HUN Final exam 8-18 – Flashcards

Which of the following is a consequence of losing excess body weight? It reverses atherosclerosis It lowers HDL-cholesterol It increases insulin resistance It raises the number of immune cells in adipose tissue

What term best describes a failure of the body's cells to respond to secretion of insulin? Central obesity Insulin resistance Thyroid insufficiency Hypothalamic impedance

What is the range of body fat content for normal-weight men 20-39 years of age? 5-10% 18-21% 22-30% 32-40%

What is the main explanation for the difference in basal metabolic rates between males and females of the same body weight? Males are usually taller than females Females have lower levels of thyroid hormones Males have a higher percentage of lean body mass Females have a lower percentage of adipose tissue

If a dancer and a typist are the same height and have the exact same body build, the dancer will be heavier because she has more body fat. stronger bones. stronger muscles. more muscle mass.

Which of the following is a characteristic of people with anorexia nervosa? Most are aware of their condition and seek treatment Fewer than 200 women die each year from the disease Among those who are treated, many relapse into abnormal eating patterns During initial treatment, metabolism slows and appetite increases but thereafter subsides

Which of the following is known to promote fat storage in adipocytes? Glucagon Lipoprotein lipase Cellulite synthetase Lipoprotein synthetase

Why does use of the BMI overestimate the prevalence of obesity in the African-American population? Blacks have a higher average height than whites Blacks have denser bones and higher body protein concentrations than whites Blacks tend to have different proportions of brown and white adipose tissue than whites The fat pads in blacks are situated primarily around the hips, whereas in whites the pads are primarily abdominal

What term describes the increase in energy expenditure that occurs in a person who fractures a leg? Febrile hyperthermia Physical hyperthermia Specific thermogenesis Adaptive thermogenesis

An example of a behavior modification technique for weight control is to feel guilty after you overeat. keep a record of your eating habits. always clean your plate when you eat. have someone watch you to prevent overeating.

Which of the following is a characteristic of most fad diets? They produce long-lasting results just like healthy diets They limit food choices, thereby reducing energy intake They are balanced and therefore do not require a dietary supplement Their success depends on the ratios of macronutrients more so than the total energy value

What is the approximate daily basal metabolism of a 110-pound woman? 500 kcal 1000 kcal 1500 kcal 2000 kcal

Which of the following is a relation of "spot reducing" to exercise? No exercise can target fat removal from any specific area of the body Upper body fat is mostly unaffected by exercising lower body muscles Lower body fat in women is depleted at a faster rate than abdominal fat Abdominal fat in men is released more readily with anaerobic exercise

Which of the following is NOT a known side effect of having insufficient fat stores? Infertility Clinical depression Elevated body temperature Abnormal hunger regulation

Which of the following is a feature of gastric surgery for the treatment of clinically severe obesity? Weight regain almost never occurs It is always an irreversible medical procedure It is less effective than traditional liposuction It diminishes the amount of food that can be eaten without GI distress

Which of the following defines the body's set point? Minimum weight of a person Maximum weight of a person Point at which a person's weight plateaus before dropping again quickly Point above which the body tends to lose weight and below which it tends to gain weight

Which of the following describes a connection between physical activity and energy expenditure? Walking a mile uses about the same energy as running a mile Walking a mile uses about half as much energy as running a mile Exercising the leg muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the thighs and hips Exercising the abdominal muscles is effective at burning away fat primarily around the abdomen

As a general rule, what minimum number of kcalories per day is necessary to ensure nutritional adequacy in an eating plan for reducing body weight in men? 500 800 1200 1600

As a new assistant in a weight-loss research laboratory, you are given a tour of the mouse laboratory. Why is the leptin-deficient mouse much larger than its leptin-sufficient counterpart? Leptin deficiency causes lower levels of ghrelin Leptin deficiency enhances appetite and decreases energy expenditure Leptin deficiency causes psychological depression, which leads to increased food intake Leptin deficiency reduces the desire to do physical activity, resulting in more excess energy available for fat storage

Which of the following describes a trend of worldwide obesity? Nowadays, obesity is not seen in developing countries Prevalence of obesity has leveled out in the last few years in the U.S. The cut-off figure of the BMI for obesity varies from country to country The obesity in other countries does not seem to increase risks for chronic diseases

The Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome may be treated with supplements of folacin. thiamin. vitamin C. vitamin B12.

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin B12 nutrition? Deficiencies lead to 'wet' beriberi Even marginal deficiency impairs cognitive function Excess intake leads to loss of appetite and constipation Severe deficiency is characterized chiefly by free-radical damage

Which of the following describes the basic function of a coenzyme? Attaches to RNA to assist in the synthesis of an enzyme Attaches to cell membranes to assist in uptake of an enzyme Attaches to an enzyme and allows a chemical reaction to take place Attaches to an enzyme, which allows for transport of the enzyme through the circulation

The nasal spray route represents a safe and efficacious means for the supply of folate. vitamin B1. vitamin C. vitamin B12.

Which of the following substances is found in corn and contributes to the development of pellagra? Avidin Leucine Phytates Phenylalanine

Which of the following statements is representative of vitamin supplementation practices? Most people who take supplements consume a poor diet Most people should take supplements daily because of the great difficulty in obtaining the needed amounts from food People who have low energy intakes or are pregnant are at risk for developing deficiencies and may benefit from supplementation People should take supplements daily because nutrition surveys in the U.S. and Canada have detected deficiencies in some population groups

When thiamin is consumed in excess of needs, how does the body treat the excess? Not absorbed Excreted primarily in the urine Excreted primarily in the feces Stored in liver, bone, and adipose tissue

The percent bioavailability of a folate supplement taken on an empty stomach is 5. 25. 50. 100.

How much vitamin C is needed daily to raise blood ascorbic acid concentrations to a maximum? 10 mg 75 mg 125 mg 200 mg

Those groups of people who are at risk for developing marginal nutrient deficiencies and may benefit from taking vitamin supplements include all of the following EXCEPT vegans. food faddists. athletes who are engaged in intense competitive events. people with low energy intakes, such as habitual dieters and the elderly.

Which of the following disorders may result from vitamin E deficiency in people? Rickets Xerophthalmia Muscular dystrophy Erythrocyte hemolysis

Which of the following is a property of the fat-soluble vitamins? Most of them are synthesized by intestinal bacteria Intestinal transport occurs by way of the portal circulation Deficiency symptoms may take years to develop on a poor diet Toxicity risk is higher for vitamins E and K than for other fat-soluble vitamins

What part of the body is affected most by keratomalacia? Bone Liver Cornea Immune cells

What is/are the main function(s) of vitamin D? Promotes secretion of calcitonin Promotes synthesis of 7-dehydrocholesterol Promotes synthesis of carotenoids and controls absorption of fat-soluble vitamins Promotes calcium and phosphorus absorption and promotes calcium mobilization from bone

Which of the following is a characteristic of carotenoids in foods? They are found in many vegetables and fruits Most carotenoids can be converted to vitamin A Carotenoid absorption is inhibited by foods rich in chlorophyll The carotenoid with the highest conversion rate to vitamin A is lycopene

What form of tocopherol shows vitamin E activity in the human body? Alpha Beta Gamma Delta

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin E? Functions as a hormone-like substance Toxicity symptoms include bone abnormalities Deficiencies occur from inability to absorb dietary lipids Important food sources include enriched breads and pasta

What population group is most vulnerable to vitamin A toxicity? Children Adolescents Adults Elderly

What population group is at highest risk for osteomalacia? Infants Elderly men Adult women Children ages 2-12 years

The plant version of vitamin D is known as ergocalciferol. foliocalciferol. cholecalciferol. phyllocalciferol.

Pernicious anemia results from a deficiency of folate. selenium. vitamin B12. iron and copper.

Why shouldn't vitamin E supplements be taken for at least one week before surgery? Vitamin E interferes with barbiturate pain medications The antioxidant activity affects stability of most anesthetic agents Vitamin E acts as a blood thinner and could lead to excessive bleeding The antioxidant activity interferes with synthesis of replacement erythrocytes

Which of the following vitamins is known to sustain substantial losses during processing of food? Biotin Niacin Vitamin B12 Pantothenic acid

Nutrient supplements known as "green pills" often contain mostly food coloring. high-potency vitamin C. dehydrated alfalfa and parsley. dried extracts of spoiled meats.

What is meant by the bioavailability of a vitamin in food? The total amount available from plant and animal food The amount absorbed and subsequently used by the body The amount that escapes destruction from food processing The number of different chemical forms of the same vitamin

John is looking to increase his dietary sources of vitamin C. However, he expresses a strong dislike for all citrus fruits. Which of the following shopping lists would you recommend? Liver, yogurt, milk Brussels sprouts, broccoli, strawberries Banana, peanut butter, canned tuna fish Whole grains, pork, fortified corn flakes

People with the condition known as iron overload may be adversely affected from taking supplements of niacin. retinol. cobalamin. ascorbic acid.

Which of the following is the coenzyme form of thiamin? Thiaminacide Thiamin pyrophosphate Thiamin adenine dinucleotide Thiamin flavin mononucleotide

Which of the following vitamins is known to deactivate histamine, a substance that causes nasal congestion? Niacin Vitamin E Vitamin C Vitamin B12

Which of the following is a general function of vitamin C? Antiviral agent Antifungal agent Anticancer agent Antioxidant agent

Vitamin A supplements are helpful in treating which of the following conditions? Acne Rickets Osteomalacia Night blindness

In which of the following individuals would vitamin A toxicity be most likely to occur? Adolescent women Overweight adults Those taking vitamin A supplements Those consuming more than 100 g of carrots daily

Which of the following describes an event in the visual response process? Light energy strikes the retina and excites pigments to release retinal Light energy strikes the cornea and excites pigments to release retinoic acid Visual pigments deep in the brain are excited by light transmitted through the retina Epithelial cells on the surface of the eye respond to light energy by transmitting opsin molecules along nerve pathways to the brain

Which of the following is responsible for transporting vitamin A from the liver to other tissues? Albumin Rhodopsin Retinol-binding protein Transcarotenoid protein

What do beta-carotene and vitamin E have in common? Both act as antioxidants Both are found in animal fats Neither is involved in free radical control Neither is involved in synthesis of retinal

Which of the following compounds is known to function as a hormone? Vitamin D Vitamin K Phylloquinone Alpha-tocopherol

If a normal, healthy adult were to begin consuming a vitamin A-poor diet, approximately how much time would pass before the first deficiency symptoms would appear? 2 weeks 1 to 2 months 6 months 1 to 2 years

Approximately what percentage of the body's vitamin A stores are found in the liver? 20 50 70 90

The effects of vitamin A deficiency are most severe in what population group? Adults Elderly Newborns Adolescents

With what vitamin is opsin usually associated in the body? A B1 C D

When taken in large doses, which of the following vitamins is associated with liver injury? Niacin Thiamin Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12

Of the following commonly eaten foods, which makes the greatest contribution to riboflavin intake? Milk Potatoes Orange juice Peanut butter

Which of the following vitamins is involved substantially in energy transformation reactions? Biotin Cobalamin Riboflavin Pyridoxine

Which of the following is associated with a deficiency of folate? Hemolysis Hypoxemia Hemolytic anemia Macrocytic anemia

Which of the following diets is most likely to lead to beriberi? High intakes of white rice Low intakes of whole grains High intakes of unrefined rice Low intakes of enriched grains

Cooking a food in liberal amounts of water is least likely to affect its content of folate. thiamin. vitamin A. riboflavin.

Which of the following foods contains a protein that decreases bioavailability of biotin? Aged wine Aged cheese Raw egg whites Raw cauliflower

Among the following compounds that serve as coenzymes in metabolism, which is considered a vitamin for human beings? Biotin Inositol Lipoic acid Orotic acid

The coenzyme FAD is formed from what vitamin? Niacin Choline Thiamin Riboflavin

Which of the following is a property of riboflavin in nutrition? Stability to heat is good Deficiency leads to beriberi Requirements are proportional to body weight Significant amounts are found in citrus products

The first detectable sign of vitamin A deficiency is usually xerosis. xerophthalmia. night blindness. corneal keratinization.

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin D? The bioavailability of vitamin D from soy milk is low Lifeguards on southern beaches have increased risk for vitamin D toxicity Most adults living in the southern United States need small amounts of dietary vitamin D The average consumption in the United States does not meet the recommended intake

Which of the following is known to require vitamin K for its synthesis? Albumin GI mucosa Prothrombin Mucopolysaccharides

In what system would the effects of a vitamin D deficiency be most readily observed? Nervous Skeletal Muscular Circulatory

Which of the following is a naturally occurring food source of vitamin D? Egg yolks Red meats Tomato juice Whole-wheat bread

Which of the following can the body use to synthesize vitamin D? Bone Carotene Tryptophan Exposure to sunlight

Which of the following is a characteristic of free radicals? They are destroyed by cigarette smoking They arise from normal metabolic reactions They typically stop chain reactions associated with the production of peroxides They are known to accumulate even in the presence of abundant antioxidant nutrients

What do retinal and unsaturated fatty acids have in common? Neither is found in animal fats Neither is transported by chylomicrons They may exist in the cis or trans form They are both needed to prevent erythrocyte hemolysis

Your sister Ellen has just joined the Peace Corps and will be working on ways to improve the nutritional status of children in Indonesia. Once there, she saw that many of the children and some adults suffer from night blindness. Which of the following foods should she recommend be incorporated into the Indonesian diet to help prevent future generations from developing this condition? Sweet potato Orange juice Peanut butter Powdered skim milk

What form of vitamin A supports vision but not growth? Retinal Retinol Retinoic acid Retinyl esters

Which of the following is a feature of the minerals in nutrition? Some minerals are destroyed by heat Some minerals are destroyed by UV light Much care is needed to preserve minerals during food preparation Once minerals enter the bloodstream, they remain in the body until excreted

Where is interstitial water found? Within cells Between cells Within the lungs Within blood vessels

Which of the following contributes most to the weight of the human body? Iron Water Protein Calcium

Tiffany is a strict vegan and does not consume calcium-rich plant foods nor supplements of calcium. Which of the following is most responsible for maintaining her blood calcium levels in the normal range? Calcitonin Calmodulin Hydroxyapatite Parathyroid hormone

Which of the following is NOT a feature of body weight and bone health? Weight loss adversely affects bone density Negative energy balance typically reduces calcium absorption A low-calcium diet promotes similar bone loss in normal and overweight people People with BMIs over 30 have denser bones than their counterparts with BMIs around 25

The DASH diet plan was devised to prevent dehydration. constipation. osteoporosis. hypertension.

What is the major extracellular anion? Sodium Lactate Sulfate Chloride

Which of the following is a feature of phosphorus in nutrition? Rich sources include fresh vegetables Dietary deficiencies are virtually unknown Absorption is known to be reduced by soft drink consumption Its participation in bone synthesis requires equivalent intake of dietary calcium

Sulfur is present in practically all vitamins. proteins. fatty acids. carbohydrates.

Which of the following minerals would a bulimia nervosa patient be likely to lose in the greatest amount? Calcium Chloride Potassium Phosphorus

Flaxseed is a rich source of lutein. lignans. sulforaphane. organosulfur compounds.

A woman with a severe iodine deficiency during pregnancy may give birth to a child with anemia. rickets. cretinism. allergies.

What is the primary mechanism associated with the role of fluoride in prevention of dental caries? Fluoride increases calcium absorption, which increases crystal formation of teeth Decay is inhibited due to neutralization of organic acids produced by bacteria on the teeth Decay is reduced due to the inhibitory effects of fluoride on growth of bacteria on the teeth Fluoride becomes incorporated into the crystalline structure of teeth, making them less susceptible to decay

The rare genetic disorders Menkes disease and Wilson's disease result from abnormal utilization of iron. zinc. copper. manganese.

Which of the following is an important function of selenium? Helps blood to clot Inhibits the formation of free radicals Stabilizes the alcohol content of beer Acts as a cross-linking agent in collagen

Which of the following compounds provides a major storage reservoir for iron? Ferritin Myoglobin Transferrin Hemoglobin

Which of the following is a characteristic of chromium in nutrition? A deficiency leads to hypothyroidism Supplements are well known to be helpful Whole grains represent an excellent source In the body, it enhances the action of ceruloplasmin

Which of the following has been shown to improve absorption of iron from iron supplements? Taking then with milk Taking them with orange juice Taking them on an empty stomach rather than with meals Taking them in the form of the ferric salt rather than the ferrous salt

Fluoride deficiency is best known to lead to dental decay. osteoporosis. discoloration of teeth. nutritional muscular dystrophy.

Which of the following is descriptive of iron deficiency and behavior? The practice of pica may enhance iron absorption Changes in behavior precede the appearance of anemia The practice of pica may delay the onset of iron-induced behavioral changes Adults are more resistant to iron-induced behavioral changes than children

What is the greatest single source of sodium in the diet? Processed foods Unprocessed foods Natural salt content of foods Salt added during cooking and at the table

Which of the following is a characteristic of calcium supplement use? Taking them with a meal enhances absorption of calcium Taking them with iron supplements enhances absorption of iron Supplements of calcium carbonate show higher bioavailability than calcium citrate Small pills containing a large amount of calcium salt show faster dissolution in the stomach

Aldosterone and renin each function to promote electrolyte balance. retention of sodium. excretion of calcium. constriction of blood vessels.

Which of the following is the primary function of potassium? Participates in wound healing Helps maintain gastric acidity Acts as principal intracellular electrolyte Protects bone structures against degeneration

What is calmodulin? A calcium-binding protein A drug that treats osteoporosis A calcium supplement with high bioavailability A form of calcium used in fortifying soy products

What is a chief function of carbonic acid in the body? Activates angiotensin Activates angiotensinogen Helps with gastric digestion Helps maintain acid-base balance

For every man who has osteoporosis, about how many women have it? 2 3 4 6

Which of the following minerals is least likely to be deficient in anyone's diet? Iron Calcium Chromium Phosphorus

Among the following, which promotes constriction of blood vessels, resulting in elevation of blood pressure? Phytates Angiotensin Aldosterone Carbonic acid

What is the major extracellular cation? Sodium Sulfate Protein Potassium

What mineral is critical to the synthesis of thyroxine? Iron Copper Iodine Magnesium

Which of the following trace minerals is known to be involved in bone development? Tin Cobalt Silicon Barium

Which of the following may result from iodine deficiency? Gout Goiter Anemia Hypertension

Which of the following is a prominent feature of mild iodine deficiency in children? Demineralization Growth retardation Discoloration of teeth Poor performance in school

Which of the following defines an association between a protein and a function of zinc? Thyroxine: zinc transporter Globulin: transports zinc into cells Transferrin: essential to zinc excretion Metallothionein: promotes zinc homeostasis

A person ingesting large amounts of thyroid antagonist substances is at high risk of developing cretinism. simple goiter. high blood T3 levels. high blood thyroxine levels.

One of the chief functions of chromium is participation in the metabolism of iron. proteins. carbohydrates. metallothionein.

Which of the following is NOT among the most common tests to diagnose iron deficiency? Size of red blood cells Number of red blood cells DNA content of red blood cells Hemoglobin content of red blood cells

Zinc content is highest in foods that also contain a large amount of fat. fiber. protein. carbohydrate.

What population group is at the highest risk for iron overload? Adult men Adult women Pregnant women Adolescents

Which of the following is a characteristic of caffeine intake and water balance? Caffeine inhibits water absorption from the GI tract Caffeine is known to act as a diuretic only when consumed as coffee or tea Regular intake of caffeine promotes an increase in water retention of the interstitial fluid volume Habitual consumers of caffeine lose almost no more fluid from the body than when ingesting noncaffeinated beverages

Protective factors for osteoporosis include all of the following EXCEPT obesity. female gender. moderate alcohol intake. having African American heritage.

Which of the following shows the highest bioavailability for calcium? Milk Spinach Broccoli Pinto beans

What is hydroxyapatite? Abnormal cellular structures seen in osteoporosis The calcium-rich crystalline structure of teeth and bones A calcium regulatory hormone secreted from the trabeculae region of bone A compound in plant foods that binds to calcium and phosphorus and inhibits absorption

Which of the following is NOT known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis in men? High BMI Alcohol abuse Corticosteroid use Low testosterone levels

The incidence of death within 1 year of sustaining an osteoporosis-related fracture is about 2%. 6%. 20%. 33%.

What is the force that moves water into a space where a solute is more concentrated? Buffer action Osmotic pressure Permeable selectivity Electrolyte imbalance

Which of the following foods are significant sources of oxalates? Seeds and nuts Processed cheeses Fermented dairy products Spinach and sweet potatoes

Abnormally low blood sodium concentration is known specifically as hypertension. hyponatremia. hyperkalemia. water intoxication.

Among the following calcium supplements, which is most likely to be contaminated with toxic minerals? Oyster shells Calcium lactate Calcium citrate Calcium carbonate

One of the thyroid gland hormones is called thyroxine. goitrogen. thiostimulating hormone. tissue stimulating hormone.

What percentage of the U.S. population have decayed, missing, or filled teeth? 15 35 55 95

Which of the following minerals undergoes enteropancreatic circulation during normal metabolism? Iron Zinc Copper Fluoride

Which of the following is a feature of iron absorption? It is higher with vegetarian diets It is higher in people with iron deficiency It is lower when iron is in the form of heme rather than non-heme It is higher in adults than children due to more mature intestinal function

Which of the following nutrients enhances iron absorption from the intestinal tract? Biotin Calcium Vitamin D Vitamin C

As far as is known, what hormone is dependent upon chromium for optimal activity? Renin Gastrin Insulin Antidiurectic hormone

Which of the following is a feature of the disorder hereditary hemochromatosis? It is characterized by acrodermatitis It is found primarily in women of child-bearing age It is associated with defects of copper and zinc absorption It is the most common genetic disorder in the United States

Which of the following is a characteristic of the mineral molybdenum? Enhances the activity of insulin Deficiency symptoms in people are unknown Unusually poor food sources are legumes and cereal grains Toxicity symptoms in human beings include damage to red blood cells

Which of the following is a feature of zinc in nutrition? Pancreatic enzymes are rich in zinc The body's primary excretory route is urine Good food sources are whole-grain products Toxicity symptoms include constipation and low body temperature

Which of the following is a characteristic of iron utilization? Most of the body's iron is recycled The chief storage site for iron is the intestinal epithelium Iron is absorbed better from supplements than from foods Iron from nonheme food sources is absorbed better than that from heme food sources

Results of research studying carnitine supplementation as an ergogenic aid showed that it does not seem to increase fat oxidation. enhanced carbohydrate oxidation rate but not fat oxidation. raised muscle carnitine concentration but did not improve performance. promoted retention of amino acids but did not lead to increased muscle mass.

A person engaged in an endurance event has lost two liters of body water by sweating. What would be the approximate energy loss from the evaporation of the sweat? 100 kcal 500 kcal 850 kcal 1200 kcal

What substance contains the chemical energy that drives immediate muscle contraction? ATP NAD Glucose Fatty acids

What nutrient is important in the transport of oxygen in blood and in muscle tissue and in energy transformation reactions? Iron Calcium Thiamin Vitamin C

In the endurance athlete, the first priority of nutrient repletion should be fluids. protein. glycogen. electrolytes.

In the average person, the amount of stored glycogen represents how many kcal? 500 1000 2000 4000

A tissue deprived of an oxygen supply during exercise would develop an accumulation of ATP. lactate. glucose-1-phosphate. TCA cycle intermediates.

How much time spent in vigorous activity is usually needed to deplete glycogen reserves? 1 hour 2 hours 3 hours 4 hours

For maximum benefits, cardiorespiratory endurance episodes should be sustained for at least 20 minutes. 40 minutes. 1 hour. 2 hours.

The duration of exercise warm-up and cool-down periods should be 1-2 minutes each. 5-10 minutes each. 15 minutes each. 2 minutes warm-up and 4 minutes cool-down.

Which of the following best exemplifies an activity that promotes flexibility? Yoga Pilates Weight lifting Jumping rope

Which of the following diets promotes superior physical performance in athletes? High-fat diet High-protein diet High-carbohydrate diet Normal mixed diet with vitamin supplements

What is the usual fate of muscle glycogen during exercise? Utilized as a fuel within the muscle cells only Released into the bloodstream to provide fuel for brain cells Released into the bloodstream to replenish liver glycogen as needed Utilized to support lung and heart function under conditions of intense physical performance

A common side effect of chronic creatine supplementation is diarrhea. weight gain. greater endurance. reduced endurance.

