MICP Exam #1 – Flashcards

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often effective for treating superficial mycoses
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Topical miconazole nitrate
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Prevalent genera of dermatophytes
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Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
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Common subcutaneous mycoses
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lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis and chromoblastomycosis.
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Systemic mycoses are caused by primary fungal pathogens such
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Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans    (HBPCC)
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Pathogenicity
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Ability of an organism to infect a susceptible host genotype and cause disease
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Virulence
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The degree of disease caused by a pathogen genotype under appropriate             conditions. Akin to aggressiveness.
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Nosocomial pathogens
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Hospital acquired microbes
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Koch’s Postulates

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1.      isolate the suspected agent from a disease victim.

2.      grow the agent in pure culture.

 

3.      infect a healthy host and show that the organism

produces the classical clinical disease.

4.      Isolate the "same" organism from the new victim.

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Cytoplasmic membranes are similar to eukaryotic membranes but do not contain steroids (e.g., cholesterol). 

 

Which are the exception to this rule?

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Mycoplasmas
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Most have signature teichoic and lipoteichoic acids in the thick peptidoglycan wall

Which type of bacteria?

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Gram positive bacteria
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Characteristics of Teichoic acids
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Teichoic acids:

·         Strong negative charge.

·         Covalently linked to the peptidoglycan

·         Strongly antigenic

Generally absent in gram-negative bacteria.

·         Believed to aid in concentrating metal ions from the surroundings.

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Characteristics of Lipoteichoic acids

 

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Lipoteichoic acids:

·         Attached to fatty acids and anchored in the cytoplasmic membrane.

·         Antigenic, cytotoxic and can be involved in adherence 

 

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What actions could result in Gram positive bacteria appearing to be gram negative after test
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Mechanical disruption of the cell wall of Gram-positive organisms or its enzymatic removal with lysozyme 

Also, old starved bacteria and those treated with antibiotics.

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_________ and _________ do not have cell wall and therefore cannot be differentiated by Gram stain.

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Mycoplasma and Ureoplasma
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__________ cannot be classified by Gram stain due to the waxy outer shell preventing the entry of the stain.  An acid fast stain is used to identify them.
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Mycobacteria
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Peptidoglycan polysaccharides are made up of repeating disaccharides of ________ and _________

 

 

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 N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid 
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·         Cross-linking in peptidoglycans occurs between the ______ amino acid and another amino acid at the ______ position of another chain.

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Third, fourth
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In peptidoglycan synthesis passing through the membrane, activated units are attached and assembled in the _________ _________ membrane pivot.

 

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undecaprenol phosphate
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3 regions of the Lipopolysaccharide
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Lipid A, Core, O-antigen
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The region of the LPS that is essential for viability of almost all gram negative bacteria

 

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Lipid A region
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Which region of the LPS carries the endotoxin activity
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Lipid A region
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Which region of the LPS allows distinguishing of serotypes (strains) of a bacterial species and is the antigenic portion of the LPS?

 

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O-Antigen
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Sporulation only occurs in some __________ bacteria, such as members of ______ and _____
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gram positive

Bacillus and Clostridium

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Cells that lack rigid shape, assume spherical shape.

if gram-negative cell, then _________

If gram-positive, then __________ 

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spheroplasts

protoplasts

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Stable spheroplasts, grow indefinitely w/o wall, but derived from parents with normal walls. 
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L-forms
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Group of bacteria that evolved to lack wall. Typically found in         environments with high osmotic strength
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Mycoplasmas
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Cocci are what shape?

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Spherical

 

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Bacilli are what shape?
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Rod-shaped
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Spirochetes are what shape?
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Helical
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The arrangements of bacteria are determined by what?
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The position of the plane of successive cell divisions.

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Chains of bacteria
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Streptococci
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Grape-like clusters of bacteria
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Staphylococci
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Angled pairs of bacteria
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Corynebacteria
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g = 

 

give both equations

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                  ______ t_______                  

 3.3 [logNt -logN0]

 

or

 

t/n

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6 major groups of microorganisms:
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1.      Algae

2.      Protozoa

3.      Fungi

4.      Bacteria

5.      Archaea

6.      Viruses

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The minimum requirements for bacterial growth are sources of:

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Carbon

Nitrogen

Energy

H2O

Ions

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Chemotrophs
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Organisms that obtain energy by the oxidation of electron donors in their environments. 
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Bacterial pathogens are almost always _________. 

          

This means what?

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chemoheterotrophs

 

they are unable to fix carbon and form their own organic compounds

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Respiration requires ___ as a terminal electron acceptor and is _____ efficient at generating energy

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O2

most

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Coenzyme A structural groups:

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acetyl group, B-mercapto-ethylamine, pantothenic acid, 3’,5’-ADP.  
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Anaerobic respiration uses compounds other than oxygen (_____. _____. ______) as terminal electron acceptors, produces less ATP per mole of glucose than aerobic respiration

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sulfate, nitrate, CO2
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NADH is worth __ ATP through ETC, FADH2 is worth __ ATP)
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3, 2
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Glycolysis produces ___ ATP and ___ NADH

for a total of ___ ATP after ETC

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2, 2

8

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Conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA yields what?
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2 NADH for a total of 6 ATP after ETC.
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The Krebs cycle produces ___ GTP, ___ NADH, and ___ FADH2

This yields a total of ___ ATP

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2 GTP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2

Total of 24 ATP.

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Once θ (theta) DNA replication is completed, the daughter chromosomes are concatenated and must be unlinked by: 
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DNA gyrase and topoisomerases
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Plasmid pTP10 is found in the clinical isolate of which bacteria

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of Corynebacterium striatum 
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Term for acquisition of naked DNA from environment
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Transformation
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Only some species of bacteria have natural ability for DNA uptake, what is this ability called 
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Natural competence
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Diploid for only a portion of the genome is called:
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Merodiploid
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Phage λ integration into____ chromosome to produce a 
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E.coli

“λ lysogen”

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When the presence of a lysogenic prophage confers a new property to the host bacterium, this is termed?
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Lysogenic conversion
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The state of being free of microorganisms.
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Asepsis
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Inactivation or elimination of ALL viable organism and their spores.
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Sterilization
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Process of removing or killing MOST microorganisms on or in a material
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Disinfection
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A cleaning process which REDUCES pathogen levels to produce a healthy clean environment.
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Sanitization
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Substance that kills vegetative bacteria and some spores
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Germicide
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Substance used on non-living objects to render them non-infectious; kills vegetative bacteria, fungi, viruses but no spores
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Disinfectant
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Substance used to prevent multiplication of microorganism when applied to living systems. An antiseptic is bacteriostatic in action but not necessarily bactericidal.
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Antiseptic
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Mask requirement
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95% filtration efficiency for 3-5 micron particles desired
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Example of a secretion pathway that is dedicated to virulence

 

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type III secretion (T3S) systems
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Bacterial adherence is often mediated by adhesins:


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o   Fimbrial adhesins

o   Afimbrial adhesins

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Streptococcus mutans

            Adhesin: 

            Receptor: 

            Attachment site: 

            Disease: 

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glycosyl transferase

salivary glycoprotein

pellicle of tooth

dental caries

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Streptococcus salivarius

            Adhesin: 

            Attachment: 

            Disease:

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lipoteichoic acid

buccal epithelium of tongue

no disease

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Bacterial invasion factors:

 

Ex 1: Listeria invasion and cell-to-cell spread is mediated by a protein named ______.

Which other bacteria has a homolog for protien?

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Internalin

Porphyoromonas gingivalis (Pg)

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Bacterial invasion factors:

Salmonella uses ____ to secrete effectors that induce “_______  ________” (macropinocytosis)

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T3P

membrane ruffling

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Endotoxin is released upon lysis or through “_______” of outer membrane vesicles.

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blebbing
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Endotoxins bind to specific receptors and stimulate release of ________   (e.g., IFN-g, IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6, histamine, prostaglandins), stimulate growth of _______, and induce ______ followed by ________.

 


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Lymphokines, B cells, leukopenia, leukocytosis.
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Broad classes of exotoxins

 

2 types of intracellular targets 

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o   A-B dimeric exotoxins (B, binding; A, active)

o   ADP-ribosylation of intracellular target host molecule

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Broad classes of exotoxins

 

Cellular targets

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Cytolytic exotoxins (usually degradative enzymes) or cytolysins

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1)      Hydrolyze membrane phospholipids (phospholipases). 

2)      Thiol(-SH)-activated cytolysins alter membrane permeability by binding to cholesterol.

((3)      Detergent-like activity on cell membranes; rapid rate of lysis.

 

These are types of ___________

 

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Bacterial cytolysins.
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3 Examples of Two-Component A-B Exotoxins with Intracellular Targets


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·         Anthrax toxin (PA, EF, LF)

·         Shiga toxin, A-5B

·         Cholera toxin, A-5B

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___________ is considered to be the initiating organism and ________ the secondary invader of dental caries.

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MS (mutans streptococci) 

LB (lactobacilli)

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Treatment of disseminated mycoses frequently is administration of systemic __________.
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amphotericin B
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What are the main targets of antifungal drugs?
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Ergosterols in fungal cell membranes 
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_________ and ________ are active against many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
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Tetracycline and carbapenems 
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Penicillin is effective against only _______ ______ bacteria.
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Gram positive
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The multidrug resistant Enteric bacteria, mainly ________ and ________, contain a worrisome enzyme called __________
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E.coli & K. pneumoniae

New Dehli metallo-β-lactamase (NDM) 

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Films of the superficial aspects of plaque and contain non-bacterial debris.
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materia alba
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1st colonizers come from saliva:

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1)      Streptococcus sanguinis and Streptococcus mitis (gram +, facultative)

2)      Actinomyces (gram +, most are obligate anerobes)

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Veillonella species 
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Subsequent colonizer on teeth.
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Fusobacterium species 
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Subsequent colonizer
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Campylobacter species
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Subsequent colonizer on teeth.
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Main cause of Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)
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Spirochetes, which are members of the genus Treponema.
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In pregnancy gingivitis women often suffer from advanced gingivitis associated with high levels of an alleged opportunistic pathogen in the subgingival biofilm:

Which pathogen?

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Prevotella intermedia (Pi)
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Chronic periodontitis becomes most severe when certain opportunistic pathogens become numerous. Pathogens are:
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Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema species and Tannerella forsythia.
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Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
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Pathogen associtated with aggressive periodontitis
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Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is the only gram negative rod associated with periodontitis that is a _________ ________.

 

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Facultative anaerobe
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HIV-associated gingivitis and periodontitis:

The pocket microbiota is similar to the periodontitis profile with the most distinctive microbial change being an increase 

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Candida species.   
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Failed endontically treated teeth usually are dominated by Gram positive facultative anaerobes, and almost always include _______ ________, a species normally found in the human gut.

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Enterococcus faecalis
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Fungi are Gram _____, mostly ______, and ____ growing
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positive, aerobic, slow
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Infection bodies of fungi

Spores which are present on stalk-like projections or other 

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Conidia
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Infectious bodies of fungi

 Septal fragments of the hyphae which separate to become reproductive entities

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arthroconidia or arthrospores
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Pathogen causing Histoplasmosis 

 

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Histoplasma capsulatum
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 “Chicago disease” 

 

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Blastomycosis
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"Cave disease"
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Histoplasmosis
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Flu and pneumonia like symptoms, eventually, calcified tuberculosis-like lesions.
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Histoplasmosis
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·         Pathogens remain viable in macrophages, which serve as vectors in disseminated disease to various organs

 

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Histoplasmosis
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Pathogen causing Blastomycosis

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Blastomyces dermatitidis
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Organisms phagocytize alveolar macrophages

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Blastomycosis
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·         Lung infection usually clears, but can form ulcerative skin and bone lesions in immunocompromised patents

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Blastomycosis
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Pathogen causing Paracoccidioidomycosis
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Paraccodioides brasiliensis
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Most prevalent in South America

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Paracoccidioidomycosis

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Affects men vs women (78:1)

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Paracoccidioidomycosis
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Primary lung infection, but can disseminate and cause mortality (16-25%) in immunodeficient.

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Paracoccidioidomycosis
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Disseminated fungus produces painful ulcers on oral, nasal, and GI muscosa

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Paracoccidioidomycosis
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Pathogen caused by Coccidioides immitis
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Coccidioidomycosis
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American southwest, airborne from soil

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Coccidioidomycosis
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Lesions on skin or meninges primarily in immunodeficient individuals
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Coccidioidomycosis
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Pathogen that causes Cryptococcosis
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Cryptococcus neoforman
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Pathogenic organism of this disease exists only

in yeast form

 

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Cryptococcosis
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 Pulmonary symptoms and radiographic lung nodules

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Cryptococcosis
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Disseminiation via hematologic spread in healthy/unhealthy patients, often leads to Cryptococcus meningitis.
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Cryptococcosis
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  Second most common fungal infection in

immunosuppressed patients after candidiasis.

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Cryptococcosis
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Pathogen that causes Aspergillosis
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Aspergillus fumigatus 
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 Major veterinary pathogen affecting sheep and cattle

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Aspergillosis
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  Conidia of the fungus are inhaled from the environment

and produce localized lung infections associated with tubercular growths called mycetomas or “fungus balls”

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Aspergillosis
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 The pathogen also can spread via the blood and invade blood vessles causing necrosis and thrombosis, or invade organs including the brain. 

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Aspergillosis
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·         Aflatoxin, an extracellular protein elaborated by A. flavus (in most cases), can contaminate foodstuff, such as peanuts, and may induce hepatocellular carcinoma.

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Aspergillosis
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·         It is the most common opportunistic respiratory infection in late stage HIV patients and accounts for a 10-20% mortality rate in these individuals. 

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Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia
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The organism does not invade host cells but exists in pulmonary interstitial tissue as a sporocyst (spore case)

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Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia
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 Death occurs from asphyxiation. 

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Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia
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Treatment is administration of

trimethoprim-sulfamexoxazole or pentamidine

isethionate (both of which have side-effects) and

oxygen administration.

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Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia
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Drugs which impair sterols
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Polyenes
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Two examples of Polyenes
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Nystatin and amphotericin B
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This polyene binds to cholesterol in blood lipoproteins and produces a high rate of side-effects, particularly in kidneys. 
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Amphotericin B
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These two drugs form large pores in fungal cell membranes, which allow leakage of vital cell constituents. 

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Nystatin and amphotericin B
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Drugs which affect ergosterol synthesis

Give two examples

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Azole derivatives

ex:Imidazoles and Triazoles

 

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________ is administered orrally and is taken up by the fungus, converted to 5-fluorouracil and then metabolized into compounds which are inhibitory to either RNA or DNA function. 

 

What is one advantage of this drug over amphotericin B

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 5-flurocytosine

This drug is able to enter the CSF, whereas amphotericin B cannot

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Drug that is administered orally and is active against dermatophytes, not has no effect on systemic mycoses

                      

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Griseofulvin
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Inhibits the enzyme UDP-GIcNAc-3-enol-pyruvyltransferase that is involved in the first phase of cell wall synthesis
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Fosfomycin
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Fairly toxic and is generally only used as a secondary treatment for tuberculosis
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Cycloserine
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Name the two drugs that act on Phase II of cell wall synthesis
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Vancomycin and Bacitracin
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Name the two drugs that act on Phase I of cell wall synthesis
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Fosfomycis and Cycloserine
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Binds to the pentapeptide terminus and  inhibits both transglycosylation and         transpeptidation reactions during peptidoglycan assembly
answer
Vancomycin
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Which drug is not effective against gram negative bacteria because of its inability to pass through the cell membrane (due to bulky size)
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Vancomycin
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Which antibiotic is used to treat gram positive infections caused by organisms that are resistant to beta-lactams
answer
Vancomycin
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Resistance to what antibiotic is mediated by changes in the pentapeptide terminus
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Vancomycin
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A beta-lactam ring consists of 4 atoms, what are they?
answer
3 carbons and 1 nitrogen.
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The enzymes involved in this final process of cell wall formation are called 
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penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs)
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In cephalosporins, the beta-lactam ring is fused with a _____________ ring.
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a dihydrothiazine ring
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Beta-lactam antibiotic that is only effective against aerobic gram negative bacteria 
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Monobactams
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A beta-lactam antibiotic that has broad spectrum effects but, with resistance reported in oxacillin-resistant staphylococci and Pseudomonas

answer
Carbapenems
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 Three general mechanisms of resistance to B-lactam antibiotics
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1) Prevention of the interaction between PBP and the antiobiotic

