question

1. What is the flagellum of prokaryotes powered by?

answer

1. Proton motive force (proton gradient)

question

2. How does the flagellum of prokaryotes move?

answer

2. Rotates (like a propeller)

question

3. How does the flagellum of the eukaryote move? How is it powered?

answer

3. Whip-like; ATP hydrolysis

question

4. What are the cilia-like structures in prokaryotes called that are involved in adherence or exchange of genetic material?

answer

4. Fimbriae/Pili

question

5. What are bacterial cell walls composed of?

answer

5. Peptidoglycan

question

6. What do antibiotics target in bacteria?

answer

6. Peptidoglycan

question

7. T/F Bacteria cell membranes contain cholesterol.

answer

7. F

question

8. T/F Prokaryotes usually have single, circular chromosomes without histones or introns.

answer

8. T

question

9. T/F Shape cannot be used as a diagnostic tool for determining bacteria.

answer

9. F – Shape is an important diagnostic tool.

question

10. What are the six shapes or Bacteria?

answer

10. Coccus– Sphere; Coccobacillus – elongated sphere; Bacillus – rod; Vibrio – “comma”; Spirillum – rigid corkscrew shape; Spirochete – flexible corkscrew shape

question

11. What are some problems associated with diagnosis based on shape?

answer

11. bacteria change shape during growth – especially during stationary phase; Pleomorphic organisms don’t have a specific shape

question

12. What arrangement do streptococci take?

answer

12. Long chain of cells

question

13. What bacterium is described as a “bunch of grapes”?

answer

13. Staphylococci

question

14. Do all bacteria contain a capsule?

answer

14. No, but gram + or – can have capsules

question

15. What regulates capsule production?

answer

15. Growth phase and growth environment

question

16. What layer is directly inside the capsule of a gram + cell?

answer

16. Fibrillar layer (protein layer)

question

17. T/F All gram + cells have this layer.

answer

17. F

question

18. What is characteristic of the peptidoglycan layer in a gram + cell?

answer

18. Thick, >40 layers, Highly cross-linked

question

19. What is characteristic of the peptidoglycan layer in a gram – cell?

answer

19. Thin, 1-2 layers, not highly cross-linked

question

20. What layer is inside the peptidoglycan layer?

answer

20. Cytoplasmic membrane

question

21. What cell type has an outer membrane? Where is it found?

answer

21. Gram - ; directly inside the capsule (if present)

question

22. What are 2 features of the outer membrane?

answer

22. Lipopolysaccharide, Unique Proteins

question

23. What are the proteins called and what do they do in the outer membrane?

answer

23. Porins; Diffusion channels, adhesions, antibiotic resistance

question

24. In Gram – what is the region called between the outer membrane and the cytoplasmic membrane?

answer

24. Periplasmic space

question

25. What are 2 features of the Periplasmic space?

answer

25. Contains the peptidoglycan layer, enzymes involved in cell wall biosynthesis

question

26. T/F The cytoplasmic membrane and cytoplasm are very similar in Gram + and – bacteria.

answer

26. T

question

27. What is the extracellular, carbohydrate rich coating on some bacteria called?

answer

27. Glycocalyx

question

28. Where is the glycocalyx made?

answer

28. In the cell then exported to exterior

question

29. What are the 2 types of glycocalyx?

answer

29. Capsule and Slime layer

question

30. What is the capsule composed of?

answer

30. Repeating carbohydrate subunits

question

31. What are 2 roles of the Capsule?

answer

31. Prevent cell from drying out, act as an energy source.

question

32. How does the capsule act as a virulence factor? Why is this good?

answer

32. Prevents bacterium from recognition by hiding its antigenic components, antipagocytic – blocks complement deposition; Targets for vaccines.