What cellular organelles are responsible for producing ATP aerobically? Ribosomes Golgi bodies Mitochondria Cell membranes

Which of the following describes fat utilization during physical activity? Fat that is stored closest to the exercising muscle is oxidized first Fat represents the major fuel source during sustained, moderate activity Fat oxidization makes more of a contribution as the intensity of the exercise increases Fat is burned in higher quantities during short, high-intensity exercises than prolonged, low-intensity exercises

During the first 20 minutes of moderate exercise, the body uses about 50% of the available fat. 10% of the available water. 90% of the available protein. 20% of the available glycogen.

Which of the following is a characteristic of fuel use by muscles? At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from glucose At rest, about 90% of the fuel is derived from fat Muscles always use a mixture of fuels at rest or during physical activity During physical activity, amino acids contribute most of the fuel

What type of meal and time of its ingestion promote the most rapid repletion of glycogen stores after physical activity? Mixed meal taken within 4 hours Mixed meal taken within 30 minutes High-carbohydrate meal taken within 2 hours High-carbohydrate meal taken within 15 minutes

Which of the following are features of physical activity and exercise? Neither involves mandatory body movement Neither involves enhanced energy expenditure Physical activity, but not exercise, involves muscle contractions Exercise, but not physical activity, is thought to be vigorous, structured, and planned

What minimum amount of body water loss (as a percentage of body weight) is likely to cause a person to collapse? 2 7 15 25

Mary is 15 years old and has just joined her high school swim team. After the first three months of training and competing, her coach sends the team for mandatory physical examinations and routine blood tests. When Mary got home, she told her mom that she has sports anemia. Why shouldn't Mary begin taking iron supplements as a way to treat this condition? The anemia is not correctible by extra iron intake The anemia is most likely the result of folate deficiency The iron will interfere with creatine phosphate synthesis The iron will not be absorbed well because of the intense work-outs

What nutrient becomes depleted most rapidly during physical exercise? Iron Water Glucose Glycogen

What type of chemicals are DHEA and androstenedione? Hormones Estrogens Phytonutrients Herbal extracts

Which of the following is an example of a resistance training activity? Yoga Swimming Power walking Lifting free weights

Which of the following is a characteristic of human growth hormone use in athletes? Excessive use shortens life span Low cost accounts for some of its popularity Excessive use leads to shrinking of internal organs Laboratory tests can differentiate between the naturally occurring form and the drug form of growth hormone

Which of the following is NOT true regarding endurance athletes competing in events lasting longer than 3 hours? They need to replace sodium during the event They should eat pretzels during the second half of the event They can easily replace sodium loss by consuming conventional sports drinks during the event They are susceptible to hyponatremia if they refrain from adequate sodium intake during the event

Which of the following is a feature of creatine supplementation in athletes? It may enhance performance of endurance athletes Long-term use adversely affects liver and kidney function It may enhance performance of weight lifters and sprinters It induces short-term weight loss consisting primarily of lean tissue

A person who suddenly begins sprinting will exhaust the muscles' supply of creatine phosphate in about 1 second. 10 seconds. 1 minute. 10 minutes.

Which of the following should be a component of a healthy diet for athletes? Salt tablets Protein powders Nutrient-dense foods Vitamin and mineral supplements

Carbohydrate loading involves the consumption of a high-carbohydrate diet plus no exercise. light exercise. intense exercise. moderate exercise.

The normal resting pulse rate (beats per minute) for adults is approximately 50. 70. 95. 140.

Which of the following describes an effect of caffeine use in the athlete? It stimulates fatty acid release It enhances performance for almost all athletes It raises blood pH to counteract the buildup of lactate It promotes absorption of electrolytes from the intestinal tract

Which of the following is a feature of specific ergogenic aids? Caffeine may enhance short-term, high-intensity performance Carnitine supplements appear to increase the concentration of muscle carnitine Ribose supplements permit longer, more intense workouts in most athletes Chromium supplements (as chromium picolinate) appear to enhance fat oxidation in most athletes

For most physically active people, all of the following are valid reasons for consuming sports drinks EXCEPT they may provide a psychological advantage. they are better than water at preventing sodium depletion. they contain a source of fuel, which may enhance performance in endurance events. they have a good taste, which encourages their consumption and ensures adequate hydration.

Physical performance is noticeably affected when body water loss first reaches 2%. 5%. 10%. 12%.

Which of the following is the most significant rationale for eliminating alcohol intake in athletic performance? It is not metabolized in muscle It inhibits glycogen breakdown It inhibits creatine phosphate synthesis It interferes with ATP synthesis in the liver

When a marathon runner experiences the phenomenon known as "hitting the wall," what nutrient is most likely depleted? Water Protein Glucose Fatty acids

Which of the following is a sure sign that muscles are using their maximum amount of energy from fat? Breathing is easy Training regimen is optimal Balanced diets were ingested High-glycemic index foods were ingested

Which of the following activities depletes glycogen most quickly? Hiking Jogging Walking Quarter-mile run

Which of the following is a feature of vitamin E supplementation and physical activity? Some studies indicate that vitamin E supplementation for 3 weeks protects against the development of sports anemia in women Some studies show that vitamin E in high doses seems to protect against exercise-induced oxidative stress whereas others show the opposite Some studies show that vitamin E supplements improve aerobic performance by 25-30% in endurance athletes competing outdoors in air-polluted environments Some studies show that high-dose vitamin E intake protects against premature oxidation of conjugated linoleic acid supplements, which serve as a unique fuel for strength athletes

Which of the following is a feature of sports anemia? It is not a true iron-deficiency anemia It is usually corrected by iron supplementation It is found primarily in over-conditioned athletes It is associated with reduced cardiorespiratory fitness

The volume of blood ejected by the heart each minute is known as the VO2 max. one-half VO2 max. cardiac output. cardiac conditioned index.

Which of the following is a property of conditioned muscles? They can store more glycogen They are more efficient at converting fat to glucose They contain fewer mitochondria due to increased glucose utilization They rely less on fat breakdown and more on glucose oxidation for energy

Which of the following is a feature of enhanced waters for physical activity? The oxygenated types are beneficial in endurance events They provide a source of lactate to stimulate the Cori cycle One serving provides about a third of the RDA for most vitamins and calcium They usually contain less carbohydrate and electrolytes than typical sports drinks

During physical performance, what is the role of creatine phosphate? Removal of lactic acid Transfer of energy to make ATP Removal of nitrogen waste products Transfer of phosphate to muscle fiber

Why should fiber-rich foods be avoided in an athlete's pregame meal? The fiber delays absorption of fat The fiber interferes with glycolysis The meal crowds out more energy-dense foods The fiber retains water in the GI tract that would otherwise be absorbed

Which of the following represents current knowledge of the role of vitamin and mineral supplements in physical performance? When taken right before an event, they have been shown to benefit performance Moderate amounts have been shown to improve the performance of most elite athletes They may be beneficial for athletes who struggle to meet their energy requirements Except perhaps for iron, they are needed in high amounts to meet the needs of athletes exposed to hot and humid weather conditions

What may, in part, account for the reduced risk of gallbladder disease in people who engage in regular physical activity? Increased fiber intake Reduction of blood lipids Alteration of hormonal profile Reduction of dietary fat intake

For optimal performance, the athlete's precompetition meal may include all of the following EXCEPT pasta. beans. breads. potatoes.

A person engaging in a vigorous level of physical activity would walk at a minimum pace of 1.5 mph. 3.2 mph. 4.6 mph. 7.5 mph.

Which of the following describes a characteristic of fat use during physical activity? It is released as fatty acids from internal fat stores and subcutaneous fat Upon commencement of an activity, blood fatty acids rise to provide an immediate source of fuel Fat that is present within the muscle fiber represents the primary source of energy for that muscle After consumption of a high-fat diet for at least 3 days, physical activities are performed as efficiently as from intake of a high-carbohydrate diet

Which of the following is a role for diet in physical activity? Diets high in fat lead to a fall in amino acid utilization for fuel Diets lacking in carbohydrates lead to increased amino acid utilization for fuel Deficiencies of vitamins have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate Deficiencies of minerals have no effect on performance provided that all other nutrients are adequate

Which of the following is a characteristic of protein use in physical activity? Protein use in endurance events is less than for strength events Protein use for energy is significant in anaerobic strength training Protein contributes up to 10% of total fuel used, which is similar to the resting state Protein contributes approximately the same amount to total energy use on high-carbohydrate or high-fat diets

What is muscle atrophy? Loss of muscle size and strength Muscle cramps arising from insufficient warm-up Muscle spasms resulting from too-rapid progressive overloading Alterations in heart muscle contractions when first initiating a fitness program

The effect of regular exercise on heart and lung function is known as muscle fitness. muscle endurance. cardiopulmonary adaptation. cardiorespiratory conditioning.

What high-energy compound acts as a reservoir of energy for the maintenance of a steady supply of ATP? Glycerol Glycogen Fatty acids Creatine phosphate

Physical fitness may be achieved by engaging in a moderately intense level of exercise at a frequency of at least 10 minutes/day. 20 minutes/day. 3.5 hours/week. 5 hours/week.

Sports drinks begin to provide an advantage over plain water for athletes when their exercise periods first exceed 15 minutes. 60 minutes. 1 1/2 hours. 3 hours.

Your friend Bob, who engages in endurance exercise throughout the week, is concerned that his protein intake is inadequate and asks what type of protein supplement he should take. You assure him that all high-quality protein drinks are equivalent despite the price differences. the extra protein he needs should be high-quality lean sources of poultry and fish. he most likely already gets more protein from his regular diet than he needs, even for endurance activity. no sports authority organizations recommend protein intakes greater than the RDA for endurance athletes.

What is the placenta? An organ from which the infant receives nourishment A muscular organ within which the infant develops before birth The developing infant from the eighth week after conception until birth The developing infant during its second through eighth week after conception

Usually, what is the first sign of preeclampsia? Fall in blood pressure Elevated blood glucose A large weight gain over a short time Chronic episodes of pica over the last 2 trimesters

Preeclampsia typically develops during the first half of pregnancy. second half of pregnancy. first month after delivery. first trimester of pregnancy.

You are working as a nutrition consultant in a women's health clinic and have been advising patients to make sure they consume about 400 micrograms of folate every day. One patient is aware that folate helps prevent birth defects but she isn't sure why she should take it if she is not pregnant. Which of the following is the most appropriate reply? The folate supplementation prevents pernicious anemia, which increases the risk of spina bifida The folate supplementation is needed to ensure a large store that can be utilized by the growing fetus As long as supplementation begins the day pregnancy is confirmed, there is no risk of defects The neural tube develops early on in pregnancy, oftentimes before the woman realizes she is pregnant

Which of the following is characteristic of HIV infection in mothers who breastfeed? The virus cannot be transmitted through the breast milk Breastfeeding is always prohibited for an HIV-infected mother The HIV virus reverts to a dormant stage triggered by postpartum amenorrhea The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends exclusive breastfeeding by HIV-positive women for the first 6 months of infant life in developing countries

Which of the following is a feature of heavy metal intake and pregnancy? Mercury, but not lead, can easily cross the placenta Lead and mercury both damage the fetal nervous system Pregnant women are advised to limit consumption of shark and swordfish to no more than once per week Pregnant women are advised to avoid shellfish around the critical period of brain development but may resume normal intake thereafter

Which of the following is a characteristic of vegetarian diets during pregnancy or lactation? Vegan diets require supplements of selenium, zinc, and manganese Breast milk from vegetarian women is lower in protein but higher in fiber It is possible that a vegetarian diet can support a healthy pregnancy and normal lactation The increase in appetite during pregnancy allows a vegan pregnant woman to easily meet or exceed her energy requirements

The adolescent growth spurt affects the brain primarily. decreases total nutrient needs. affects every organ except the brain. begins and ends earlier in girls than in boys.

Which of the following is the most prevalent nutrient deficiency among U.S. and Canadian children? Iron Protein Calcium Vitamin C

Which of the following is the most likely reason that teachers promote the consumption of midmorning snacks for children? It provides an opportunity to learn about nutrition It meets federally mandated school nutrition guidelines It provides carbohydrate for maintenance of blood glucose and brain function It helps decrease the symptoms of attention-deficit-hyperactivity disorder in 5% of school-age children

Which of the following is a feature of public school food programs? They must follow the Dietary Guidelines for Americans They allow for low-fat menus while still meeting the needs for iron They ensure a lunch period long enough to consume the entire meal They are overwhelmingly preferred over the foods obtained by students through on-site vending machines and snack bars

A child who develops antibodies to a certain food is said to have a food allergy. food intolerance. specific inducible episode. transient immune suppression.

