MICP Exam #1 – Flashcards
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Unlock answers| often effective for treating superficial mycoses |
| Topical miconazole nitrate |
| Prevalent genera of dermatophytes |
| Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton |
| Common subcutaneous mycoses |
| lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis and chromoblastomycosis. |
| Systemic mycoses are caused by primary fungal pathogens such |
| Histoplasma capsulatum, Blastomyces dermatitidis, Paracoccidioides brasiliensis, Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans (HBPCC) |
| Pathogenicity |
| Ability of an organism to infect a susceptible host genotype and cause disease |
| Virulence |
| The degree of disease caused by a pathogen genotype under appropriate conditions. Akin to aggressiveness. |
| Nosocomial pathogens |
| Hospital acquired microbes |
Koch’s Postulates |
1. isolate the suspected agent from a disease victim. 2. grow the agent in pure culture.
3. infect a healthy host and show that the organism produces the classical clinical disease. 4. Isolate the "same" organism from the new victim. |
Cytoplasmic membranes are similar to eukaryotic membranes but do not contain steroids (e.g., cholesterol).
Which are the exception to this rule? |
| Mycoplasmas |
Most have signature teichoic and lipoteichoic acids in the thick peptidoglycan wall Which type of bacteria? |
| Gram positive bacteria |
| Characteristics of Teichoic acids |
Teichoic acids: · Strong negative charge. · Covalently linked to the peptidoglycan · Strongly antigenic Generally absent in gram-negative bacteria. · Believed to aid in concentrating metal ions from the surroundings. |
Characteristics of Lipoteichoic acids
|
Lipoteichoic acids: · Attached to fatty acids and anchored in the cytoplasmic membrane. · Antigenic, cytotoxic and can be involved in adherence
|
| What actions could result in Gram positive bacteria appearing to be gram negative after test |
Mechanical disruption of the cell wall of Gram-positive organisms or its enzymatic removal with lysozyme Also, old starved bacteria and those treated with antibiotics. |
_________ and _________ do not have cell wall and therefore cannot be differentiated by Gram stain. |
| Mycoplasma and Ureoplasma |
| __________ cannot be classified by Gram stain due to the waxy outer shell preventing the entry of the stain. An acid fast stain is used to identify them. |
| Mycobacteria |
Peptidoglycan polysaccharides are made up of repeating disaccharides of ________ and _________
|
| N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid |
· Cross-linking in peptidoglycans occurs between the ______ amino acid and another amino acid at the ______ position of another chain. |
| Third, fourth |
In peptidoglycan synthesis passing through the membrane, activated units are attached and assembled in the _________ _________ membrane pivot.
|
| undecaprenol phosphate |
| 3 regions of the Lipopolysaccharide |
| Lipid A, Core, O-antigen |
The region of the LPS that is essential for viability of almost all gram negative bacteria
|
| Lipid A region |
| Which region of the LPS carries the endotoxin activity |
| Lipid A region |
Which region of the LPS allows distinguishing of serotypes (strains) of a bacterial species and is the antigenic portion of the LPS?
|
| O-Antigen |
| Sporulation only occurs in some __________ bacteria, such as members of ______ and _____ |
gram positive Bacillus and Clostridium |
Cells that lack rigid shape, assume spherical shape. if gram-negative cell, then _________ If gram-positive, then __________ |
spheroplasts protoplasts |
| Stable spheroplasts, grow indefinitely w/o wall, but derived from parents with normal walls. |
| L-forms |
| Group of bacteria that evolved to lack wall. Typically found in environments with high osmotic strength |
| Mycoplasmas |
Cocci are what shape? |
Spherical
|
| Bacilli are what shape? |
| Rod-shaped |
| Spirochetes are what shape? |
| Helical |
| The arrangements of bacteria are determined by what? |
The position of the plane of successive cell divisions. |
| Chains of bacteria |
| Streptococci |
| Grape-like clusters of bacteria |
| Staphylococci |
| Angled pairs of bacteria |
| Corynebacteria |
g =
give both equations |
______ t_______ 3.3 [logNt -logN0]
or
t/n |
| 6 major groups of microorganisms: |
1. Algae 2. Protozoa 3. Fungi 4. Bacteria 5. Archaea 6. Viruses |
The minimum requirements for bacterial growth are sources of: |
Carbon Nitrogen Energy H2O Ions |
| Chemotrophs |
| Organisms that obtain energy by the oxidation of electron donors in their environments. |
Bacterial pathogens are almost always _________.
