Flashcards with Answers on Micro – Microbiology

Unlock all answers in this set

Unlock answers
question
Encapsulated bugs
answer

Salmonella

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Haemophilus influenzae

Neisseria meningitidis

Klebsiella pneumoniae

Group B Strep

 

"S SHiN" + GBS + Klebsiella"

question

Passive Immunity given to pts after exposure to?

(List 4)

 

-preformed abs

answer
  • Tetanus toxin
  • Botulinum toxin
  • HBV
  • Rabies virus

"To Be Healed Rapidly"

*Note: premature babies are also given passive immunization for RSV in winter mo

question
Stain used to Dx Whipple's dz
answer

PAS

;

*Tropheryma whippelii

question
Facultative Intracellular Bacteria
answer

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, ; Yersina (pestis and pseudotuberculosis)

;

"Some Nasty Bugs May Live FacultativeLY"

question
Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin
answer

ADP ribosylating A-B toxin:

inactivates EF-2

question
Pseudomonas exotoxin A
answer

ADP ribosylating A-B toxin:

inactivates EF-2

question
Cholera toxin
answer

ADP ribosylation of Gs (permanent activation) ; adenylate cyclase activation ; ; cAMP ; ; Cl secretion and;; Na absorption, water follows ; voluminous rice-water diarrhea

-encoded in a lysogenic phage

;

question
ETEC toxins
answer

ADP ribosylating toxins:

heat-labile toxin stimulates adenylate cyclase ; ; cAMP

heat-stabile toxin stimulates guanylate cyclase

;

*both cause watery diarrhea

"Labile like the Air, Stabile like the Ground"

question
Pertussis toxin
answer

ADP ribosylating toxin permanently disables G;i ;;; AC activation ;;; cAMP

;

*whooping cough, inhibits chemokine receptor causing lymphocytosis

"turns the off off"

question
Clostridium perfringes toxin
answer

; toxin is a lecithinase that acts as a phospholipase to cleave cell membrane ; gas gangrene

;

*double zone of hemolysis on blood agar

question
Tetanospasmin toxin
answer
blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine
question
Botulinum toxin
answer

blocks release of ACh

-encoded in a lysogenic phage (certain strains)

*CNS paralysis, esp. Cranial nerves

*spores in canned foods

*baby who eats honey ; floppy baby

question
Bacillus anthracis toxin
answer
edema factor (part of toxin complex) IS an adenylate cyclase itself ; ; cAMP
question

Shiga toxin

(; Shiga-like toxin - aka Vero cytotoxin)

answer

cleaves host cell rRNA ; inactivates 60S ribosome (inh. of protein syn.)

;-encoded in a lysogenic phage

*also produced by EHEC

*also enhances cytokine release and toxic to renal endothelial cells ; HUS

*production enhanced by Fe def.

*Is an A-B toxin

question
Yersinia enterocolitica enterotoxin
answer

activates guanylate cyclase

;

*watery diarrhea and electrolyte loss

question
Clostridium difficile exotoxins
answer

Toxin A (enterotoxin) - causes diarrhea; binds to brush border

;

Toxin B (cytotoxin) - cytotoxic; destroys cytoskeleton (depolymerization of actin ; cell death; MOA by binding and inhibiting cytosolic GTPases??)

*Dx C. diff by detecting one or both toxins in stool

question
2 types of Transduction
answer
  • generalized - "packaging event", lytic phage
  • specialized - "excision event", lysogenic phage
question
Strep. pyogenes Erythrogenic toxin
answer

super antigen

causes Scarlet Fever

;

-encoded in a lysogenic phage

question
;Is Staph. epidermidis Novobiocin sensitive or resistant?
answer

Novobiocin sensitive

;

*Staph saprophyticus is novobiocin resistant

"Fticus puts up a Fight"

question
Tell me about Listeria monocytogenes
answer
  • G+ rod
  • beta hemolytic
  • tumbling motility (@ 22;C)
  • "actin rockets"
  • only G+ w/ endotoxin
  • meningitis in newborns
  • unpasteurized milk/cheese and deli meats; vaginal transmission @ birth
  • facultative intracellular microbe (CMI required for elim.)
  • #3 cause of neonatal meningitis
  • can cause spontaneous abortion
question
I say "rusty sputum", you say?
answer
Strep pneumo
question

only bacterium w/ a polypeptide capsule?

(what does it contain?)

answer

Bacillus anthracis

;

*D-glutamate

question

Actinomyces vs. Nocardia:

How to differentiate b/t long branching filaments resembling fungi

answer

Actinomyces israelii: G+ anaerobe, normal oral flora, oral/facial abscesses (often after trauma), yellow "sulfur granules", tx w/ Penicillin

;

Nocardia asteroides: G+ but also weakly acid-fast, aerobe, soil resident, pulm. inf. in immunocompromised, Tx w/ sulfa

question

M. avium-intracellulare prophylactic Tx in AIDS pts?

(don't want disseminated dz)

answer
Azithromycin
question

2 Disease types (leprosy) caused by Mycobacterium leprae:

-and Tx

answer

Lepromatous: more serious (diffuse, can be lethal), pts have weak T-cell mediated immunity, Th2 (humoral), Leonine facies

Tuberculoid: just a few nodules, intact T-cell response, Th1 response (CMI!)

