Geri Patho Final – Flashcards
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Chapter 20
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neoplasm and cancer
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1. What is a benign neoplasm originating from adipose tissue called? a. Adenoma b. Lipoma c. Fibrosarcoma d. Adenocarcinoma
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b
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2. What are malignant neoplasms arising from connective tissue cells called? a. Carcinomas b. Sarcomas c. Melanomas d. Fibromas
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b
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3. Which of the following is a characteristic of a benign tumor? a. It is unencapsulated and invasive. b. It consists of undifferentiated cells. c. It exerts systemic effects. d. Cells appear relatively normal.
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d
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4. Which factor provides the basis for the grading of newly diagnosed malignant tumors? a. Size of the tumor b. Number of metastases c. Degree of differentiation of the cells d. Number of lymph nodes involved
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c
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5. A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT: a. persistent, unusual bleeding. b. a change in bowel habits. c. sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea. d. a change in shape, color, or surface of a skin lesion.
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c
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6. The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include: 1. obstruction of a tube or duct. 2. anemia and weight loss. 3. cell necrosis and ulceration. 4. tumor markers in the circulation. a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. 2, 4 d. 3, 4
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b
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7. Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to? a. The effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells b. Severe weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer c. The decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors d. The effects of multiple metastatic tumors
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a
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8. Which term refers to the spread of malignant cells through blood and lymph to distant sites? a. Invasiveness b. Seeding c. Metastasis d. Systemic effect
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c
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9. One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to: a. identify the original cell from which the tumor developed. b. locate and identify the primary tumor. c. decide the initiating factor for a particular tumor. d. determine the best treatment and prognosis.
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d
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10. The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with: a. exposure to promoters causing dysplasia. b. development of defective genes. c. an irreversible change in the cell DNA. d. a single exposure to a known risk factor causing temporary cell damage.
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c
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11. What would be an external source of ionizing radiation? a. A needle containing a radioisotope implanted beside the tumor b. Gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine c. A dose of a radioactive drug to be ingested d. A fluid containing radioactive material instilled in a body cavity
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b
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12. Radiation therapy destroys: a. all cells in the tumor at one time. b. the cells in the center of the tumor. c. primarily rapidly dividing cells. d. radioresistant cells.
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c
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13. The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy and radiation therapy are: a. thrombocytopenia and leucopenia. b. headache and lethargy. c. nausea and constipation. d. alopecia and weight loss.
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a
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14. Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to: 1. reduce the adverse effects. 2. guarantee that all cancer cells are destroyed. 3. be effective in more phases of the cell cycle. 4. totally block the mitotic stage. a. 1, 3 b. 1, 4 c. 2, 3 d. 3, 4
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a
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15. Why does ovarian cancer have a poor prognosis? a. The ovaries are inaccessible for examination. b. Specific signs rarely appear until after secondary tumors have developed. c. The same tumor markers are present with many types of cancer. d. No effective treatment is available.
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b
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16. Select the correct pair representing a malignant tumor and its marker: a. colon cancer: carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) b. hepatic cancer: CA125, AFP c. prostate cancer: human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) d. testicular cancer: Philadelphia chromosome
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a
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17. Antiangiogenesis drugs act on a malignant tumor by: a. promoting the immune response and removal of abnormal tumor cells. b. blocking hormonal stimulation of tumor cells. c. reducing blood flow and nutrient supply to tumor cells. d. transporting radioisotopes into the tumor.
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c
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18. The development of neutropenia during chemotherapy for cancer means: a. the cancer cells are being destroyed quickly. b. the patient is likely to hemorrhage. c. higher doses of chemotherapy could be tolerated by this patient. d. the patient is at high risk for infection.
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d
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19. Malignant brain tumors: a. metastasize quickly to all parts of the body. b. spread first to lungs and bone. c. spread to other parts of CNS. d. do not metastasize anywhere at any time.
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c
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20. Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy: a. Alopecia b. Bone marrow depression c. Nausea and vomiting d. Weight loss
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b
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21. Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy and radiation because: a. glucocorticoids greatly potentiate the effect of chemotherapy. b. the immune system is stimulated. c. skeletal muscle atrophy will be decreased. d. inflammation around the tumor may be reduced.
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d
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22. Vomiting frequently follows a chemotherapy treatment because: a. the gastrointestinal tract is irritated. b. the chemicals stimulate the emetic center. c. the drugs have an unpleasant odor. d. A and B
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d
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23. What type of normal cells are often damaged during chemotherapy and radiation treatments? a. Epithelial cells b. Skeletal muscle cells c. Nerve tissue d. Collagen and fibrous tissue
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a
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24. Remission for cancer is generally defined as a period in which: a. chemotherapy cannot be used. b. signs and symptoms are absent. c. complications are evident. d. metastases occur.
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b
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25. All of the following are correct statements about skin cancers EXCEPT: a. They are difficult to diagnose and treat. b. They usually develop slowly on the head, neck, or back of individuals with fair skin. c. The number of skin cancer cases is increasing. d. Basal cell carcinoma is the most common form of skin cancer.
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a
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26. High risk factors for cancer include: 1. human papilloma virus. 2. chronic irritation and inflammation. 3. repeated sun exposure. 4. high family incidence. a. 1, 3 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4
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d
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27. The term apoptosis refers to: a. programmed cell death. b. abnormal or immature cells. c. degree of differentiation of cells. d. the development of new capillaries in a tumor.
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a
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28. The warning signs for cancer include: a. unusual bleeding. b. change in a wart or mole (e.g., color). c. a new solid lump, often painless. d. All the above
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d
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29. A classification process that applies to a specific malignant tumor and describes the extent of the disease at a given time is called: a. seeding. b. mutation. c. staging. d. grading.
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c
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30. Benign tumors can often be differentiated from malignant tumors because benign tumors: a. often have systemic effects. b. contain cells showing increased mitosis and atypical rapid growth. c. are encapsulated and slow-growing. d. can metastasize or invade nearby tissue.
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c
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31. Benign tumors in the brain are often life-threatening because they: a. metastasize early in their development. b. create excessive pressure within the skull. c. cannot be removed. d. cause serious systemic effects.
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b
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32. Drugs or agents that augment the natural immune response in the body to improve identification and removal of abnormal cells are called: a. biological response modifiers. b. angiogenesis stimulators. c. analgesic complements. d. targeted receptor modifiers.
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a
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33. The method that can be used as an alternative to surgical removal of a tumor by using heat generated by a needle inserted into the tumor is referred to as: a. radiation therapy. b. thermolysis intervention. c. brachytherapy. d. radiofrequency ablation.
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d
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34. Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors? a. Size of the tumor, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases b. Location of tumor, size, type of cellular abnormality c. Size, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue d. Type of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumors, location/tissue affected
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a
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35. One of the general effects of a malignant cancer is cachexia, which is: a. severe bleeding. b. severe tissue wasting. c. severe fatigue. d. multiple opportunistic infections.
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b
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Chapter 19
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Breast and Prostate Cancer
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5. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis? a. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain b. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria c. Hesitancy and increased urinary output d. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia
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ANS: B REF: 520
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6. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy? a. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time. b. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm. c. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency. d. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops.
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c
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7. Why does frequent need for urination occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy? a. Increased volume of dilute urine b. Irritation of the bladder and urethra c. Impaired micturition reflex d. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
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ANS: D REF: 521
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8. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer? a. Bone b. Lungs c. Liver d. Testes
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a
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9. What is a useful serum marker during treatment for prostatic cancer? a. Human chorionic gonadotropin b. Alpha-fetoprotein c. Prostate-specific antigen d. Luteinizing hormone
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c
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15. Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease? a. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue b. Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy c. