
(Grow with body temp)
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Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
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solid medium
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A pure culture contains only
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one species of microorganism
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A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?
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The culture is contaminated.
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Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
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differential
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Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?
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resolving power
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If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
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95X
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The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is
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dark-field.
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This microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image:
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electron
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This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification
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electron
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. This microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background
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bright-field
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The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
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add contrast in order to see them better.
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Basic dyes are
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attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells
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A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
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simple staining
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All of the following are correct about agar except
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it is a source of nutrition for bacteria.
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Agar is
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A. it is flexible.
B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100C).
D. it solidifies below 42C.
E. it is solid at room temperature
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Why is oil of immersion often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?
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to increase the resolution
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Disease-causing microorganisms are called
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pathogens.
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The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
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decomposers.
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The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
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prokaryotes.
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All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
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are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
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Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
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a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease
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Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis
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Robert Koch
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Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth
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bacteria and fungi
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All of the following are correct about prokaryotes except
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they have organelles.
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Characteristics of prokaryotes
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A. they are smaller than eukaryotes.
B. they lack a nucleus.
C. they are less complex than eukaryotes.
D. they DO NOT have organelles.
E. they are found nearly everywhere.
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The transfer of genes during bacterial conjugation involves rigid, tubular appendages called
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sex pili.
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The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's
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cell wall
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The cause of lockjaw
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Clostridium tetani
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The cause of necrotizing fasciitis
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Streptococcus pyogenes
(Group A Streptococcus)
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The cause of pseudomembranous colitis.
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Clostridium difficile
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The cause of ornithosis
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Chlamydia psittaci
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The cause of gas gangrene.
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Clostridium perfringens
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The cause of whooping cough.
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Bortella pertussis
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The cause of wool-sorter's disease
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Bacillus anthracis
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The cause of chancroid
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Haemophilus ducreyi
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he cause of Hansen's disease
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Mycobacterium leprae
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The cause of rabbit fever
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Francisella tulerensis
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Scarlet fever is caused by strains of
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Streptococcus pyogenes
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A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of
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Staphylococcus aureus
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This pathogen has drug resistant strains called MRSA
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Staphylococcus aureus
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Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
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Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining
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Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome include all the following except
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appearance of flesh being "eaten" down to the muscle.
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Rebecca Lancefield differentiated streptococci on the basis of differences in their
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cell wall carbohydrates in a serological test
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Symptoms of Toxic Shock Syndrome
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A. fever and muscle pain.
C. nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
D. sunburn-like rash.
E. kidney and liver failure.
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Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication
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A. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier.
B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats.
C. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours.
E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.
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Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following except
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scalded skin syndrome.
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Streptococcus pyogenes causes
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A. necrotizing fasciitis.
B. erysipelas.
C. impetigo.
D. scarlet fever
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Long term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include all the following except
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transmission of sequelae via respiratory secretions from a patient with streptococcal sore throat.
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Long term sequelae of Group A streptococcal infections include
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A. risk decreased with prompt treatment of skin infections and pharyngitis.
B. development of rheumatic fever.
C. appearance of sequelae within a few weeks after an initial infection
E. development of acute glomerulonephritis.
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All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except
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it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue.
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All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis
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A. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage.
C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood.
D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation.
E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is
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a gram positive diplococcus with a capsule
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People at greatest risk for pneumococcal infections include all the following except
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adolescents and young adults
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All of the following pertain to gonorrhea except
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a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry
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All of the following pertain to gonorrhea
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B. it is a reportable infectious disease.
C. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications.
D. females can have asymptomatic infection.
E. symptoms include painful urination and discharge.
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The majority of otitis media in children is mainly due to infection with
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Streptococcus pneumoniae
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Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
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anaerobic
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Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis
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A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors.
C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil.
D. gram positive bacillus.
E. sporeformer.
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Anthrax is
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A. a zoonosis.
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion.
C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia.
D. only seen sporadically in the United States.
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Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
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cutaneous
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This type of anthrax is called "wool-sorter's disease"
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pulmonary.
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The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
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botulism.
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All of the following pertain to infant botulism except
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neurotoxin is not involved in the disease process.