This means what? |
chemoheterotrophs
they are unable to fix carbon and form their own organic compounds |
Respiration requires ___ as a terminal electron acceptor and is _____ efficient at generating energy |
O2 most |
Coenzyme A structural groups: |
| acetyl group, B-mercapto-ethylamine, pantothenic acid, 3’,5’-ADP. |
Anaerobic respiration uses compounds other than oxygen (_____. _____. ______) as terminal electron acceptors, produces less ATP per mole of glucose than aerobic respiration |
| sulfate, nitrate, CO2 |
| NADH is worth __ ATP through ETC, FADH2 is worth __ ATP) |
| 3, 2 |
Glycolysis produces ___ ATP and ___ NADH for a total of ___ ATP after ETC |
2, 2 8 |
| Conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA yields what? |
| 2 NADH for a total of 6 ATP after ETC. |
The Krebs cycle produces ___ GTP, ___ NADH, and ___ FADH2 This yields a total of ___ ATP |
2 GTP, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2 Total of 24 ATP. |
| Once θ (theta) DNA replication is completed, the daughter chromosomes are concatenated and must be unlinked by: |
| DNA gyrase and topoisomerases |
Plasmid pTP10 is found in the clinical isolate of which bacteria |
| of Corynebacterium striatum |
| Term for acquisition of naked DNA from environment |
| Transformation |
| Only some species of bacteria have natural ability for DNA uptake, what is this ability called |
| Natural competence |
| Diploid for only a portion of the genome is called: |
| Merodiploid |
| Phage λ integration into____ chromosome to produce a |
E.coli “λ lysogen” |
| When the presence of a lysogenic prophage confers a new property to the host bacterium, this is termed? |
| Lysogenic conversion |
| The state of being free of microorganisms. |
| Asepsis |
| Inactivation or elimination of ALL viable organism and their spores. |
| Sterilization |
| Process of removing or killing MOST microorganisms on or in a material |
| Disinfection |
| A cleaning process which REDUCES pathogen levels to produce a healthy clean environment. |
| Sanitization |
| Substance that kills vegetative bacteria and some spores |
| Germicide |
| Substance used on non-living objects to render them non-infectious; kills vegetative bacteria, fungi, viruses but no spores |
| Disinfectant |
| Substance used to prevent multiplication of microorganism when applied to living systems. An antiseptic is bacteriostatic in action but not necessarily bactericidal. |
| Antiseptic |
| Mask requirement |
| 95% filtration efficiency for 3-5 micron particles desired |
Example of a secretion pathway that is dedicated to virulence
|
| type III secretion (T3S) systems |
Bacterial adherence is often mediated by adhesins: |
o Fimbrial adhesins o Afimbrial adhesins |
Streptococcus mutans Adhesin: Receptor: Attachment site: Disease: |
glycosyl transferase salivary glycoprotein pellicle of tooth dental caries |
Streptococcus salivarius Adhesin: Attachment: Disease: |
lipoteichoic acid buccal epithelium of tongue no disease |
Bacterial invasion factors:
Ex 1: Listeria invasion and cell-to-cell spread is mediated by a protein named ______. Which other bacteria has a homolog for protien? |
Internalin Porphyoromonas gingivalis (Pg) |
Bacterial invasion factors: Salmonella uses ____ to secrete effectors that induce “_______ ________” (macropinocytosis) |
T3P membrane ruffling |
Endotoxin is released upon lysis or through “_______” of outer membrane vesicles. |
| blebbing |
Endotoxins bind to specific receptors and stimulate release of ________ (e.g., IFN-g, IL-1, TNF-a, IL-6, histamine, prostaglandins), stimulate growth of _______, and induce ______ followed by ________.
|
| Lymphokines, B cells, leukopenia, leukocytosis. |
Broad classes of exotoxins
2 types of intracellular targets |
o A-B dimeric exotoxins (B, binding; A, active) o ADP-ribosylation of intracellular target host molecule |
Broad classes of exotoxins
Cellular targets |
Cytolytic exotoxins (usually degradative enzymes) or cytolysins |
1) Hydrolyze membrane phospholipids (phospholipases). 2) Thiol(-SH)-activated cytolysins alter membrane permeability by binding to cholesterol. ((3) Detergent-like activity on cell membranes; rapid rate of lysis.
These are types of ___________
|
| Bacterial cytolysins. |
3 Examples of Two-Component A-B Exotoxins with Intracellular Targets |
· Anthrax toxin (PA, EF, LF) · Shiga toxin, A-5B · Cholera toxin, A-5B |
___________ is considered to be the initiating organism and ________ the secondary invader of dental caries. |
MS (mutans streptococci) LB (lactobacilli) |
| Treatment of disseminated mycoses frequently is administration of systemic __________. |
| amphotericin B |
| What are the main targets of antifungal drugs? |
| Ergosterols in fungal cell membranes |
| _________ and ________ are active against many Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria |
| Tetracycline and carbapenems |
| Penicillin is effective against only _______ ______ bacteria. |
| Gram positive |
| The multidrug resistant Enteric bacteria, mainly ________ and ________, contain a worrisome enzyme called __________ |
E.coli & K. pneumoniae New Dehli metallo-β-lactamase (NDM) |
| Films of the superficial aspects of plaque and contain non-bacterial debris. |
| materia alba |
1st colonizers come from saliva: |
1) Streptococcus sanguinis and Streptococcus mitis (gram +, facultative) 2) Actinomyces (gram +, most are obligate anerobes) |
| Veillonella species |
| Subsequent colonizer on teeth. |
| Fusobacterium species |
| Subsequent colonizer |
| Campylobacter species |
| Subsequent colonizer on teeth. |
| Main cause of Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG) |
| Spirochetes, which are members of the genus Treponema. |
In pregnancy gingivitis women often suffer from advanced gingivitis associated with high levels of an alleged opportunistic pathogen in the subgingival biofilm: Which pathogen? |
| Prevotella intermedia (Pi) |
| Chronic periodontitis becomes most severe when certain opportunistic pathogens become numerous. Pathogens are: |
| Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema species and Tannerella forsythia. |
| Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans |
| Pathogen associtated with aggressive periodontitis |
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans is the only gram negative rod associated with periodontitis that is a _________ ________.
|
| Facultative anaerobe |
HIV-associated gingivitis and periodontitis: The pocket microbiota is similar to the periodontitis profile with the most distinctive microbial change being an increase |
| Candida species. |
Failed endontically treated teeth usually are dominated by Gram positive facultative anaerobes, and almost always include _______ ________, a species normally found in the human gut. |
| Enterococcus faecalis |
| Fungi are Gram _____, mostly ______, and ____ growing |
| positive, aerobic, slow |
Infection bodies of fungi Spores which are present on stalk-like projections or other |
| Conidia |
Infectious bodies of fungi Septal fragments of the hyphae which separate to become reproductive entities |
| arthroconidia or arthrospores |
Pathogen causing Histoplasmosis
|
| Histoplasma capsulatum |
“Chicago disease”
|
| Blastomycosis |
| "Cave disease" |
| Histoplasmosis |
| Flu and pneumonia like symptoms, eventually, calcified tuberculosis-like lesions. |
| Histoplasmosis |
· Pathogens remain viable in macrophages, which serve as vectors in disseminated disease to various organs
|
| Histoplasmosis |
Pathogen causing Blastomycosis |
| Blastomyces dermatitidis |
Organisms phagocytize alveolar macrophages |
| Blastomycosis |
· Lung infection usually clears, but can form ulcerative skin and bone lesions in immunocompromised patents |
| Blastomycosis |
| Pathogen causing Paracoccidioidomycosis |
| Paraccodioides brasiliensis |
Most prevalent in South America |
Paracoccidioidomycosis |
Affects men vs women (78:1) |
| Paracoccidioidomycosis |
Primary lung infection, but can disseminate and cause mortality (16-25%) in immunodeficient. |
| Paracoccidioidomycosis |
Disseminated fungus produces painful ulcers on oral, nasal, and GI muscosa |
| Paracoccidioidomycosis |
| Pathogen caused by Coccidioides immitis |
| Coccidioidomycosis |
American southwest, airborne from soil |