*M. leprae infects skin and superficial nn., armadillo reservoir

Tx: long-term oral dapsone (hemolysis, methemoglobinemia), *watch for G6PD def.

question

2 G- comma shaped bacteria:

what are they and how do you differentiate?

answer

Campylobacter jejuni - grows in 42°C

Vibrio cholera - grows in alkaline media

 

*both are ox+

question
prophylaxis for close contacts of Meningococci?
answer

Rifampin

 

*Rifampin prophylaxis is also used for close contacts of pts w/ H.inf type B meningitis

question

Legionella pneumophila (facultative intracellular organism):

  • Stain?
  • Culture media?
  • Detection?
  • Transmission?
  • Tx?
answer
  • silver stain
  • charcoal yeast extract w/ iron and cysteine
  • presence of antigen in urine
  • aerosol transmission from water source (NO person-to-person)
  • Erythromycin (macrolides)
question
VDRL false positives
answer

"VDRL"

  • V for viruses (mono, hepatitis)
  • D for drugs
  • R for Rheumatic dz (fever, arthritis too?)
  • L for Lupus and Leprosy

 

question
Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes
answer

A, B, & C: cause trachoma - blindness due to follicular conjunctivitis in Africa; chronic infection "ABC for Africa/Blindness/Chronic"

D-K: urethritis/PID, neonatal pneumonia (staccato cough), neonatal conjunctivitis

L1-3: lymphogranuloma venereum - swollen, painful inguinal nodes that coalesce, ulcerate, and rupture; leads to fibrosis and anogenital strictures (vs. donovanosis by Klebsiella granulomatis w/ painless, beefy red inguinal ulcers)

*Tx all w/ azithromycin

question

Which systemic mycoses is the exception to being a yeast in tissue?

(not referring to cutaneous and opportunistic mycoses)

answer

Coccidoides imitis

 

*spherule in tissue - filled w/ endospores, much larger than RBCs

question
Classic Triad of Congenital Toxoplasmosis:
answer
  • chorioretinitis
  • hydrocephalus
  • intracranial calcifications

 

*Tx for Toxoplasmosis is Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

question
What is the only ssDNA virus?
answer

Parvovirus B19

*ss, linear(-), and non-enveloped

*aplastic crises, "slapped cheeks" (5th dz), crosses placenta

question
Live attenuated viral vaccines
answer

Smallpox, yellow fever, chicken pox (VZV), Sabin's polio (oral), MMR, and intranasal influenza

"Live one night only! See small yellow chickens get vaccinated w/ Sabin's and MMR"

*influenza and yellow fever vaccines are egg based - allergic to egg?

*live attenuated - humoral and cell mediated immunity

*MMR is only live atten. that can be given to HIV+ pts

question
Killed Viral vaccines
answer

Rabies, Influenza (IM), Salk Polio, HAV

*humoral immunity only, need boosters

"RIP Always"

question
Recombinant viral vaccines
answer

HBV - antigen is HBsAg

HPV - types 6, 11, 16, ; 18

question
3 DNA viruses that DON'T have linear genome
answer

Circular DNA genome

  1. papilloma
  2. polyoma
  3. hepadnaviruses
question
Only dsRNA viruses
answer

Reoviridae (R. coltivirus - colorado tick fever)

Rotavirus (#1 cause of fatal diarrhea in children)

 

*both are non-enveloped; linear genome

question
Positive-stranded RNA viruses
answer

"I went to a RETRO TOGA party, where I drank FLAVored CORONA and ate HIPPY CALIfornia PICKLES"

retrovirus, togavirus, flavivirus, coronavirus, hepevirus, calcivirus, picornavirus

*equate the party to a positive (stranded) experience

question
only diploid virus
answer

Retroviruses

-2 identical ssRNA molecules

 

*all other viruses are haploid (1 copy of DNA or RNA)

question
only DNA virus to not replicate in the nucleus
answer

Poxvirus

 

*also note poxvirus purified dsDNA is not infectious (same for HBV)

question
only RNA viruses to NOT replicate in the cytoplasm
answer

influenza virus

retroviruses

question
Naked (non-enveloped viruses)
answer

"Naked CPR and PAPP smear + Hepevirus (HepE)"

Calicivirus, Picornavirus, Reovirus, Parvovirus, Adenovirus, Papilloma, Polyoma, and hepevirus

 

*Note Poxviruses and Paramyxoviruses are only 2 that start w/ P and are enveloped

question

Enveloped viruses that acquire envelope from nuclear membrane

(vs. all other from plasma membrane)

answer

Herpesviruses

1, 2, VZV, EBV, CMV, HHV-6 & 8

question
Where do you get Clostridium perfringens food poisoning from?
answer

reheated meat dishes

*C. perfringens causes watery diarrhea and gas gangrene

question
Salmonella food poisoning sources
answer

poultry, meat, eggs

 