To gradually replace breast milk with infant formula or other foods appropriate to an infant's diet is to feed. wean. nurse. breastfeed.

Which of the following is a characteristic of fat in the diet of children? The recommended daily fat intake up to age 12 is age plus 20 g There is an RDA for total fat for children beginning at 3 years of age Low-fat diets usually provide sufficient amounts of the micronutrients Fat intakes below 30% of total energy do not impair growth provided that total energy intake is adequate

Which of the following is a characteristic of aging and the immune system? Immunity in older people does not seem to be affected by regular exercise In the United States, infectious diseases are a minor cause of deaths in the elderly Immune function does not decline with age in people who maintain good nutrition Antibiotics are often ineffective in treating infections in older people who have deficient immune systems

What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States? 21-30 years 35-50 years Over 65 years Over 85 years

Goals of the Older Americans Act Nutrition Program include the provision of all of the following EXCEPT transportation services. high-cost nutritious meals. opportunity for social interactions. counseling and referral to other social services.

Which of the following is a feature of calcium nutrition in the elderly? The DRI is 800-1000 mg Calcium intakes are well below recommendations Calcium supplements are not effective sources of calcium due to poor digestibility Calcium from food is not well absorbed due to the intake of calcium-binding laxatives

What is a common side effect from taking certain prescription drugs and consuming grapefruit juice? A metallic taste in the mouth appears Blood concentrations of the drugs increase The bioavailability of the drugs falls substantially The bioflavonoids in the juice bind to the drugs and promote formation of uric acid crystals

A person who is edentulous has no teeth. low immunity. difficulty swallowing. diminished muscle mass.

What is WIC? A serious neural tube defect The World Intervention and Conception program of the United Nations An environmental contaminant that may interfere with breast milk production A food and nutrition services program for pregnant women, children, and infants

Which of the following is a characteristic of body weight changes associated with pregnancy? Weight gain is generally steady throughout pregnancy for normal-weight women Most women are unable to lose all of the weight that was gained during pregnancy Sudden, large weight gain in pregnancy may signal the development of hypotension Overweight pregnant women should gain as much weight as underweight pregnant women

How many weeks is the usual duration of a full-term pregnancy? 32-36 38-42 43-45 46-49

Which of the following describes an infant born during the 36th week of pregnancy? Term Preterm Post term Caesarean

Why might a lactating woman need to take an iron supplement? To improve the flavor of breast milk To increase iron content of breast milk To replace the iron stores she lost during pregnancy To account for the re-start of menstruation that usually occurs 1-2 months postpartum

The amount of vitamin D needed in pregnancy can be obtained by consumption of fortified milk and low-mercury fish. exposure to the sun. tropical fruit juices. vitamin D supplements.

What percentage of pregnant women in the United States smoke? 1-2 3-6 7-10 10-14

Which of the following is a characteristic of iron deficiency in children? It affects brain function before anemia sets in It rarely develops in those with high intakes of milk It is the primary factor in tension-fatigue syndrome Mild deficiency enhances mental performance by lowering physical activity level, thereby leading to increased attention span

An infant diagnosed with "goat's milk anemia" is most likely deficient in iron. folate. vitamin B6. vitamin B12.

What is the most likely explanation for the increased prevalence of obesity in children over the past 30 years? They eat more snacks They sleep more hours They consume more sugar and fat They eat more and are less active physically

Which of the following is a feature of infant soy formulas? They are used in about 1% of the infant population They contain cornstarch and sucrose rather than lactose They are identical to milk-based formulas except for the protein source They are not acceptable to vegan families because the formulas contain omega-3 fatty acids from fish

Which of the following is a feature of energy metabolism in infancy? Infants fed fat-free milk are at risk for protein overload Most of the energy in breast milk is derived from lactose The brain of an infant uses less glucose than that of an adult Infants require about 25% more energy than adults when expressed per kg body weight

What term defines the condition of infant tooth deterioration resulting from chronic exposure to carbohydrate-rich fluids from a bottle? Juice bottle erosion Suckling enamelosis Formula-induced gingivitis Nursing bottle tooth decay

Infants should not be given canned vegetables due to excessive amounts of tin. fiber. sodium. botulinum spores.

A principal reason that congregate meals are preferable to Meals on Wheels is that the cost of administering congregate meals is lower. there are more social benefits to congregate meals. nutritional benefits are greater with congregate meals. more meals per week are served with congregate meals.

How does aspirin reduce inflammation and pain? It acts as a sedative and barbiturate It promotes wound healing and blood clotting It interferes with the synthesis of prostaglandins It binds to nerve receptors involved in pain perception

Approximately how many years is the maximum human life span? 75 100 115 130

What is the chief risk factor for Alzheimer's disease? Age Gender Low antioxidant intake Body weight after age 70

To prevent and treat the high incidence of constipation in the elderly, all of the following practices are known to be effective EXCEPT eating more legumes. drinking more water. increasing physical activity. taking vitamin B12 injections.

What is the most important predictor of a person's mobility in the later years? BMI Alcohol use Chronological age Regular physical activity

People who use diuretics are most at risk of developing imbalances of sodium. calcium. potassium. phosphate.

The process by which immune cells engulf and then destroy bacteria is known as bactocydosis. phagocytosis. cytotoxicosis. immunoglobinemia.

Gangrene is a common complication primarily in people with cancer. diabetes. pancreatitis. HIV infection.

Which of the following describes a known association with coronary heart disease (CHD)? In men, CHD begins 10-15 years earlier than in women Women who take estrogen to reduce the risk for osteoporosis are at significantly higher risk for CHD Men with blood cholesterol levels in the borderline-high range account for up to 10% of all deaths from CHD Women younger than 45 years of age tend to have higher LDL cholesterol than do men of that age, but this difference disappears after menopause

Conventional medicine and alternative medical therapies are commonly linked together into a practice called interactive therapy. yin and yang medicine. herbal-assisted healing. complementary medicine.

