HRM chapter 4 – Flashcards
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60. Which of the following statements about perception is NOT accurate? a) Although important, perceptions have only a minor impact on the way people respond to various situations. b) Through perception, people process information inputs into responses involving feelings. c) Perception is a way of forming impressions about oneself, other people, and daily life experiences. d) Perceptions serve as a screen or filter through which information passes before it has an effect on people. e) Through perception, people process information inputs into responses involving action.
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a
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61. The factors that influence the perceptual process include characteristics regarding the __________. a) inputs, throughputs, and outputs b) information, facts, and data c) perceiver, setting, and perceived d) perceiver, intention, and consequence e) intention, meaning, and result
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c
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62. Which of the following sets of items relate to the perceiver as a factor influencing of the perceptual process? a) Physical, social, and organizational contexts b) Past experiences, needs or motives, personality, values, and attitudes c) Contrast, intensity, figure-ground separation, size, motion, and repetition/novelty d) Attitudes, physical characteristics, contrast, and size e) Values, organizational norms, motion, and repetition/novelty
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b
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63. The stages involved in processing the information that determines a person's perceptions and reactions include all of the following EXCEPT: a) information attention and selection. b) information organization. c) information interpretation. d) information sending. e) information retrieval.
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d
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64. Which of the following statements reflect the correct order of the stages of the perceptual process? a) Organization, attention/selection, retrieval, and interpretation. b) Attention/selection, interpretation, organization, and retrieval. c) Attention/selection, organization, interpretation, and retrieval. d) Interpretation, retrieval, organization, and attention/selection. e) Interpretation, attention/selection, retrieval, and organization.
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c
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65. Selective screening __________. a) lets in only a tiny proportion of all of the information available b) should only be used sparingly because it is rarely effective c) is typically used in the "information retrieval" step of information processing d) is typically used in the "information interpretation" step of information processing e) is typically used in the "information organization" step of information processing
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a
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66. William Walker works in a very busy and noisy environment. As a result, he frequently has to consciously decide what information to pay attention to and what information to ignore. Walker is using __________ as a mechanism for information attention and selection. a) judicious screening b) selective sorting c) controlled processing d) discriminate screening e) discerning processing
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c
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67. A(n) __________ contains information about a person's own appearance, behavior, and personality. a) script schema b) self schema c) domestic schema d) person-in-situation schema e) indigenous schema
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b
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68. __________ schemas refer to the way individuals sort others into categories (or stereotypes) in terms of similar perceived features. a) Ordered b) Person c) Self d) Person-in situation e) Indigenous
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b
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69. A __________ schema is used when an experienced manager thinks about the appropriate steps involved in facilitating a meeting. a) person-in-situation b) script c) person d) self e) prototype
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a
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70. Impression management is influenced by all of the following activities EXCEPT: a) associating with the "right people." b) doing favors to gain approval. c) flattering others to favorably impress them. d) taking credit for a favorable event. e) making new job assignments.
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e
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71. Which of the following is true regarding impression management in social networks? a) You should ask yourself, "How do I want to be viewed?" b) You should choose a respectable username. c) You should profile yourself only as you really would like to be known to others. d) You should post and participate in an online forum only in ways that meet your goals for your personal brand. e) All of the above are true
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e
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72. All of the following can cause distortion throughout the entire perceptual process EXCEPT: a) stereotypes. b) halo effects. c) selective perception. d) projection. e) equity effects.
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e
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73. Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to stereotypes? a) Stereotyping is a useful way of combining information in order to deal with information overload. b) Stereotypes can cause inaccuracies in retrieving information. c) Stereotypes sharpen individual differences between people. d) Stereotypes can prevent managers from getting to know people as individuals. e) Stereotypes can prevent managers from accurately assessing the needs, preferences, and abilities of employees.