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infant botulism
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A. symptoms include "floppy baby" appearance.
B. neurotoxin is involved in the disease process.
C. ingested spores can germinate in the immature intestines of the neonate.
D. symptoms include flaccid paralysis and respiratory complications.
E. it is the most common type of botulism in the United States.
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All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except
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it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies.
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Clostridium difficile
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B. it is a colitis that is a superinfection.
C. it often has an endogenous source.
D. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.
E. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals.
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Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
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diphtheria.
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Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species
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all species are human pathogens
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Mycobacterium species
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A. NOT all species are human pathogens
B. cell walls have waxy lipids
C. acid fast
D. usually have a slow growth rate
E. long, slender rods
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All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
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antimicrobics cannot treat and cure tuberculosis.
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tuberculosis
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A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life.
B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss and night sweats.
C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB.
D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.
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The common soil mycobacteria that frequently cause systemic infection and death in AIDS patients is
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Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC).
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Pseudomonas aeruginosa is
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A. found in soil and water.
B. an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes.
C. highly chemical resistant.
D. motile.
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Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
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Blue-green
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Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of
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tularemia
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Legionella pneumophila
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A. requires special lab growth media.
B. often lives in close associations with amoebas.
C. causes fever, cough, and diarrhea.
D. causes a severe pneumonia.
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Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
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Legionellosis
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Escherichia coli infections
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A. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food.
B. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains.
C. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea.
D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery.
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Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
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it frequently involves septicemia
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shigellosis
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A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers
B. it is watery diarrhea with bloody, mucoid stools, and abdominal cramps
D. human carriers cause fecal transmission
E. it is also called bacillary dysentery
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Yersinia pestis
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is usually transmitted by a flea vector.
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Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?
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E. coli 0157:H7
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Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector?
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Leptospirosis
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transmitted via an arthropod vector
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B. Lyme disease
C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
D. Epidemic typhus
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Treponena pallidum subspecies pallidum
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A. has humans as the reservoir.
B. can cross the placenta.
C. is the cause of syphilis
D. is transmitted by direct sexual contact.
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Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?
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Tertiary
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Treponema, Borrelia, and Leptospira are all
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spirochetes
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The causative agent of Lyme disease is
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Borrelia burgdorferi.
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"Rice water stools" are associated with disease caused by this organism
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Vibrio cholerae
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Viruses have all the following except
A. definite shape.
B. metabolism.
C. genes.
D. ability to infect host cells.
E. ultramicroscopic size.
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metabolism.
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The core of every virus particle always contains
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either DNA or RNA
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Virus capsids are made from subunits called
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capsomeres
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All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they
A. are gained as a virus leaves the host cell membrane.
B. are gained as a virus leaves the nuclear membrane.
C. contain special virus proteins.
D. help the virus particle attach to host cells.
E. are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.
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are located between the capsid and nucleic acid
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Which of the following is not associated with every virus
A. envelope
B. capsomers
C. capsid
D. nucleic acid
E. genome
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envelope
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The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
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injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell
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Which of the following will not support viral cultivation
A. live lab animals
B. embryonated bird eggs
C. primary cell cultures
D. continuous cell cultures
E. blood agar
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blood agar
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Oncogenic viruses include all the following except
A. hepatitis B virus.
B. measles virus.
C. papillomavirus.
D. HTLVI and HTLVII viruses.
E. Epstein-Barr virus.
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measles virus
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Infectious protein particles are called
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prions
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Infectious naked strands of RNA are called
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viroids
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Creutzfeld-Jacob disease is
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a spongiform encephalopathy of humans
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Which body system is mainly affected by Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
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nervous
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Viruses with single-stranded DNA are the
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Parvoviruses
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All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae except
A. Varicella-zoster virus.
B. Cytomegalovirus.
C. Variola virus.
D. Herpes simplex viruses.
E. Epstein-Barr virus.
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Variola virus
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An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is
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encephalitis
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Varicella-zoster virus
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A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry.
B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes.
C. has humans as its reservoir.
D. causes chickenpox and shingles.
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The hepadnaviruses
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show tropism for the liver
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Hepatitis B virus
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A. is principally transmitted by blood.
B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse.
