question

8) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structureA) bacteriophages
B) prions
C) animal viruses
D) viroids
E) both prions and viroids

answer

D) viroids

question

16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycleA) attachment
B) entry
C) digestion of host DNA
D) viral protein synthesis
E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis

answer

C) digestion of host DNA

question

18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a lytic phageA) UV light
B) X rays
C) presence of +ssRNA
D) UV light and X rays
E) UV light and +ssRNA

answer

D) UV light and X rays

question

19) Zones of clearing in cell cultures that are the result of virus infection are called plaques. Sometimes "cloudy plaques" are seen on bacterial cultures infected with bacteriophage. What type of viral infection might cause this appearanceA) lytic
B) lysogenic
C) prion
D) viroid
E) transducing

answer

B) lysogenic

question

43) Virus replication results in the death of the cell in a(n) __________ infection.
A) lytic
B) latent
C) persistent
D) oncogenic
E) both latent and persistent

answer

A) lytic

question

61) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a ________ phage.

answer

temperate

question

6) Who was the first person to demonstrate the existence of virusesA) Stanley
B) Rous
C) Lacks
D) Ivanowsky
E) Prusiner

answer

D) Ivanowsky

question

8) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structureA) bacteriophages
B) prions
C) animal viruses
D) viroids
E) both prions and viroids

answer

D) viroids

question

33) Viroids infect
A) bacteria.
B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) plants and animals.
E) all organisms.

answer

B) plants.

question

34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agentsA) They cannot reproduce outside a cell.
B) They act as slow viruses.
C) They cause neurological problems.
D) They can be destroyed by incineration.
E) They lack nucleic acid.

answer

E) They lack nucleic acid.

question

35) The infectious particles of fungi have RNA genomes and lack a capsid. They are therefore similar to
A) bacteriophages.
B) enveloped viruses.
C) prions.
D) viroids.
E) lysogens.

answer

D) viroids.

question

69) Prions are composed of a single protein called ________.

answer

PrP

question

9) Which of the following would NOT be found as a component of a bacteriophageA) envelope
B) icosahedral capsid
C) DNA
D) tail fibers
E) base plate

answer

A) envelope

question

58) A(n) ________ is a 20-sided polyhedral capsid.

answer

icosahedron

question

12) Put the following stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages:
I. Synthesis
II. Assembly
III. Attachment
IV. Release
V. Entry
A) III, V, I, II, IV
B) III, II, V, I, IV
C) V, III, II, IV, I
D) I, III, V, II, IV
E) I, II, III, V, IV

answer

A) III, V, I, II, IV

question

18) Which of the following agents is capable of inducing conversion of a prophage back to a lytic phageA) UV light
B) X rays
C) presence of +ssRNA
D) UV light and X rays
E) UV light and +ssRNA

answer

D) UV light and X rays

question

25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelopeA) the nuclear membrane
B) the cytoplasmic membrane
C) the endoplasmic reticulum
D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes
E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum

answer

E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum

question

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda phage prophageA) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.
B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.
C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.
D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.
E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time.

answer

A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA.

question

28) Which of the following individuals discovered prionsA) Lacks
B) Iwanowsky
C) Prusiner
D) Stanley
E) Rous

answer

C) Prusiner

question

29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanismA) +ssRNA viruses
B) dsRNA viruses
C) -ssRNA viruses
D) retroviruses
E) +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses

answer

D) retroviruses

question

33) Viroids infect
A) bacteria.
B) plants.
C) fungi.
D) plants and animals.
E) all organisms.

answer

B) plants.

question

2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virusA) protection
B) recognition
C) replication
D) protection and recognition
E) recognition and replication

answer

D) protection and recognition

question

Merozoites are a result of
A) meiosis
B) crossing over
C) schizogony
D) mitosis
E) conjugation

answer

C) schizogony

question

55) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of
Plasmodium called ________.

answer

Merozoites

question

The _____ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.
A) pseudoplasmodium
B) mycelium
C) conidiophore
D) sporangium
E) hyphae

answer

B) mycelium

question

The roots of vascular plants from associations with fungi called _____, which allow them to absorb water and dissolved minerals from the soil.
A) thalli
B) mycoses
C) mycorrhizae
D) lichens
E) hyphae

answer

C) mycorrhizae

question

Which of the following types of protozoa are bioluminescentA) ciliates
B) amoebae
C) kinetoplastids
D) apicomplexans
E) dinoflagellates

answer

E) dinoflagellates

question

The first eukaryote to have its entire genome sequenced was the fungus
A) Cryptococcus
B) Neurospora
C) Candida albicans
D) Saccharomyces
E) Rhizopus

answer

D) Saccharomyces

question

Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)A) Gymnodinium
B) Balatidium
C) Toxoplasma
D) Pfiesteria
E) Gonyaulax

answer

D) Pfiesteria

question

Hyphae are associated with which of the followingA) yeasts
B) protozoa
C) molds
D) algae
E) helminths

answer

C) molds

question

Most of the fungi that spoil food belong to the division
A) Basidiomycota
B) Rhodophyta
C) Ascomycota
D) Deuteromycetes
E) Zygomycota

answer

C) Ascomycota

question

The most common pathogenic fungus affecting humans is
A) Blastomyces dermatitidis.
B) Coccidioides immitis.
C) Histoplasma capsulatum.
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
E) Aspergillus fumigatus

answer

C) Histoplasma capsulatum.

question

Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat?

answer

There are two main reasons it is so difficult to treat mycoses. First, fungi possess the biochemical ability to resist killing by T lymphocytes during cell-mediated immune responses, making them resistant to the body's defenses. Second, fungi are eukaryotic cells and are very similar to human cells, so most antifungal agents are also toxic to human cells.

question

Which of the following statements about pathogenic fungi is FALSEA) They are dimorphic.
B) They have the ability to form mycelial thalli that are very invasive.
C) They produce yeast forms at 37°C.
D) They can infect any susceptible host regardless of its immune status.
E) They are relatively resistant to phagocytic killing.

answer

B) They have the ability to form mycelial thalli that are very invasive.

question

Mycoses are difficult to treat because
A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents.
B) fungicides have numerous side effects.
C) fungal cells are similar to human cells.
D) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents and fungicides have numerous side effects.
E) fungicides have numerous side effects and fungal cells are similar to human cells.

answer

E) fungicides have numerous side effects and fungal cells are similar to human cells.

question

All of the true pathogen fungi
A) are members of the Ascomycota.
B) are members of the Zygomycota.
C) are dimorphic.
D) are members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.
E) are members of the Zygomycota and are monomorphic.

answer

D) are members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.

question

What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensisA) spiny spores
B) "steering wheel" buds
C) spherules
D) yeast buds that are not dissolved by KOH
E) dimorphism when grown in the lab

answer

B) "steering wheel" buds

question

What is the diagnostic feature of Trichosporon beigelii? (white piedra)
A) the presence of soft white to gray nodules
B) the presence of cotton-wool colonies in the nose
C) the production of melanin, which stains the cutaneous lesion brown-black
D) the presence of hard black nodules
E) the presence of the fungus growing in hair

answer

A) the presence of soft white to gray nodules

question

White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with
A) aspergillosis.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) coccidioidomycosis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) thrush

answer

E) thrush

question

Mycetismus is caused by
A) ingestion of food contaminated with fungus.
B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms.
C) ingestion of milk from a cow that has ingested feed contaminated with fungal toxins.
D) inhalation of allergy causing fungi.
E) contamination of a wound with pathogenic fungi present in the skin.

answer

B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms.

question

Which of the following statements is true of mycotoxicosis but NOT mycetismusA) The portal of entry is the mouth.
B) Mushrooms are ingested.
C) Organ damage can result.
D) It causes toxicosis.
E) The fungus is not present

answer

E) The fungus is not present

question

Distinguish mycotoxicosis from mycetismus.