Which of the following is a characteristic of factors associated with hypertension? Most people with hypertension have BMIs <25 Most people with hypertension are extremely salt sensitive Three to 4 alcohol drinks per day lowers risk for hypertension African Americans develop high blood pressure earlier in life and their average blood pressure is higher than others

Your aunt Crystal asks you to recommend a diet that will help lower her blood pressure. She is willing to try just about anything. Which of the following choices would be most effective in lowering Crystal's blood pressure? Eliminating the use of table salt altogether Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day Substituting all table salt use throughout the day with Mrs. Dash seasoning product Including 3 servings of skim milk and 10 servings of fruits and vegetables a day plus restricting sodium to 2 g/day

Which of the following is NOT among disorders influenced strongly by genetics? AIDS Diabetes Hypertension Atherosclerosis

Approximately what percent of people with high blood pressure are sensitive to salt? 5-10 15-25 30-50 100

The frequent urination common in diabetes is known as polyuria. polyphagia. polyuresis. pseudodiuresis.

The immune system treats foreign substances such as bacteria and toxins as antigens. antibodies. synergisms. immunoglobulins.

What is prehypertension? A predictor of stroke risk Slightly high blood pressure A precursor for Syndrome X A component of the metabolic syndrome

Which of the following is known to speed up the passage of substances through the large intestine, thereby decreasing exposure time to carcinogens? Milk Fiber Omega-3 fats Refined starches

What type of substance is resveratrol? Lipoprotein Antioxidant Soluble fiber Atherogenic promoter

What is ayurveda? A system that combines biofeedback with hypnosis An oriental plant that suppresses colon and breast tumor growth A Hindu system for enhancing the body's ability to prevent illness and to heal itself A variation of standard acupuncture technique that applies electromagnetic impulses to the needles

A complication of diabetes is blurry vision, which results from swelling of the lenses of the eye caused by conversion of excess glucose to sugar alcohols. glycated fructose. long-chain ketones. glycated corneal membranes.

For which of the following chronic diseases are dietary risk factors least involved in its development? Cancer Obesity Diabetes Atherosclerosis

Which of the following cooking techniques for meats results in formation of the highest amounts of carcinogens? Broiling Roasting Marinating before cooking Wrapping the food in foil when cooking

Which of the following describes a relationship between sodium/salt and high blood pressure? People with chronic kidney disease are less likely to be salt-sensitive Lowering sodium intakes reduces blood pressure only in certain ethnic groups People over 30 years of age with hypertension are most likely to be salt-sensitive Weight loss is often as effective as sodium restriction in lowering blood pressure

What happens after absorption of carcinogens that are produced on meats from grilling over a direct flame? They are detoxified by the liver They act as initiators for breast cancer They act as promoters for prostate cancer They are subjected to enterohepatic circulation

A person with diabetes is most likely to develop AIDS. cancer. heart attacks. diverticulosis.

Type 2 diabetes usually develops after people reach the age of 21. 30. 40. 55.

Which of the following blood pressure readings first signifies a diagnosis of hypertension? 110 over 50 120 over 70 130 over 80 140 over 90

Which of the following risk factors for disease may be modified by diet? Age Gender Heredity Low HDL level

Which of the following is a characteristic of drug therapy for hypertension? Antihypertensive drugs work by lowering blood volume The most frequently prescribed drug therapies are DASH inhibitors Most people with hypertension need only one medicine to reduce blood pressure Major side effects of antihypertensive drugs are depletion of body sodium and phosphorus

Stefan was recently diagnosed with metabolic syndrome. He is very scared about this new diagnosis because no one in his family has ever had it and he hasn't ever heard of it. His primary care physician refers him to your office for some counseling on his modifiable risk factors. Which of the following topics will you most likely discuss with Stefan? What medications to take How to improve his atherogenic diet How to slow down his aging process How to map out his family tree, identifying all relatives with heart disease

What is the appropriate method of assessing blood lipids to ensure reliable results? Take at least 2 measurements at least 1 week apart Send the patient to 2 different laboratories and average the results Take a fasting and a non-fasting blood sample and average the results Perform a fat tolerance test by having the patient drink a beverage containing 25 g of vegetable oil and obtain blood samples over the next 4 hours

Calcium-channel blockers are drugs chiefly for the treatment of atherosclerosis. prostate cancer. type 2 diabetes. high blood pressure.

HIV is known to be transmitted by direct contact with contaminated body fluids from all of the following sources EXCEPT saliva. blood. semen. vaginal secretions.

Which of the following is NOT among the adverse effects of diabetes? Impaired vision Impaired circulation Increased resistance to infections Increased loss of water via the urine

What blood cholesterol carrier is of greatest concern in atherosclerosis? HDL LDL HDK VLDK

The obstruction of a blood vessel by a clot that broke away from arterial plaque is termed an anginism. an embolism. circulatory hypoxia. a de-plaquing event.

Among the following, which should be the first action taken to lower blood cholesterol? Begin drug treatment Consume a high-protein diet Consume large amounts of fish and fish oils Achieve and maintain appropriate body weight

A person who hasn't consumed anything except water for the past 8 hours has a blood glucose concentration of 101 mg/dL. This person would be classified as normal. diabetic. prediabetic. impaired glucose tolerant.

In the measurement of blood pressure, the units are expressed as cm of silver. cm of depth. mm of plaque. mm of mercury.

Which of the following dietary components is thought to be protective against certain types of cancer? Fiber Inositol and biotin Certain saturated fats Protein from animal sources

In the development of plaque, what is thought to be responsible for oxidation of LDL cholesterol during the inflammatory phase? Free radicals Beta-blockers P-reactive protein (PRP) Lipoprotein-associated phospholipase A

Which of the following is a leading cause of both blindness and kidney failure? Cancer Diabetes HIV/AIDS Atherosclerosis

What is the term given to the accumulation of lipid material mixed with smooth muscle cells and calcium that develops in the artery walls? Plaques Angina streaks Arterial thickening Pre-thromboemboli

Which of the following is a feature of the DASH diet? It works synergistically with reduction of sodium intake It was originally designed as therapy for atherosclerosis It is effective due to the high intakes of iron and vitamin B12 It includes an exercise component and a limitation on trans-fat intake