question

33. What is another name for the Slime layer?

answer

33. Exopolysaccharide, EPS

question

34. What is the major distinguishing factor between a capsule and slime layer?

answer

34. Capsules are more firmly attached to cell

question

35. T/F Capsules are easily stained.

answer

35. F – difficult to stain because they are mostly carbohydrate

question

36. What kind of stain can be used to stain capsules?

answer

36. India Ink – leaves a halo around the cell

question

37. What is movement based on chemical sensing called?

answer

37. Chemotaxis

question

38. What are Flagella composed of?

answer

38. Flagellin protein

question

39. Why is Flagellin a major antigenic target?

answer

39. Its high copy number

question

40. What recognizes Flagellin?

answer

40. TLR5 (Toll-Like Receptor 5)

question

41. What can Flagellin be used for in verifying the organism?

answer

41. Used for Strain Typing

question

42. What provides the energy for rotation?

answer

42. Proton Motive Force

question

43. T/F Flagella arrangement is diagnostic for some species of bacteria.

answer

43. T

question

44. What is a single flagellum at one pole of the cell called? Example?

answer

44. Monotrichous; Vibrio

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45. How is a Lophotrichous cell organized?

answer

45. One pole with several flagella.

question

46. How are Peritrichous cells organized? Example?

answer

46. Flagella all over the cell; Salmonella, Escherichia

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47. What is a cell called that has flagella at both poles?

answer

47. Amphitrichous

question

48. What is characteristic of a Spirochete?

answer

48. Endoflagella

question

49. How do Endoflagella work?

answer

49. Wound around cell not exposed to external environment, forms an axial filament, Rotation of Flagella causes bacterium to move like a corkscrew.

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50. What is an example of a bacterium with Endoflagella?

answer

50. Syphilis

question

51. What projections are used for adherence?

answer

51. Fimbriae

question

52. What projections are used for transfer of genetic material between bacteria?

answer

52. Pili

question

53. What protein are Pili made up of?

answer

53. Pilin

question

54. T/F Pili can be found on ALL gram + and – cells.

answer

54. F – not all cells produce pili, but they can be found on Gram + or -

question

55. How are Pili involved in Motility?

answer

55. Extension of pili, adhering to surface, then retracting

question

56. What is a Biofilm? What is essential for this?

answer

56. Organized system of bacteria formed on surfaces; Adherence by Pili

question

57. What is a Mesosome?

answer

57. Invaginations of the plasma membrane that can form vesicles in Gram + or -

question

58. What is the Gram + cell envelope made from?

answer

58. > 40 peptidoglycan layer, Contains teichoic and lipoteichoic acids

question

59. What substance in Gram +, are not found in Gram – cells?

answer

59. Teichoic acids

question

60. How are teichoic acids linked to peptidoglycan?

answer

60. Covalently

question

61. How are lipoteichoic acids anchored to the cytoplasmic membrane?

answer

61. Lipid Tail

question

62. What is used to aid in identification of the bacteria?

answer

62. Teichoic and lipoteichoic acids

question

63. T/F Both Gram + and – can form spores.

answer

63. F – Only some Gram + can form spores

question

64. What is a Spore?

answer

64. Dormant Bacterial form that resists heat, desiccation, and many chemicals

question

65. When do spores develop and how long do they live?

answer

65. In response to nutrient limitations or stress; Long-Lived!

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66. What is present in a Gram – cell that Gram + cells do not have?

answer

66. Outer Membrane

question

67. What does this membrane function as?

answer

67. Permeability barrier

question

68. What is inbetween the inner and outer membrane?

answer

68. Periplasmic Space

question

69. T/F the peptidoglycan layers in Gram + and – are the same.

answer

69. F – the peptidoglycan layer in Gram – cells is thin 1-2 layers.

question

70. Why is the peptidoglycan layer a good drug target?

answer

70. Unique to bacteria and essential in most bacteria.

question

71. T/F All Bacteria have a peptidoglycan cell wall

answer

71. F – Mycoplasm and Chlamydiae do not

question

72. What makes up the “Glycan” portion of the cell wall?

answer

72. NAM-NAG, linked disaccharide chain repeated

question

73. What can cleave this linkage?

answer

73. Lysozyme – found in human tears and mucus membranes

question

74. What makes up the “peptide” portion?

answer

74. Pentapeptide composed of D- And L- amino acids

question

75. What portion of the peptidoglycan are crosslinked?

answer

75. Pentapeptides

question

76. What is the 3 step process of peptidoglycan synthesis?

answer

76. 1. Single disaccharide linked to a pentapeptide are synthesized in the cytoplasm. 2. Translocated across cytoplasmic membrane. 3. Disaccharide chain links to growing chain, and cross linking occurs between glycan chains