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c
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74. The director of engineering at a local company was very impressed that Jerry, a production engineer, had not missed a single day of work in the past 12-month period. Based on this one item, the director of engineering rated Jerry very high on all dimensions of his performance appraisal. This error in the performance appraisal process is known as a__________. a) halo effect b) projection error c) contrast error d) leniency error e) statutory effect
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a
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75. Which of the following statements best defines selective perception? a) Selective perception is the assignment of personal attributes to other individuals. b) Selective perception occurs when an individual's characteristics are contrasted with those of others who have been recently encountered and who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics. c) Selective perception is the tendency to create or find in another situation or individual that which one expects to find. d) Selective perception occurs when one attribute of a person or situation is used to develop an overall impression of the person or situation. e) Selective perception is the tendency to single out those aspects of a situation, person, or object that are consistent with one's own needs, values, or attitudes.
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e
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76. The strongest impact of selective perception occurs in the __________ stage of the perceptual process. a) retrieval b) attention c) organization d) sorting e) interpretation
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b
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77. Adam is considered to be an excellent production manager. However, he tends to give attention only to those aspects of the organization that affect his production operation and to not notice the concerns of other departments. From a perceptual perspective, Adam is guilty of which perceptual distortion? a) Halo effect b) Statutory effect. c) Selective perception d) Discernment error e) Contrast error
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c
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78. When a mentally challenged candidate is overlooked by a recruiter even though he possesses skills that are perfect for the job, which perceptual distortion is likely to be experienced by the recruiter? a) Halo effect b) Selective perception c) Ability stereotypes d) Projection e) Self-fulfilling prophecy
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c
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79. Halo effects are particularly important in which managerial process? a) Recruitment b) Performance appraisals c) Selection d) Orientation e) Training
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b
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80. Which perceptual distortion occurs when an individual's characteristics are compared with those of others recently encountered who rank higher or lower on the same characteristic? a) Halo effect b) Selective perception c) Stereotypes d) Contrast effects e) Self-fulfilling prophecy
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d
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81. The label __________ Class is often used to describe hi-tech young professionals. They face lots of stress in struggles to balance work, family, and leisure. a) Balance b) Elsewhere c) Generation Y d) Multi-tasking e) 24/7
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b
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82. Which perceptual distortion is also known as the Pygmalion effect? a) Halo effect b) Selective perception c) Stereotypes d) Contrast effects e) Self-fulfilling prophecy
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e
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83. The perceptual distortion of projection can be controlled through a high degree of __________. a) emotional discernment b) self-awareness and empathy c) ethical behavior d) cognitive consistency e) communication
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b
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84. If you are a manager and have one extremely exceptional employee, you need to guard against __________ when evaluating the work of your other employees, because you may have the tendency to compare the characteristics of your other employees with those of the exceptional employee. a) contrast effects b) halo effects c) selective perception d) self-fulfilling prophecy e) project errors
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a
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85. Projection is especially likely to occur in the __________ stage of perception. a) attention b) organization c) interpretation d) selection e) retrieval
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c
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86. Which of the following statements best describes the self-fulfilling prophecy? a) It occurs when an individual's characteristics are compared with those of others who have been recently encountered and who rank higher or lower on the same characteristics. b) It is the assignment of personal attributes to other individuals. c) It occurs when one attribute of a person or situation is used to develop an overall impression of the person or situation. d) It is the tendency to create or find in another situation or individual that which one expects to find. e) It is the tendency to single out for attention those aspects of a situation or person that are consistent with one's own needs, values, or attitudes.
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d
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87. Which of the following statements does NOT accurately describe the self-fulfilling prophecy? a) The self-fulfilling prophecy can cause a person to perceive what he/she expected to find in the first place. b) The self-fulfilling prophecy can have negative results. c) The self-fulfilling prophecy can have positive results. d) The effects of the self-fulfilling prophecy argue strongly for managers to adopt positive and optimistic approaches to people at work. e) The effects of the self-fulfilling prophecy argue strongly for managers to adopt negative and pessimistic approaches to people at work.