2) Modification of the interaction between PBP and the antibiotic

3) Hydrolysis of the antibiotic by B-lactamases

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Drug that is bactericidal against actively replicating Mycobacteria by inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acid
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Isoniazid
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High-molecular-weight octapeptides that inhibit Gram-negative bacteria by interacting with the membrane and increasing cell permeability.

answer

Polymyxins

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Antibiotic that is only used topically since it can form potent toxins, causing damage to the kidneys and nervous system.
answer
Polymyxins
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What is mode of action of Polymyxins
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Interact with the cell membrane, leading to increased cell permeability.
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One of the most widely used class of antibiotics
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Quinolones
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What is the mechanism of action of quinolones
answer
They are a synthetic agents that inhibit gyrase (usually gram -)or topoisomerase IV (usually gram +)thereby interfering with DNA replication, recombination, and repair. 
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Newer fluoroquinolones such as ________, have broader spectrum against both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
answer
Ciproflaxacin
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Nitroimidazols only inhibit _______ ________and ________ by causing breaks in strands of DNA.
answer
Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa
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__________ is one of the most commonly used nitroimidazols

answer
?Metroniadazole
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 Gram negative bacteria are intrinsically resistant to the hydrophobic drug ________, because of decreased uptake of the drug

answer
Rifamycin
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What is the mode of action for Rifamycins?
answer

?Rifamycins (Rifampin, Rifabutin) bind to bacterial RNA polymerase and inhibit initiation of RNA synthesis

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_________ is bactericidal for M. tuberculosis and active against many Gram positive bacteria

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?Rifampin (a rifamycin drug)
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Streptomycin is a member of which group of drugs
answer

  Aminoglycosides

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Which group of drugs work synergistically with B-lactams
answer

Aminoglycosides 

 

B-lactams increase their uptake.

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?Aminoglycosides are effective against many _________  and some ___________ bacteria

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Gram-negative, Gram-positive
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Tetracyclines are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) because they bind __________ to the 30S subunit.
answer
Bacteriostatic, reversibly
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Tetracyclines block binding of __________ to the 30S ribosomal subunit
answer

aminoacyl-tRNA

question

Which family of drugs are broad spectrum
?Used to treat a wide variety of infections caused by:
?Chlamydia
?Mycoplasma
?Rickettsia
?And a variety of other Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria

answer
Tetracyclines
question
Which classes of drugs inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit
answer
Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines
question
Which classes of drugs target the 50S ribosomal unit
answer

Oxazolidinones,  Lincosamides,  Chloramphenicol, 

Macrolides, Streptogramins

 

 

 

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Linezolid is the most commonly used _______.
answer
Oxazolidinones
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Which drug is active against gram positive cocci, including those resistant to penicillins, vancomycin, and aminoglycosides.
answer

 

 Oxazolidinones (linezolid)

 

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What is the mechanism of action for Lincosamides
answer
Block protein elongation by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome
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Lincosamides are active against _________ and anaerobic ____________ rods.
answer
Staphylococci, Gram-negative
question
Which antibiotics show cross-resistance with macrolides
answer
Lincosamides
question
What are two examples of Lincosamide drugs.
answer
Lincomycin and its derivative Clindamycin
question

What is the mechanism of action for  Chloramphenicol

 

answer

Binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit

(Bacteriostatic)

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Which drug has a broad similar spectrum to tetracyclines, but is not commmonly used in America?

 

answer
Chloramphenicol
question
Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic (acetylation) is a resistance mechanism against which antibiotic
answer
Chloramphenicol
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 What is the mechanism of action for the macrolides

answer

Binds reversibly to the 23S RNA component of the 50S ribosomal subunit 

(bacteriostatic)

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Most gram negative bacteria are resistant to this class of drugs that is primarily used to treat pulmonary infections

 

                                               

answer
Macrolides
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Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin are drugs from which class
answer
Macrolides
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Macrolides show cross-resistance which group of antibiotics
answer
Lincosamides
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Which class of drugs are cyclic peptides that are administered as a combination of two components.

Group A and Group B

answer
Streptogramins
question

For steptogramins

Group A component binds to the ______________ and facilitates binding of the _____________.

Group B component inhibits _____ _______.

answer

50S ribosomal subunit

chain elongation

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Which class of antibiotics is most commonly used against staphylococci, streptococci and Enterococcus faecium
answer
Steptogramins
question
Folic acid is composed of which 3 components
answer
Pteridine, PABA, Glutamic acid
question
What is the main function of antimetabolites
answer
Interfere with folic acid synthesis
question
Two examples of antimetabolites are:
answer
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims
question
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and have _______ range.
answer

Bacteriostatic

Broad range

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The antimetabolite, ______________, p-aminosalicylic acid –is often used in combo with others (usually ________) for treatment of mycobacterial infections
answer

-p-aminosalicylic acid

isoniazid

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Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims inhibit different steps of ____ ____ synthesis, and therefore, can be used ___________.
answer

folic acid

synergistically

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?One form of resistance is decreased affinity of dihydrofolate reductase for the drug, ________.

answer
trimethoprim
question

?Enterococci can use exogenous thymidine and are intrinsically resistant to which class of drugs

answer
Antimetabolites
question

Which method would be effective on materials that would be destroyed by heat (e.g. petri dishes, gloves, syringes)

answer
Radiation
question
Which cleaning method is used only to clean, and does NOT sterilize materials.
answer
Ultrasonification
question
Which method cleans through cavitation bubbles which losen attached materials. 
answer
Ultrasonification
question

Which cleaning method removes microorganisms from liquids that would be destroyed by heat

 

What are some examples of these liquids

answer

Filtration

ex: enzymes, vaccines, antibiotics

question
What is the approximate size of pores used in filtration
answer

< 0.22 µm pore 

question

What are the 3 methods of sterilization monitoring.

Give an example of each

Which is most accurate?

answer

Mechanical, Chemical, and Biological

Mechanical: monitor cycle length, pressure, or temperature

Chemical: use external or internal chemical indicators

Biological: Directly assess killing of known highly resistant microorganisms once per week mininimum.

 

Biological is only one that proves sterility

question
What would be typical settings for an autoclave.
answer

15 lbs/sq inch pressure for 15-20 min at 121oC

question
What are typical settings for hot air sterilization
answer
160 degrees Celcius for 1-4 hrs.
question
Alcohols are not effective against __________ bacteria.  
answer
spore-forming
question
disruption of cellular membranes, solubilization of lipids, and denaturation of proteins by acting directly on S-H functional groups are modes of action for what chemical
answer
Alcohol
question
What are the recommended vaccines for health care workers
answer
Influenza, MMR, VZV (live virus vaccine), HBV
question
What is the change of getting HBV after a skin-puncture with a needle
answer
27-37%
question
Which organisms/proteins can survive autoclaving and most chemical treatments
answer
Prions
question

One time use of critical instruments

Don't allow tissue to dry on instruments

Completely clean instruments and autoclave at 134 degrees Celcius for 18 minutes

;

These are precautions for which disease?

answer
Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease
question
A word for the ability to cause fever.
answer
Pyrogenicity
question

Thrombosis: Formation of blood clot (thrombus) in heart or blood vessel
Thrombocytopenia: Abnormally low numbers of blood platelets;

These are effects cause by what?

answer
Endotoxin
question
The anthrax toxin contains 3 separate proteins:
answer

Protective antigen (PA)

Edema factor (EF)

Lethal factor (LF)

question

For which toxin does

B-subunit binds to Gb3 glycolipid receptor

A -subunit;prevents binding of aminoacyl-transfer RNA by cleaving 28S rRNA from 60S ribosomal subunit resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis

answer

Shiga toxin, from bacterium;

Shigella dysenteriae

question
Which toxin has an A-subunit that migrates to the CNS pre-synaptic nerve endings, builds up in vesicles and leads to continuous stimulation of muscles
answer
Tetanus toxin
question
Which toxin has an A-subunit that inhibits the release of acetylcholine at myoneural junctions resulting in flaccid paralysis and death
answer
Botulinum toxins
question
Which toxins inhibits leukocyte chemotaxis and activity
answer
Adenylate cyclase toxin and Pertussis toxin from Bordetella sp.
question
Phase variation is always ________
answer
reversible
question

Promoter inversions for E. coli type I pili and;Salmonella flagellar genes;are examples of what

answer
Site-specific recombination
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