| Coccidioidomycosis |
| Lesions on skin or meninges primarily in immunodeficient individuals |
| Coccidioidomycosis |
| Pathogen that causes Cryptococcosis |
| Cryptococcus neoforman |
Pathogenic organism of this disease exists only in yeast form
|
| Cryptococcosis |
Pulmonary symptoms and radiographic lung nodules |
| Cryptococcosis |
| Disseminiation via hematologic spread in healthy/unhealthy patients, often leads to Cryptococcus meningitis. |
| Cryptococcosis |
Second most common fungal infection in immunosuppressed patients after candidiasis. |
| Cryptococcosis |
| Pathogen that causes Aspergillosis |
| Aspergillus fumigatus |
Major veterinary pathogen affecting sheep and cattle |
| Aspergillosis |
Conidia of the fungus are inhaled from the environment and produce localized lung infections associated with tubercular growths called mycetomas or “fungus balls” |
| Aspergillosis |
The pathogen also can spread via the blood and invade blood vessles causing necrosis and thrombosis, or invade organs including the brain. |
| Aspergillosis |
· Aflatoxin, an extracellular protein elaborated by A. flavus (in most cases), can contaminate foodstuff, such as peanuts, and may induce hepatocellular carcinoma. |
| Aspergillosis |
· It is the most common opportunistic respiratory infection in late stage HIV patients and accounts for a 10-20% mortality rate in these individuals. |
| Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
The organism does not invade host cells but exists in pulmonary interstitial tissue as a sporocyst (spore case) |
| Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
Death occurs from asphyxiation. |
| Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
Treatment is administration of trimethoprim-sulfamexoxazole or pentamidine isethionate (both of which have side-effects) and oxygen administration. |
| Pneumocystis jirveci pneumonia |
| Drugs which impair sterols |
| Polyenes |
| Two examples of Polyenes |
| Nystatin and amphotericin B |
| This polyene binds to cholesterol in blood lipoproteins and produces a high rate of side-effects, particularly in kidneys. |
| Amphotericin B |
These two drugs form large pores in fungal cell membranes, which allow leakage of vital cell constituents. |
| Nystatin and amphotericin B |
Drugs which affect ergosterol synthesis Give two examples |
Azole derivatives ex:Imidazoles and Triazoles
|
________ is administered orrally and is taken up by the fungus, converted to 5-fluorouracil and then metabolized into compounds which are inhibitory to either RNA or DNA function.
What is one advantage of this drug over amphotericin B |
5-flurocytosine This drug is able to enter the CSF, whereas amphotericin B cannot |
Drug that is administered orally and is active against dermatophytes, not has no effect on systemic mycoses |
| Griseofulvin |
| Inhibits the enzyme UDP-GIcNAc-3-enol-pyruvyltransferase that is involved in the first phase of cell wall synthesis |
| Fosfomycin |
| Fairly toxic and is generally only used as a secondary treatment for tuberculosis |
| Cycloserine |
| Name the two drugs that act on Phase II of cell wall synthesis |
| Vancomycin and Bacitracin |
| Name the two drugs that act on Phase I of cell wall synthesis |
| Fosfomycis and Cycloserine |
| Binds to the pentapeptide terminus and inhibits both transglycosylation and transpeptidation reactions during peptidoglycan assembly |
| Vancomycin |
| Which drug is not effective against gram negative bacteria because of its inability to pass through the cell membrane (due to bulky size) |
| Vancomycin |
| Which antibiotic is used to treat gram positive infections caused by organisms that are resistant to beta-lactams |
| Vancomycin |
| Resistance to what antibiotic is mediated by changes in the pentapeptide terminus |
| Vancomycin |
| A beta-lactam ring consists of 4 atoms, what are they? |
| 3 carbons and 1 nitrogen. |
| The enzymes involved in this final process of cell wall formation are called |
| penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) |
| In cephalosporins, the beta-lactam ring is fused with a _____________ ring. |
| a dihydrothiazine ring |
| Beta-lactam antibiotic that is only effective against aerobic gram negative bacteria |
| Monobactams |
A beta-lactam antibiotic that has broad spectrum effects but, with resistance reported in oxacillin-resistant staphylococci and Pseudomonas |
| Carbapenems |
| Three general mechanisms of resistance to B-lactam antibiotics |
1) Prevention of the interaction between PBP and the antiobiotic 2) Modification of the interaction between PBP and the antibiotic 3) Hydrolysis of the antibiotic by B-lactamases |
| Drug that is bactericidal against actively replicating Mycobacteria by inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acid |
| Isoniazid |
High-molecular-weight octapeptides that inhibit Gram-negative bacteria by interacting with the membrane and increasing cell permeability. |
Polymyxins |
| Antibiotic that is only used topically since it can form potent toxins, causing damage to the kidneys and nervous system. |
| Polymyxins |
| What is mode of action of Polymyxins |
| Interact with the cell membrane, leading to increased cell permeability. |
| One of the most widely used class of antibiotics |
| Quinolones |
| What is the mechanism of action of quinolones |
| They are a synthetic agents that inhibit gyrase (usually gram -)or topoisomerase IV (usually gram +)thereby interfering with DNA replication, recombination, and repair. |
| Newer fluoroquinolones such as ________, have broader spectrum against both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria |
| Ciproflaxacin |
| Nitroimidazols only inhibit _______ ________and ________ by causing breaks in strands of DNA. |
| Anaerobic bacteria and protozoa |
__________ is one of the most commonly used nitroimidazols |
| ?Metroniadazole |
Gram negative bacteria are intrinsically resistant to the hydrophobic drug ________, because of decreased uptake of the drug |
| Rifamycin |
| What is the mode of action for Rifamycins? |
?Rifamycins (Rifampin, Rifabutin) bind to bacterial RNA polymerase and inhibit initiation of RNA synthesis |
_________ is bactericidal for M. tuberculosis and active against many Gram positive bacteria |
| ?Rifampin (a rifamycin drug) |
| Streptomycin is a member of which group of drugs |
Aminoglycosides |
| Which group of drugs work synergistically with B-lactams |
Aminoglycosides
B-lactams increase their uptake. |
?Aminoglycosides are effective against many _________ and some ___________ bacteria |
| Gram-negative, Gram-positive |
| Tetracyclines are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) because they bind __________ to the 30S subunit. |
| Bacteriostatic, reversibly |
| Tetracyclines block binding of __________ to the 30S ribosomal subunit |
aminoacyl-tRNA |
Which family of drugs are broad spectrum ?Used to treat a wide variety of infections caused by: ?Chlamydia ?Mycoplasma ?Rickettsia ?And a variety of other Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria |
| Tetracyclines |
| Which classes of drugs inhibit the 30S ribosomal subunit |
| Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines |
| Which classes of drugs target the 50S ribosomal unit |
Oxazolidinones, Lincosamides, Chloramphenicol, Macrolides, Streptogramins
|
| Linezolid is the most commonly used _______. |
| Oxazolidinones |
| Which drug is active against gram positive cocci, including those resistant to penicillins, vancomycin, and aminoglycosides. |
Oxazolidinones (linezolid)
|
| What is the mechanism of action for Lincosamides |
| Block protein elongation by binding to the 50S subunit of the ribosome |
| Lincosamides are active against _________ and anaerobic ____________ rods. |
| Staphylococci, Gram-negative |
| Which antibiotics show cross-resistance with macrolides |
| Lincosamides |
| What are two examples of Lincosamide drugs. |
| Lincomycin and its derivative Clindamycin |
What is the mechanism of action for Chloramphenicol
|
Binds reversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit (Bacteriostatic) |
Which drug has a broad similar spectrum to tetracyclines, but is not commmonly used in America?
|
| Chloramphenicol |
| Enzymatic inactivation of the antibiotic (acetylation) is a resistance mechanism against which antibiotic |
| Chloramphenicol |
What is the mechanism of action for the macrolides |
Binds reversibly to the 23S RNA component of the 50S ribosomal subunit (bacteriostatic) |
Most gram negative bacteria are resistant to this class of drugs that is primarily used to treat pulmonary infections
|
| Macrolides |
| Erythromycin, Azithromycin, Clarithromycin are drugs from which class |
| Macrolides |
| Macrolides show cross-resistance which group of antibiotics |
| Lincosamides |
Which class of drugs are cyclic peptides that are administered as a combination of two components. Group A and Group B |
| Streptogramins |
For steptogramins Group A component binds to the ______________ and facilitates binding of the _____________. Group B component inhibits _____ _______. |
50S ribosomal subunit chain elongation |
| Which class of antibiotics is most commonly used against staphylococci, streptococci and Enterococcus faecium |
| Steptogramins |
| Folic acid is composed of which 3 components |
| Pteridine, PABA, Glutamic acid |
| What is the main function of antimetabolites |
| Interfere with folic acid synthesis |
| Two examples of antimetabolites are: |
| Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims |
| Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims are __________ (bactericidal/bacteriostatic) and have _______ range. |
Bacteriostatic Broad range |
| The antimetabolite, ______________, p-aminosalicylic acid –is often used in combo with others (usually ________) for treatment of mycobacterial infections |
-p-aminosalicylic acid isoniazid |
| Sulfonamides and Trimethoprims inhibit different steps of ____ ____ synthesis, and therefore, can be used ___________. |
folic acid synergistically |
?One form of resistance is decreased affinity of dihydrofolate reductase for the drug, ________. |
| trimethoprim |
?Enterococci can use exogenous thymidine and are intrinsically resistant to which class of drugs |
| Antimetabolites |
Which method would be effective on materials that would be destroyed by heat (e.g. petri dishes, gloves, syringes) |
| Radiation |
| Which cleaning method is used only to clean, and does NOT sterilize materials. |
| Ultrasonification |
| Which method cleans through cavitation bubbles which losen attached materials. |
| Ultrasonification |
Which cleaning method removes microorganisms from liquids that would be destroyed by heat
What are some examples of these liquids |
Filtration ex: enzymes, vaccines, antibiotics |
| What is the approximate size of pores used in filtration |
< 0.22 µm pore |
What are the 3 methods of sterilization monitoring. Give an example of each Which is most accurate? |
Mechanical, Chemical, and Biological Mechanical: monitor cycle length, pressure, or temperature Chemical: use external or internal chemical indicators Biological: Directly assess killing of known highly resistant microorganisms once per week mininimum.
Biological is only one that proves sterility |
| What would be typical settings for an autoclave. |
15 lbs/sq inch pressure for 15-20 min at 121oC |
| What are typical settings for hot air sterilization |
| 160 degrees Celcius for 1-4 hrs. |
| Alcohols are not effective against __________ bacteria. |
| spore-forming |
| disruption of cellular membranes, solubilization of lipids, and denaturation of proteins by acting directly on S-H functional groups are modes of action for what chemical |
| Alcohol |
| What are the recommended vaccines for health care workers |
| Influenza, MMR, VZV (live virus vaccine), HBV |
| What is the change of getting HBV after a skin-puncture with a needle |
| 27-37% |
| Which organisms/proteins can survive autoclaving and most chemical treatments |
| Prions |
One time use of critical instruments Don't allow tissue to dry on instruments Completely clean instruments and autoclave at 134 degrees Celcius for 18 minutes ; These are precautions for which disease? |
| Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease |
| A word for the ability to cause fever. |
| Pyrogenicity |
Thrombosis: Formation of blood clot (thrombus) in heart or blood vessel Thrombocytopenia: Abnormally low numbers of blood platelets; These are effects cause by what? |
| Endotoxin |
| The anthrax toxin contains 3 separate proteins: |
Protective antigen (PA) Edema factor (EF) Lethal factor (LF) |
For which toxin does B-subunit binds to Gb3 glycolipid receptor A -subunit;prevents binding of aminoacyl-transfer RNA by cleaving 28S rRNA from 60S ribosomal subunit resulting in inhibition of protein synthesis |
Shiga toxin, from bacterium; Shigella dysenteriae |
| Which toxin has an A-subunit that migrates to the CNS pre-synaptic nerve endings, builds up in vesicles and leads to continuous stimulation of muscles |
| Tetanus toxin |
| Which toxin has an A-subunit that inhibits the release of acetylcholine at myoneural junctions resulting in flaccid paralysis and death |
| Botulinum toxins |
| Which toxins inhibits leukocyte chemotaxis and activity |
| Adenylate cyclase toxin and Pertussis toxin from Bordetella sp. |
| Phase variation is always ________ |
| reversible |
Promoter inversions for E. coli type I pili and;Salmonella flagellar genes;are examples of what |
| Site-specific recombination |