*assoc. w/ pet reptiles (turtles, snakes)

question
Osteomyelitis in diabetics and drug addicts
answer
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
question
Osteomyelitis w/ a Hx of cat or dog bite/scratch
answer

Pasteurella multocida

*"my bones hurt from chasing animals in the pasture"

question
Positive nitrite test on urine analysis signifies?
answer
Gram negative bacterial UTI
question

TORCHeS

& their classic neonatal manifestations

answer
  • T - Toxoplasma gondii - chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications
  • O - Other (=Parvovirus B19) - hydrops fetalis
  • R - Rubella - PDA or pulmonary artery hypoplasia, cataracts, deafness, +/- "blueberry muffin" rash (purpura)
  • C - CMV - most common; hearing loss (unilateral), seizures, petechial rash
  • H - HIV (recurrent inf. & chronic diarrhea; use zidovudine) & HSV -temporal encephalitis, herpetic (vesicular) lesions
  • S - Syphilis - usu stillbirth, hydrops fetalis; if child survives: notched teeth, saddle nose, short maxilla, saber shins
question
Whipple's disease
answer

Tropheryma whippelii (a Gram+ actinomycete)

MC Sx: arthralgias, diarrhea, abdominal pain, and weight loss; CNS involvement can occur

***small intestinal biopsy with periodic acid-Schiff (PAS);positive, and diatase-resistant granules in macrophages with characteristic bacillus

question
Bactericidal Abx
answer

Vancomycin, Fluoroquinolones, Penicillin, Aminoglycosides, Cephalosporins, Metronidazole

"Very Finely Proficient At Cell Murder"

question

Tetracyclines used for?

(tetracycline, doxycycline, demeclocycline, minocycline)

answer

"VACUUM THe BedRoom"

Vibrio cholerae, Acne, Chlamydia, Ureaplasma Urealyticum, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Tularemia, H. pylori, Borrelia burgdorferi, Rickettsia

;

*use doxy in pts w/ renal failure (is fecally eliminated)

question

Trimethoprim toxicities?

How do you alleviate them?

answer

-megaloblastic anemia, leukopenia, granulocytopenia

-leucovorin rescue - supplemental folinic acid (bypasses DHFR step)

question

Polymyxins

Examples?

MOA?

Use?

Toxicity?

answer

-Polymyxin B, Colistin

-Binds cell membranes and disrupts osmotic integrity (are cationic basic proteins acting like detergents)

-resistant G- inf. ("last resort against multidrug resistant Pseudomonas"

-neurotoxicity, acute renal tubular necrosis (ATN)

question
TB prophylaxis and treatment
answer

Prophylaxis: isoniazid

Treatment:

  • Rifampin - inhibits DNA-dep RNA polymerase, orange body fluids; also prophylactic for HinfB and meningococcus
  • Isoniazid - inhibits syn. of mycolic acids (bacterial catalase-peroxidase has to activate it); lupus, neurotoxic due to pyridoxine def, hepatotoxic
  • Pyrazinamide - requires acidic environ. (engulfed TB in phagolysomes); hepatoxic, arthralgias
  • Ethambutol - inhibits arabinosyltransferase (carb. polymerization of cell wall); optic neuropathy (red-green color blindness, central scotoma; reversible)
question
MAI prophylaxis and treatment
answer

Prophylaxis: azithromycin (start when CD4 ;100)

Tx: azithromycin, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin

;

question
M. leprae Tx
answer

Dapsone (same MOA as sulfonamides - PABA antimetabolite inhibiting dihyropteroate synthetase)

rifampin

clofazimine (binds guanine bases of DNA preventing DNA use as a template, increases PLA2 activity)

question
DOC for oral or esophageal Candidiasis (thrush)?
answer

Nystatin

"swish and swallow"

question
Tx for cryptococcal meningitis in AIDS pts?
answer

Initial Tx upon Dx is Amphotericin B, usu w/ addition of Flucytosine

(ampho B does NOT cross BBB and must be given intrathecally)

;

Maintenance Therapy for Life: Fluconazole

-the azole that can cross the BBB

question
The 3 NNRTIs in HIV therapy
answer

Nevirapine, Efavirenz, Delaviridine

*non-competitive, do NOT require phosphorylation

question
Superantigens and the bugs that produce them
answer

S. aureus: TSST-1 (TSS), enterotoxins (food poisoning), exfoliatin (SSSS)

S. pyogenes: erythrogenic toxen (toxic shock-like syndrome)

question
Common presentation of Legionnaire's Dz
answer

very HIGH fever in a smoker accompanied by diarrhea, confusion, and cough causing chest pain; radiographic evidence of pneumonia

Tx w/ erythromycin

*Legionella is a G- rod, but often no bacteria seen in sputum gram stain; test for anitgen in urine

*more in eldery vs. Mycoplasma in young

*NOT always going to see the assoc. w/ water in the ?

Get an explanation on any task
Get unstuck with the help of our AI assistant in seconds
New