answer

Although both mycotoxicosis and mycetismus are acquired by vehicle transmission, they are ingested in different ways. Mycotoxicosis is a result of eating food that has become contaminated with fungi that have produced the toxins that are ingested. Aflatoxins are the best known mycotoxins. Mycetismus is a result of eating poisonous mushrooms. This usually occurs when a person picks and eats unidentified wild mushrooms.

question

Which of the following is referred to as the "death cap" mushroomA) Amanita phalloides
B) Gyromitra esculenta
C) Psilocybe cubensis
D) Amanita muscaria
E) Cortinarius gentilis

answer

A) Amanita phalloides

question

Psilocybin is a
A) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea.
B) toxin that causes kidney failure.
C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.
D) virulence factor produced by bacteria.
E) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas

answer

C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.

question

Psilocybe cubensis

answer

Produces a hallucinogenic toxin

question

Balantidium

answer

Cilia

question

Balantidium coli is the only ciliate known to cause disease in man. True/False

answer

True

question

Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient cannot ever clear the infection and become immune because the parasite
A) has flagella that allow it to travel all over the body.
B) matures into infectious trypomastigotes.
C) reproduces by binary fission.
D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.
E) invades the central nervous system

answer

D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.

question

The presence of active motile multiflagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with
A) Trichomonas vaginalis.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Giardia intestinalis.
D) Acanthamoeba.
E) Balantidium coli.

answer

A) Trichomonas vaginalis.

question

Trichomonas

answer

Sexually transmitted disease

question

The protozoans known as apicomplexans
A) are motile.
B) reproduce by schizogony.
C) are intracellular parasites.
D) are motile intracellular parasites.
E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.

answer

E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.

question

Which of the following species of Plasmodium causes cerebral malariaA) only P. falciparum
B) P. ovale and P. malariae
C) P. ovale and P. vivax
D) P. vivax and P. malariae
E) P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. vivax

answer

A) only P. falciparum

question

Which of the following parasites is NOT generally microscopic in its mature form, even though microbiologists usually study themA) amoebae
B) toxoplasmas
C) helminths
D) leishmanias
E) cyclosporas

answer

C) helminths

question

The easiest way to prevent Taenia infection in humans is to
A) vaccinate cows and pigs.
B) vaccinate humans who are in contact with cows and pigs.
C) spray pastures and grazing lands with toxins that kill the parasite.
D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat.
E) identify patients with cysticerci in their muscles.

answer

D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat.

question

Which of the following is the most common parasitic worm in the United StatesA) Taenia saginata
B) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Schistosoma mansoni
D) Enterobius vermicularis
E) Ascaris lumbricoides

answer

D) Enterobius vermicularis

question

Elephantiasis is caused by
A) blood flukes.
B) liver flukes.
C) filarial roundworms.
D) tapeworms.
E) flatworms.

answer

C) filarial roundworms

question

A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate liver damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with
A) Ancylostoma duodenale.
B) Enterobius vermicularis.
C) Echinococcus granulosus.
D) Schistosoma mansoni.
E) Taenia solium.

answer

D) Schistosoma mansoni.

question

A human fecal sample is examined and found to contain a few strobila. The person is probably infected with
A) Echinococcus granulosus.
B) Giardia intestinalis.
C) Taenia.
D) Schistosoma.
E) Necator americanus.

answer

C) Taenia.

question

Nematodes
A) are known as flukes.
B) are known as roundworms.
C) have males of the species larger than females of the species.
D) do not have a digestive system.
E) are all monoecious.

answer

B) are known as roundworms.

question

The ________ are helminths with an incomplete digestive system.

answer

trematodes

question

Cestode

answer

tapeworm

question

Which among the following are the largest DNA virusesA) Herpesviridae
B) Papillomaviridae
C) Poxviridae
D) Adenoviridae
E) Polyomaviridae

answer

C) Poxviridae

question

Which of the following statements is true of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpoxA) A genital form of the disease exists.
B) A vaccine is available.
C) The causative agent is in the family Poxviridae.
D) Nodules are removed by freezing.
E) It has a morality rate of 20%.