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e
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88. What percentage of workers surveyed for Deloitte & Touche USA said that the behavior of their managers was a major influence on an ethical workplace? a) 12% b) 22% c) 42% d) 62% e) 72%
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c
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89. The application of attribution theory is particularly concerned with whether one's behavior has been __________. a) voluntary or coerced b) internally or externally caused c) proactive or reactive in nature d) positive or negative e) restrained or forward
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b
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90. According to attribution theory, three factors influence whether internal or external attributions are made. These three factors are __________. a) distinctiveness, consensus, and consistency b) individuality, consent, and harmony c) disposition, concurrence, and cohesion d) distinctiveness, accord, and congruity e) individuality, accord, and cohesion
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a
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91. According to attribution theory, which types of causes are operating to the detriment of obese workers? a) Fundamental attribution errors b) Internal causes c) External causes d) Self-serving biases e) Projection
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b
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92. If everyone using the same equipment performs poorly, the tendency is to attribute any one person's poor performance to __________ causes; but if other people using the equipment perform well while one person performs poorly, the tendency is to attribute that individual's poor performance to __________ causes. a) external; internal b) internal; external c) external; external d) outside; inside e) inside; outside
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a
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93. If a person performs poorly in many different situations, the tendency is to attribute the person's poor performance to __________ causes; but if the person performs poorly only occasionally, the tendency is to attribute the person's poor performance to __________ causes. a) external; internal b) internal; external c) external; external d) outside; inside e) inside; outside
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b
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94. The __________ is the tendency to deny personal responsibility for performance problems but to accept personal responsibility for performance success. a) fundamental attribution error b) central attribution error c) indigenous bias d) inward attribution error e) self-serving bias
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e
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95. In assessing the causes of other people's behavior, we tend to __________ their internal personal factors and to __________ the external factors. However, in assessing the causes of our own behavior, we tend to attribute our own success to __________ and our failure to __________. a) overemphasize; underemphasize; external factors; our own internal factors b) underemphasize; overemphasize; external factors; our own internal factors c) overemphasize; overemphasize; external factors; our own internal factors d) underemphasize; overemphasize; our own internal factors; external factors e) overemphasize; underemphasize; our own internal factors; external factors
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e
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96. Social learning theory emphasizes __________. a) operant conditioning b) objective consequences c) the existence of observational learning d) the lack of reciprocal interactions among people e) the unimportance of environment
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c
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97. A person's belief that he or she can perform adequately in a situation is known as __________. a) self-efficacy b) social learning c) OB modification. d) the self-serving bias e) the self-fulfilling prophesy
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a
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98. All of the following are proposed as ways of building or enhancing self-efficacy EXCEPT: a) gaining confidence through positive experience. b) gaining confidence by observing others. c) gaining confidence from hearing others praise our efforts. d) gaining confidence when we are highly energized to perform well in a situation. e) gaining confidence by giving criticism to those not performing well.
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e
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99. Of the following ways of building self-efficacy, which refers to gaining confidence when we are highly stimulated or energized to perform well? a) Enactive mastery b) Vicarious modeling c) Verbal persuasion d) Emotional arousal e) None of the above
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d
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100. Sir Richard Branson, founder of Virgin Group, is known for his use of which reinforcement strategy? a) Negative b) Positive c) Avoidance d) Punishment e) Extinction
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b
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101. __________ is the administration of a consequence as a result of behavior. a) Motivation b) Fortification c) Reinforcement d) Augmentation e) Mentoring
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c
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102. Managing __________ properly can change the direction, level, and persistence of an individual's behavior. a) values b) reinforcement c) norms d) augmentation e) mentoring
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b
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103. __________ conditioning is a form of learning through association that involves the manipulation of stimuli to influence behavior. a) Extrinsic b) Operant c) Cognitive d) Intrinsic e) Classical
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e
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104. Which of the following statements is correct concerning conditioning? a) Classical conditioning is an extension of operant conditioning. b) In operant conditioning, dogs "learned" to salivate at the ringing of a bell. c) Control in operant conditioning is through the manipulation of consequences. d) Operant conditioning was popularized by Ivan Pavlov. e) In classical conditioning, the antecedent cues behavior.