question

77. What step is targeted by bacitracin?

answer

77. Step 1

question

78. What catalyzes crosslinking b/w glycan chains?

answer

78. Transpeptidase activity of penicillin-binding proteins

question

79. What step is the target of B-Lactam Antibiotics?

answer

79. Cross linking step, Step 3

question

80. What is similar about the peptidoglycan structure among Gram + and -?

answer

80. NAM-NAG, pentapeptides bound to disaccharide.

question

81. What is different about the structure?

answer

81. Gram + have a L-lysine at the 3rd position, Gram – have a DAP

question

82. T/F DAP is only found in prokaryotes

answer

82. T

question

83. What extra feature do some Gram + cells have?

answer

83. Interpeptide bridge, 5 glycines attache to the 3rd position L-lysine

question

84. Where does cross-linking occur in Gram – cells?

answer

84. Between DAP on one and 4th D-Ala of another, (5th D-Ala released)

question

85. Where does cross-linking occure in Gram + cells?

answer

85. Interpeptide and 4th D-ala, or L-lys and 4th D-ala (if no interpeptide) (5th D-ala is released)

question

86. How many distinct forms of peptidoglycan have been found in gram positive bacteria?

answer

86. 8

question

87. Where are these differences found?

answer

87. Pentapeptide and interpeptide bridges

question

88. What is necessary for cellular rigidity?

answer

88. Peptidoglycan cross-linking

question

89. What are PBPs?

answer

89. Penicillin binding proteins, secreted proteins that are anchored to the outer surface of the cytoplasmic membrane

question

90. What are the 2 categories of PBPs?

answer

90. High molecular weight and Low molecular weight

question

91. What do High Molecular weight PBPs do?

answer

91. Essential for growth, encode transpeptidase and transglycosylase activities

question

92. What do Low Molecular weight PBPs do?

answer

92. NOT essential for growth, Encode ONLY carboxypeptidase activity

question

93. What does B-Lactam antibiotics (penicillin) inhibit?

answer

93. Transpeptidase and Caraboxypeptidase activities, Cant’s Grow!

question

94. What percentage of pentapeptides are cross-linked in Gram -? Gram +?

answer

94. 20-30%; 80-90%

question

95. What is the glycosidase called that hydrolyses the NAM-NAG bond?

answer

95. Lysozyme

question

96. What type of cells is this an important antibacterial defense against?

answer

96. Gram +

question

97. Why is lysozyme less important in defense against Gram -?

answer

97. Presence of the Outer Membrane prevents lysozyme access to the peptidoglycan layer.

question

98. Which type of cell has extensive cross-linking?

answer

98. Gram +

question

99. What is the main function of the Outer Membrane?

answer

99. Permeability barrier

question

100. What does the Outer Membrane protect the cell against?

answer

100. Antibiotics, lysozymes, toxins, etc.

question

101. What are 4 functions of proteins in the outer membrane?

answer

101. Autoagregation, Adhesins, Flagella/Pili, Phage recognition

question

102. Where are Lipopolysaccharides located?

answer

102. Outer leaflet of outer membrane

question

103. What is responsible for the permeability barrier properties of the Outer Membrane?

answer

103. Lipoplysaccharide

question

104. What is essential for viability?

answer

104. Lipopolysaccharide

question

105. How is the O-antigen attached to the Lipid A?

answer

105. Core polysaccharide

question

106. What is the O-antigen composed of?

answer

106. Repeating oligosaccharides

question

107. T/F The O-antigen is Highly variable and can be quite long.

answer

107. T

question

108. T/F The O-antigen is essential.

answer

108. F – it is not essential

question

109. What is the morphology of an O-Ag +? O-Ag - ?

answer

109. Smooth colonies; rough or dry on agar plates.

question

110. T/F The core polysaccharide is not essential for growth.

answer

110. F – it is essential for growth

question

111. What makes up the core polysaccharide?

answer

111. 7 Conserved carbohydrates