C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers.
D. has many chronic carriers.
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Which is incorrect about warts
A. Caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV).
B. Are transmitted by direct contact or fomites.
C. Include deep plantar warts of soles of the feet.
D. Are usually cancerous.
E. Freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal.
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Are usually cancerous
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Fifth disease
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A. is caused by Parvovirus B19.
B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks.
C. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta.
D. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells.
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When bilirubin accumulates in the blood and tissues, it causes
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jaundice
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Which virus may play a role in multiple sclerosis
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Epstein Barr Virus
Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6)
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Which is incorrect about smallpox
A. There is an effective vaccine.
B. Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food.
C. The vaccine is effective even if given in the first few days after exposure.
D. The poxvirus called variola is the etiological agent.
E. The last case was seen in 1977.
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Transmission is by ingesting contaminated water or food
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Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following except:
A. enveloped
B. include paramyxoviruses
C. hemagglutinin spikes
D. RNA genome
E. neuraminidase spikes
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include paramyxoviruses
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Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following except
A. influenza.
B. rubella.
C. dengue fever.
D. mumps.
E. SARS.
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dengue fever
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Influenza vaccines include all the following except
A. inactivated intramuscular vaccine.
B. usually incorporates three different strains.
C. attenuated, nasal drops vaccine.
D. provides lifelong immunity.
E. Guillain-Barré syndrome is a postvaccination neurological complication.
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provides lifelong immunity.
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Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses
A. lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B. Lassa fever
C. hantaviruses
D. Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
E. Argentine hemorrhagic fever
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hantaviruses
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Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of
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mumps
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Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
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measles (rubeola).
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This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage
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rubella
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All the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except:
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis occur
D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, conjunctivitis are symptoms
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transmitted by direct contact with the rash
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Which is incorrect about rabies
A. is a zoonotic disease
B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs
C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation
D. average incubation in human is 1 week
E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, paralysis
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average incubation in human is 1 week
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. Coronaviruses cause
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common cold and SARS
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Sudden acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)
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can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress
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All arboviruses involve
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arthropod vectors
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Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever
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Yellow fever
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Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
A. glycoprotein spikes.
B. DNA genome.
C. envelope.
D. reverse transcriptase.
E. viral genes integrate into the host genome.
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. DNA genome
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All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except
A. have an immunodeficiency
B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/mm3 of blood
C. get repeated, life-threatening opportunistic infections
D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E. highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
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highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States
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Documented transmission of HIV involves
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unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.
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All of the following pertain to HIV except
A. attaches primarily to host cells with CD4 receptors
B. viral DNA integrates into the host nucleus
C. it has reverse transcriptase
D. causes Kaposi sarcoma
E. can enter into nervous tissues and cause abnormalities
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causes Kaposi sarcoma (a cancer seen in AIDS patients)
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All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis
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B. transmitted primarily by fecal contaminated water
C. can be asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor, neurons can be infected and destroyed
E. there are effective vaccines to prevent polio
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The major agents responsible for the common cold are
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Rhinoviruses.
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Spongiform encephalopathies are
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A. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain.
B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system.
C. caused by prions.
D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome.
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Which area has the largest number of people living with HIV/AIDS
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Sub-Saharan Africa
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The ability of a fungus to grow as a yeast or a mold depending on its environmental temperature is called
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dimorphism.
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All of the following are dimorphic, true fungal pathogens except
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Candida.
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Paracoccidioides is
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endemic to regions of Central and South America
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Dermatophytoses are
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A. fungal infections of the skin, hair, and nails.
B. also called ringworm.
C. also called tineas.
D. often time-consuming to eradicate completely.
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Oral thrush is caused by
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Candida albicans
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This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients
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Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
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dimorphic, true fungal pathogens are
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B. Histoplasma.
C. Blastomyces.
D. Coccidioides.
E. Paracoccidioides.
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The event that occurs in bacteriophage multiplication that does not occur in animal virus replication is
A. adsorption to the host cells.
B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.
C. host cell synthesis of viral enzymes and capsid proteins.
D. assembly of nucleocapsids.
E. replication of viral nucleic acid.
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B. injection of the viral nucleic acid into the host cell.