answer

C) The causative agent is in the family Poxviridae.

question

Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humansA) Poxviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Adenoviridae
D) Polyomaviridae
E) Rhinoviridae

answer

B) Herpesviridae

question

Adenoviruses infect
A) the digestive tract.
B) the respiratory tract.
C) the nervous system.
D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract.
E) both the respiratory tract and the nervous system.

answer

D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract.

question

Which of the following is the only DNA virus that can cause viral hepatitisA) hepatitis A virus
B) hepatitis B virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) hepatitis D virus
E) hepatitis E virus

answer

B) hepatitis B virus

question

Gamma interferon is sometimes used to treat infections with
A) adenoviruses.
B) herpesviruses.
C) poxviruses.
D) parvoviruses.
E) both herpesviruses and poxviruses.

answer

A) adenoviruses.

question

Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infectionA) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4
B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus
C) coinfection with HHV-6
D) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 and hepatitis D virus
E) coinfection with hepatitis D virus and HHV-6

answer

B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus

question

Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by
A) producing a stronger cellular immune response.
B) activating humoral immunity.
C) making it easier to develop a vaccine.
D) allowing for better treatment.
E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests.

answer

E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests.

question

Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSEA) It must be given in three doses.
B) It is protective against the virus in 95% of vaccinated individuals.
C) It is recommended for high-risk groups.
D) It must be repeated every five years.
E) Immunity can last at least 23 years and may be for life.

answer

D) It must be repeated every five years.

question

Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSEA) Geographic areas with a high incidence of liver cancer also have a high prevalence of hepatitis B.
B) The HBV genome has been found integrated into hepatic cancer cells.
C) Hepatic cancer cells typically express HBV antigen.
D) Chronic carriers of the virus are 200 times more likely to develop hepatic cancer.
E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer.

answer

E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer.

question

Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humansA) Parvoviridae
B) Hepadnaviridae
C) Poxviridae
D) Polyomaviridae
E) Herpesviridae

answer

A) Parvoviridae

question

A scientist discovers a new virus that causes mild respiratory disease in humans. He is able to isolate, purify, and characterize the virus. The virus preparation contains double-stranded DNA and no lipid. In which of the following virus families does this new virus likely belongA) Adenoviridae
B) Herpesviridae
C) Papillomarviridae
D) Herpesviridae or Poxviridae
E) Adenoviridae or Papillomaviridae

answer

A) Adenoviridae

question

Dane particles

answer

Hepatitis B virus

question

Chickenpox was so named because it was first found in chickens. True/False

answer

False

question

Adenoviruses are so named because they infect only adenoid cells in humans. True/False

answer

False

question

Which of the following viruses is responsible for "fifth disease"A) adenoviruses
B) human herpesvirus 1
C) varicella
D) human herpesvirus 4
E) B19 virus

answer

E) B19 virus

question

The large size of poxviruses allows them to
A) be easily isolated in infected cells.
B) attach to both animal and human cells.
C) provoke a strong immune response in the host.
D) travel in droplets.
E) be potential vectors for introduction of genetic material in vaccinations for gene therapy.

answer

E) be potential vectors for introduction of genetic material in vaccinations for gene therapy.

question

Which of the following viruses exist only in laboratory stocksA) smallpox
B) cowpox
C) vaccinia
D) varicella
E) erythrovirus

answer

A) smallpox

question

Which of the following viruses is oncogenicA) adenovirus
B) human herpesvirus 4
C) papillomavirus
D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus
E) adenovirus, human herpesvirus 4, and papillomavirus

answer

D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus

question

Syncytium between infected and noninfected cells

answer

Human herpesvirus

question

Large B lymphocytes with atypical nuclei and neutropenia

answer

Human herpesvirus 4

question

Abnormally large cells with nuclear inclusions

answer

Cytomegalovirus

question

Pustules

answer

Poxviruses

question

"Kissing disease"