question

112. What unique carbohydrates does the core polysaccharide have?

answer

112. 2-keto-3-deoxyoctonoic acid (KDO), Heptose

question

113. What type of cell is Lipid A unique to?

answer

113. Gram -

question

114. What is Lipid A commonly referred to as?

answer

114. Endotoxin

question

115. What is Lipid A recognized by?

answer

115. TLR4

question

116. What part of the LPS is responsible for the barrier properties of the outer membrane?

answer

116. Lipid A

question

117. How do some pathogens alter the structure of LPS?

answer

117. Enzymatic reactions

question

118. What can an altered LPS cause?

answer

118. Altered interactions with innate immune response

question

119. What can a Reduction of negative charge of the LPS result in?

answer

119. Altered interaction with TOL receptors and resistance to cationic antimicrobial peptides. (RESISTANCE!)

question

120. T/F Alterations in Acylation results in altered interaction with TLR

answer

120. T

question

121. T/F Lipid A is not essential for Growth

answer

121. F

question

122. What is Lipid A made up of?

answer

122. Acylated glucosamine disaccharide

question

123. What imparts negative charges to LPS?

answer

123. Phosphorylation

question

124. What adaptive responses do some organisms have to affect interaction with the innate immune system?

answer

124. Cap the phosphorylated part, or enzymatically remove the phosphate group.

question

125. What is the inside leaflet of the outer membrane made up of?

answer

125. Phospholipids

question

126. What makes up the outer leaflet?

answer

126. LPS

question

127. What can lead to resistance to antimicrobial peptides?

answer

127. Reduction of negative charges of LPS

question

128. What stabilizes the LPS?

answer

128. Salt bridges

question

129. How are the Salt Bridges formed?

answer

129. Magnesium ions bound to phosphates of adjacent LPS molecules

question

130. T/F Some antibiotics target Salt bridges to destabilize the outer membrane?

answer

130. T

question

131. What stimulates pro-inflammatory signal transduction pathways?

answer

131. LPS via TLR4

question

132. How can endotoxic shock become life-threatening?

answer

132. IL-1 induction causes fever, macro & PMN activation causes oxidative damage , increased hypotension from increased permeability, thrombosis, tissue necrosis

question

133. T/F cytoplasmic membrane is a target for antibiotics.

answer

133. F

question

134. What is the difference between Gram + and – in secretion of proteins?

answer

134. Gram +: secreted across 1 membrane Gram -: secreted through 2 membranes; many proteins first secreted into periplasm, further processed then secreted into environment.

question

135. How many different mechanisms for protein secretion in bacteria are there?

answer

135. 6

question

136. What is Type 1 and where are they found?

answer

136. ATP binding cassette (ABC) transporter; in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

question

137. What type of substrates to ABC transporters secrete?

answer

137. Drugs, carbohydrates, peptides, proteins

question

138. What type is the General Secretory pathway?

answer

138. Type II

question

139. What are Type II pathways unique to and what do they involve?

answer

139. Bacteria; chaperones, and signal peptides

question

140. What type is associated with pathogenic strains?

answer

140. Type III “contact dependent secretion systems”

question

141. How do Type III mechanisms work?

answer

141. Directly inject effector proteins into the host cell cytoplasm

question

142. What type is associated with conjugation?

answer

142. Type IV

question

143. What is an example of Type IV?

answer

143. Helicobacter, Pertussis Toxin

question

144. What Type is related to Porin Proteins?

answer

144. Type V, Autotransporters

question

145. How do Autotransporter work?

answer

145. Exports proteins to the cell surface where they are released by proteolytic cleavage into the extracellular environment