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a
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105. The law of __________ states that behavior that results in a pleasant outcome is likely to be repeated while behavior that results in an unpleasant outcome is not likely to be repeated. a) motivational content b) effect c) reaction d) outcome management e) motivational process
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b
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106. Contrived extrinsic rewards include all of the following EXCEPT: a) cash bonuses. b) sports tickets. c) office parties. d) feedback. e) promotions.
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d
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107. Natural extrinsic rewards include all of the following EXCEPT: a) compliments. b) special jobs. c) merit pay increases. d) recognition. e) asking advice.
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c
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108. Contrived extrinsic rewards include all of the following EXCEPT: a) gifts. b) stock options. c) a company car. d) profit sharing. e) smiles.
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e
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109. The systematic reinforcement of desirable work behavior and the non-reinforcement or punishment of unwanted work behavior is known as organizational behavior __________. a) modification b) simplification c) alignment d transformation e) alteration
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a
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110. A manager nodding to express approval to a subordinate who is making a useful comment during a staff meeting is an example of __________. a) equity exchange b) expectancy development c) positive reinforcement d) progression e) executive conditioning
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c
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111. According to the law of contingent reinforcement, to have maximum reinforcement value, a reward must be delivered only __________. a) by an employee's superior b) if it is coupled with public recognition c) if the employee receiving the reward is in the presence of other coworkers d) if it has a monetary value e) if the desired behavior is exhibited
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e
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112. If your manager understands that your reward must be given as soon as possible after the occurrence of a desired behavior, he/she is aware of the law of ___________. a) immediate reinforcement b) temporal reinforcement c) permanent reinforcement d) "value added" reinforcement e) credible reinforcement
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a
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113. The creation of a new behavior by the positive reinforcement of successive approximations to the desired behavior is called __________. a) imitation b) portrayal c) modeling d) shaping e) representation
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d
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114. Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about reinforcement schedules? a) Fixed reinforcement schedules typically result in more consistent patterns of desired behavior than do variable schedules. b) Fixed interval schedules provide rewards at the first appearance of a behavior after a given time has elapsed. c) Fixed ratio schedules result in a reward each time a certain number of the behaviors have occurred. d) A variable interval schedule rewards behavior at random times. e) A variable ratio schedule rewards behavior after a random number of occurrences.
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a
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115. A teacher who gives an unspecified number of pop quizzes to students is using a __________. a) fixed interval schedule b) fixed ratio schedule c) variable interval schedule d) variable ration schedule e) continuous reinforcement schedule.
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c
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116. __________ is the withdrawal of negative consequences, which tends to increase the likelihood of repeating the desirable behavior in similar settings. a) Positive reinforcement b) Extinction c) Negative reinforcement d) Punishment e) Parallel reinforcement
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c
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117. Suppose you assign the least desirable tasks to a worker until he performs well and only then assign him the desired assignments he wants. This OB Mod strategy is known as __________. a) positive reinforcement b) extinction c) punishment d) negative reinforcement e) parallel reinforcement
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d
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118. __________ is the administration of negative consequences or the withdrawal of positive consequences that tend to reduce the likelihood of repeating the behavior in similar settings. a) Punishment b) Negative reinforcement c) Extinction d) Positive reinforcement e) Parallel reinforcement
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a
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119. If a manager docks an employee's pay every time he or she is late, the OB Mod reinforcement strategy of __________ is being used. a) extinction b) statutory reinforcement c) positive reinforcement d) punishment e) negative reinforcement
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d
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120. Of the following, which is (are) a way(s) for managers to improve the chances that punishment will discourage negative behavior in employees? a) Tell the employee what is being done wrong. b) Tell the employee what is being done right. c) Make sure the punishment matches the behavior. d) Administer the punishment in private. e) All of the above.
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e
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121. Which one of the following is NOT one of the ethical issues raised by either the opponents or proponents of OB Mod? a) The systematic use of reinforcement strategies leads to a demeaning and dehumanizing view of people that stunts human growth and development. b) Managers abuse the power of their position and knowledge by exerting external control over individual behavior. c) Behavior control is an irrevocable part of every manager's job. d) The use of OB Mod fails to recognize the impact of cultural differences.
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d