answer

Human herpesvirus 4

question

Pinkeye

answer

Adenoviruses

question

Condylomata acuminata

answer

Papillomaviruses

question

The first human disease to be eradicated was smallpox. True/False

answer

True

question

Human herpesviruses have been designated by combining HHV (human herpesvirus) with numbers corresponding to the severity of the diseases they cause. True/False

answer

False

question

Contact with a minute quantity of blood is sufficient for infection with hepatitis B virus. True/False

answer

True

question

For protection from infection with genital herpes, condoms need to be used only when there is an active lesion. True/False

answer

False

question

Human herpesvirus 4 has been implicated as an etiological agent in some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma. True/False

answer

True

question

Adenoviruses are so named because they infect only adenoid cells in humans. True/False

answer

False

question

Immunization with ________ will provide protection against smallpox.

answer

cowpox

question

Painful, blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a(n) ________.

answer

poxvirus

question

________ is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia.

answer

Human herpesvirus 2

question

An inflamed blister on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as ________.

answer

whitlow

question

The condition in which athletes develop herpes lesions on their skin as a result of coming in contact with herpes lesions during wrestling is known as ________.

answer

herpes gladiatorum

question

Skin lesions described as "dewdrops on rose petals" are characteristic of ________.

answer

chickenpox

question

Individuals who have had chickenpox may develop ________ later in life if they are exposed to stress or immune suppression.

answer

shingles

question

In infections with ________, the virus becomes latent in B lymphocytes and suppresses apoptosis, thus providing one source of lymphomas associated with this virus.

answer

human herpesvirus 4

question

The autoimmune disease ________ may result from infection with human herpesvirus 6.

answer

multiple sclerosis

question

Cytomegalovirus can be ________ if it infects fetal stem cells.

answer

teratogenic

question

Hepatitis B virus replicates in liver cells and is released by ________ rather than cell lysis.

answer

exocytosis

question

Which of the following viruses is made of icosahedral capsids and infects liver cellsA) hepadnaviruses
B) herpesviruses
C) polyomaviruses
D) poxviruses
E) adenoviruses

answer

A) hepadnaviruses

question

Which of the following are double-stranded RNA virusesA) Picornaviridae
B) Coronaviridae
C) Retroviridae
D) Reoviridae
E) Rhabdoviridae

answer

D) Reoviridae

question

Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSEA) They are limited to infecting the upper respiratory tract.
B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.
C) They are extremely infectious.
D) They thrive at 33°C.
E) Person-to-person contact is the most common mode of transmission.

answer

B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.

question

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinovirusesA) They replicate best at 33°C.
B) They are transmitted via respiratory droplets.
C) They cause common colds.
D) An envelope is present.
E) The virions contain single-stranded positive RNA

answer

D) An envelope is present.

question

Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that
A) they infect the gastrointestinal tract.
B) they are able to withstand the low pH of the stomach.
C) they are transmitted through the fecal-oral route.
D) they spread from the intestinal lining into the bloodstream to cause viremia.
E) they remain latent inside cells in the stomach and intestines.

answer

C) they are transmitted through the fecal-oral route.

question

Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30—40 years later in the form of
A) repeated cold symptoms.
B) meningitis.
C) encephalitis.
D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.
E) deterioration of the nerves that control polio-affected muscles

answer

D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.

question

Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitusA) coxsackie A virus
B) coxsackie B virus
C) echoviruses
D) enteroviruses
E) hepatitis A

answer

B) coxsackie B virus

question

Which of the following viruses may cause viral meningitisA) echoviruses
B) rhinoviruses
C) coxsackie viruses
D) echoviruses and rhinoviruses
E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses

answer

E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses

question

Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups?
A) infants under the age of one year
B) teenagers
C) young adults
D) pregnant women
E) elderly men

answer

D) pregnant women

question

Diseases caused by coxsackie A virus include
A) myocarditis.
B) hand-foot-and-mouth disease.
C) viral meningitis.
D) hepatitis.
E) hand-foot-and-mouth disease and viral meningitis