question

146. What Type was discovered most recent?

answer

146. Type VI

question

147. How do bacteria divide?

answer

147. Binary fission

question

148. What kind of growth does this result in?

answer

148. Exponential growth. Cell number = 2n, where n = number of divisions

question

149. What does division by binary fission require?

answer

149. 1) Extension of cell wall; 2) Replication of the genome; 3) Segregation of Chromosomes by membrane attachment; 4) Septum formation

question

150. How is Growth Rate equated?

answer

150. Growth Rate = ? in #cells / unit time

question

151. What is the generation time?

answer

151. The time required for one cell to grow and divide into two cells.

question

152. What is the generation time dependent on?

answer

152. Growth conditions – pH, temp, salinity, nutrients, etc.

question

153. What are the four phase of the bacterial growth curve?

answer

153. Lag Phase, Esponential (log) Phase, Stationary Phase, Death Phase

question

154. What phase is associated with adapting to a new environment?

answer

154. Lag Phase

question

155. What phase has a great death rate than growth rate in culture?

answer

155. Death Phase

question

156. What phase corresponds with a maximal DNA and protein synthesis?

answer

156. Log Phase

question

157. In what phase do bacteria have an elevated resistance to antibiotics?

answer

157. Stationary phase

question

158. What phase may cells need to synthesize enzymes?

answer

158. Lag Phase

question

159. Why might cells need to synthesize enzymes?

answer

159. To utilize nutrients in the medium or for adaptive responses to changes in osmolarity, pH, temperature, etc.

question

160. In what phase are bacteria most susceptible to drugs?

answer

160. Log Phase

question

161. What phase is the best time to do differential staining?

answer

161. Log Phase

question

162. What phase do cells become metabolically inactive?

answer

162. Stationary phase

question

163. What phase do gram + bacteria produce spores?

answer

163. Stationary phase

question

164. What phase is the growth rate equal to the death rate?

answer

164. Stationary phase

question

165. What is a complex aggregation of microorganisms encased in a protective, adhesive carbohydrate matrix?

answer

165. Biofilm

question

166. What are Biofilms characterized by?

answer

166. 1) Surface attachment; 2) structural heterogeneity; 3) genetic diversity; 4) complex community interactions

question

167. What percentage of all infections are estimated to be caused by Biofilms?

answer

167. 80%

question

168. T/F Biofilm associated bacteria are resistant to antibiotics.

answer

168. T

question

169. How do biofilms protect against the immune system?

answer

169. Antiphagocytic; Brovide barrier against immune system

question

170. During energy production in eukaryotes what is the ultimate electron acceptor?

answer

170. Oxygen

question

171. What toxic products are produced as a result of metabolism in the presence of oxygen?

answer

171. Hydrogen peroxide and Superoxide anion

question

172. What type of bacteria require oxygen for growth?

answer

172. Obligate aerobe

question

173. What are the oxygen requirements of Microaerophiles?

answer

173. Oxygen levels form 2-10%

question

174. What type of bacteria cannot tolerate oxygen?

answer

174. Obligate anaerobes

question

175. How do Aerotolerant anaerobes deal with oxygen?

answer

175. Do not use aerobic metabolism, but have enzymes that detoxify the poisonous forms of oxygen.

question

176. What type of bacteria can grow in the presense of absence of oxygen?

answer

176. Facultative anaerobes

question

177. What type of metabolism occurs in the absence of oxygen?

answer

177. Fermentation

question

178. Why are obligate anaerobes killed in the presence of oxygen?

answer

178. Lack enzymes required to detoxify toxic forms of oxygen

question

179. What specific enzyme do obligate anaerobes lack to detoxify superoxide?

answer

179. Superoxide dismutase

question

180. What other enzymes do they lack to get rid of the product of superoxide dismutase?

answer

180. Catalase and peroxidase

question

181. What is formed by superoxide dismutase?

answer

181. Peroxide, H2O2

question

182. What type of oxygen requirement do most bacteria have?

answer

182. Facultative anaerobes; they grow in the presence or absence of oxygen.

question

183. What enzyme do all Facultative anaerobes have?

answer

183. Superoxide Dismutase

question

184. How do low temperatures affect bacterial growth?

answer

184. Affects membrane fluidity and enzyme kinetics

question

185. How do Maximal temperatures affect bacterial growth?

answer

185. Reduced growth due to protein denaturation, thermal lysis and membrane collapse.

question

186. What category of growth temperatures are most human pathogens in? What is the temperature range?

answer

186. Mesophiles; ~15-45 C

question

187. What are the bacteria called that grow at temperatures between -5-20C?

answer

187. Psychrophiles

question

188. What temperatures do Hyperthermophiles grow at?

answer

188. ~65 – 105 C

question

189. What bacteria grow best at temperatures between ~45 – 80 C?

answer

189. Thermophiles

question

190. How do pH levels in the body inhibit microbial growth?

answer

190. Certain regions of the body have lower pH which prevents microbial growth. Ex. Vaginal secretions

question

191. What is an example of a pathogen that has adapted to an acidic environment?

answer

191. Helicobacter pylori

question

192. What is an organism that is capable of synthesizing ALL its metabolites called? Example?

answer

192. Prototroph; E. coli, Salmonella, Pseudomonas

question

193. What is an Auxotroph? Example?

answer

193. An organism that has lost the ability to synthesize certain substances required for its growth and metabolism as the result of mutational changes; Chlamydia, Lactobacilli, Haemophilus, Neisseriae, Francisella

question

194. What are essential nutrients that bacteria can’t produce on their own called?

answer

194. Growth Factor

question

195. What is commonly used to identify and differentiate bacteria?

answer

195. Nutrient requirements

question

196. What mineral is essential from growth?

answer

196. Iron

question

197. What proteins are used as a host defense to protect iron?

answer

197. Lactoferrin and transferrin

question

198. How have pathogenic bacteria evolved to get the iron they need?

answer

198. 1) Transporter for lactoferrin and transferrin; 2) Production of siderophores 3) production of iron releasing cytotoxins

question

199. What are Siderophores?

answer

199. Iron binding compounds that can ‘steal’ iron from lactoferrin

question

200. What two groups do microbial metabolism fall into?

answer

200. Anabolism and Catabolism

question

201. What type of reactions make new cell components and require energy?

answer

201. Anabolism

question

202. What happens in Catabolism?

answer

202. Breakdown of compounds for building blocks, creation of energy

question

203. What common intermediate is made in metabolism?

answer

203. Pyruvate

question

204. What determines the fate of pyruvate?

answer

204. Oxygen

question

205. In the presence of oxygen how is pyruvate utilized?

answer

205. Funneled through Krebs Cycle.

question

206. What are the electrons removed from pyruvate used for?

answer

206. Reduce NAD+ a NADH and FAD+ a FADH2

question

207. Where are these coenzymes used? Where are the electrons transferred to?

answer

207. ECT; oxygen – the final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration.

question

208. What occurs in the absence of oxygen?

answer

208. Anaerobic respiration – fermentation

question

209. How is Pyruvate used in fermentation?

answer

209. Degraded to various organic end products; lactic acid, ethanol

question

210. What can be used in fermentation to identify and classify bacteria?

answer

210. The end products

question

211. Which is more efficient in energy production, Aerobic or anaerobic respiration?

answer

211. Aerobic

question

212. How many ATP can Aerobic respiration produce? Anaerobic?

answer

212. 38; 2

question

213. How are bacteria classified?

answer

213. Phenotype and/or genotype

question

214. What phenotypic traits can be observed in bacteria?

answer

214. 1) Staining characteristics; 2) Shape; 3) biotype differentiation; 4) colony appearance; 5) antigen-specific tests

question

215. What are RFLP patterns?

answer

215. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism – technique used to differentiate bacteria based on the sizes of chromosomal fragments generated following digestion with a restriction enzyme.