answer

E) hand-foot-and-mouth disease and viral meningitis

question

Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitusA) coxsackie A virus
B) coxsackie B virus
C) echoviruses
D) enteroviruses
E) hepatitis A

answer

B) coxsackie B virus

question

Which of the following viruses may cause viral meningitisA) echoviruses
B) rhinoviruses
C) coxsackie viruses
D) echoviruses and rhinoviruses
E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses

answer

E) echoviruses and coxsackie viruses

question

Pleurodynia

answer

Coxsackie B virus

question

The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is
A) asymptomatic polio.
B) postpolio syndrome.
C) bulbar poliomyelitis.
D) minor polio.
E) nonparalytic polio

answer

C) bulbar poliomyelitis.

question

Which of the following is a member of the Flaviviridae that is NOT an arbovirus?
A) Eastern equine encephalitis virus
B) Dengue virus
C) hepatitis C virus
D) hepatitis E virus
E) West Nile virus

answer

C) hepatitis C virus

question

The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually
A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus.
B) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with the dengue virus.
C) an antibody-antigen complex reaction.
D) an autoimmune disease.
E) the chronic carrier state of the dengue virus.

answer

A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus.

question

Dengue fever

answer

Flaviviridae

question

Encephalitis

answer

West Nile virus

question

The West Nile virus is considered a
A) rhinovirus.
B) coronavirus.
C) togavirus.
D) flavivirus.
E) enterovirus

answer

D) flavivirus.

question

Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, was first identified by a German physician, and is known to cause "three-day measles"A) rubella
B) roseola
C) echovirus
D) coxsackie A virus
E) rhinovirus

answer

A) rubella

question

A child has a mild fever and a macular rash primarily on the torso. No lesions are evident in the mouth, and the child has not complained of pain. Which of the following diseases might the child haveA) hand-foot-and-mouth disease
B) three-day measles
C) red measles
D) dengue fever
E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

answer

B) three-day measles

question

The SARS virus is a(n)
A) adenovirus.
B) rhinovirus.
C) coronavirus.
D) flavivirus.
E) togavirus.

answer

C) coronavirus.

question

The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes
A) hairy cell leukemia.
B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia.
C) Hodgkin's lymphoma.
D) hepatic cancer.
E) Burkitt's lymphoma

answer

B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia

question

Hairy cell leukemia

answer

Human T-lymphotropic virus 2 (HTLV-2)

question

Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for HIVA) helper T cells
B) B lymphocytes
C) cytotoxic T cells
D) infected dendritic cells
E) monocytes and macrophages

answer

E) monocytes and macrophages

question

Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIVA) breast milk
B) semen
C) vaginal secretions
D) semen and vaginal secretions
E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions

answer

E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions

question

Ebola hemorrhagic virus is caused by which type of virusA) filovirus
B) rhabdovirus
C) paramyxovirus
D) rubulavirus
E) pneumovirus

answer

A) filovirus

question

A scientist discovers a new virus affecting birds. After isolation, the virus is characterized as having single-strand RNA in an icosahedral capsid and an envelope. To which of the following virus families might this new virus belongA) Coronaviridae
B) Flaviviridae
C) Orthomyxoviridae
D) Picornaviridae
E) Reoviridae

answer

B) Flaviviridae

question

53) Anemia is a common consequence of hookworm infection. T/F

answer

T

question

63) Arboviruses enter cells by way of ________ and replicate within them.

answer

endocytosis

question

18) Which of the following is MISMATCHEDA) Salk vaccine – requires boosters
B) Sabin vaccine – live attenuated vaccine
C) Salk vaccine – administered orally
D) Sabin vaccine – less stable
E) Salk vaccine – inactivated polio vaccine

answer

C) Salk vaccine – administered orally

question

48) Infection by all influenza strains can be prevented with vaccines. T/F

answer

F

question

Jonas Salk developed a(n) ________ vaccine in 1955.

answer

inactivated polio

question

65) Rubella vaccine is made of ________ viruses and should not be given to pregnant women.

answer

live attenuated

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