question

216. What is the taxonomic category ranking below a family and above a species?

answer

216. Genus

question

217. What are individual organisms displaying similar characteristics?

answer

217. Species

question

218. How do subspecies usually arise?

answer

218. From geographic separation

question

219. How can different strains be defined?

answer

219. Serotype and biotype

question

220. What is an Isolate?

answer

220. A pure culture of organism isolated from heterogeneous population of microorganism

question

221. What are the bacterial taxonomy relevant to the clinical setting?

answer

221. Genus a Species a Strain a Subspecies a Biovar/Biotype a Serovar/Serotype

question

222. What is the most deadly subspecies of Francisella tularensis?

answer

222. Francisella tularensis ssp. tularensis

question

223. How do the two different species of Salmonella differ?

answer

223. Salmonella typhi – typhoid fever Salmonella typhimurium – gastroenteritis

question

224. What bacteria is a Gram + Cocci, catalase+?

answer

224. Staphylococcus

question

225. How is streptococcus classified?

answer

225. Gram+ cocci, catalase –

question

226. What color do gram + stain?

answer

226. Purple

question

227. What color do gram – stain?

answer

227. Pink

question

228. What color are gram – after decolorize?

answer

228. Unstained

question

229. What are the steps for Gram staining?

answer

229. 1) Fix the bacteria of a slide 2) flood slide with crystal violet 3) Rinse add Iodine 4) Rinse and decolorize 5) Add Safranin and Rinse 6) pat dry

question

230. What are 3 exceptions to the gram stain and why?

answer

230. Mycoplasma – lack cell wall; Chlamydiae – disulfide linked proteins not peptidoglycan; Mycobacteria – waxy lipids in cell wall

question

231. What type of stain is used for Mycobacterium and Nocardia?

answer

231. Acid-fast Stain

question

232. What is used for a dye in Acid-fast stains? What color does it stain?

answer

232. Carbolfuchsin; red

question

233. What is added to Acid-fast stains to visualize other cells present?

answer

233. Methylene blue

question

234. What diseases do Mycobacterium and Nocardia cause?

answer

234. Tuberculosis, leprosy, other skin/lung infections

question

235. Where can Transient Flora be found?

answer

235. Environment – door handles, desks, people

question

236. What is the population of organisms called that are regularly found at any anatomical site?

answer

236. Resident Flora

question

237. T/F Internal tissues contain Resident Flora.

answer

237. F – Internal tissues are free of microorganisms

question

238. What type of organisms are found in the Resident Flora?

answer

238. Bacteria (most), Fungi (few), Protozoa (rare)

question

239. What region of the body is most poplulated?

answer

239. GI tract

question

240. Do the blood, brain, and muscle have normal flora?

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240. No – Internal tissues are free of microorganisms

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241. What are 3 examples of bacteria that occupy multiple niches of the body?

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241. Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus aureus, Corynebactrium spp.

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242. What is Tissue Tropism?

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242. Favoring growth in one tissue more than another.

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243. What factors can influence flora diversity?

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243. 1) Age and sex 2) Diet and nutrition 3) Sanitation and hygiene

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244. How does normal flora prevent colonization of pathogenic bacteria?

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244. 1) competing for attachement sites and nutrients. 2) Antagonize bacterial growth

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245. What is another benefit of Normal Flora?

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245. Synthesize and excrete vitamins – K, B12

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246. How can the Normal Flora contribute to disease? Examples?

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246. Bacteria from one site infect a new site; E. Coli from GI pathogenic in lung or urinary tract; Streptococci to Blood stream from oral surgery

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247. What happens in antibiotic induced diarrhea?

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247. Antibiotics destroy normal flora allowing opportunistic pathogens to grow.

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248. What are Nosocomial Infections?

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248. Infections that result from staying in a hospital

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249. Where does Corynebacterium diphtheriae occupy?

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249. Throat

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250. What bacterium only occupies the urogenital epithelium?

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250. Neisseria Gonorrhoeae

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251. What are most Nosocomial infections due to?

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251. Antibiotic-resistant organisms

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252. What 3 factors result in Nosocomial infections?

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252. 1) High prevalence of pathogens 2) Compromised hosts 3) efficient mechanisms of transmission from patient to patient

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253. Where do 25% of Nosocomial infections develop?

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253. ICU

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254. What is the single most important method to limit cross transmission?

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254. Hand Hygiene

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255. What is used on the skin or other tissue to reduce microorganisms?

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255. Antiseptics; Iodine, Alcohol

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256. What is used on inanimate objects to reduce microorganisms?

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256. Disinfectants; alcohols, phenols, aldehydes, surfactants

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257. The suffix –stasis/-static refers to?

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257. Inhibition; no complete destruction (stuck like static)

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258. –cide/cidal refers to?

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258. Destruction or inactivation (homicide)

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259. What 3 environmental conditions affect treatment?

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259. 1) Temperature and pH 2) Composition and Quantity 3) Contact time

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260. How does high temperature control bacterial growth?

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260. Denaturation of proteins

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261. Why is moist heat more effective then Dry heat?

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261. Water is a better conductor

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262. T/F Pasteurization sterilizes dairy products and fruit juices.

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262. F – Not sterilization, heat resistant microbes survive

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263. Is Boiling complete sterilization?

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263. No

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264. How do you achieve true sterilization?

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264. 121C at 15 psi for 15min

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265. What can survive with boiling?

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265. Endospores, protozoan cysts, some viruses

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266. What is a very effective dry heat treatment?

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266. Incineration (inoculating loop)

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267. Why is slow freezing better then quick freezing?

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267. Crystals form and puncture membranes

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268. How do HEPA filters work?

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268. Filters microbes out of air and gas

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269. What are the 2 categories of radiation?

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269. Ionizing and nonionizing

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270. How does ionizing radiation work?

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270. Creates ions by ejecting electrons from the atoms they strike

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271. What are 3 examples of Ionizing radiation?

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271. Electron Beams, Gamma Rays, X-rays

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272. What form is used to sterilize food products?

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272. Gamma Rays

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273. Which has Rapid cell death, but poor tissue penetration?

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273. Electron beams

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274. What is non-ionizing radiation suitable for?

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274. Disinfection air, transparent fluids, surfaces

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275. What is the symbol used to label irradiated foods?

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275. Radura

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276. What is an example of non-ionizing?

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276. UV radiation

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277. How does it work?

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277. Excites electrons, making new covalent bonds

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278. What Causes Thymine Dimers?

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278. UV radiation

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279. What type of chemical control is best for blood, vomit, feces?

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279. Phenols, Phenolics

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280. What type of organisms are Alcohols not effective against?

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280. Fungal spores and endospores

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281. What are Tinctures?

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281. Solutions of other antimicrobial agents in alcohol.

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282. What chemical agent is effective against vegetative bacterial and fungal cells, fungal spores, bacterial endospores, and protozoan cysts, as well as many viruses?

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282. Halogens

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283. What is used in the treatment of drinking water?

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283. Ozone

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284. What is an effective sporocide used to sterilize equipment?

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284. Peracetic acid

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285. What are Quats?

answer

285. Antimicrobial surfactants

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286. What can be used to prevent blindness by N. gonorrhoeae?

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286. 1% silver nitrate

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287. What is Thimerosal used for?

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287. Preserve vaccines

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288. How do heavy metals control bacterial growth?

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288. Ions precipitate proteins and react with sulfhydryl groups on enzymes

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289. What type of disinfecting agent is Formalin?

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289. Aldehyde

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290. T/F You’re glad this is the last question.

answer

290. T – you’re sane F – you might be a gunner

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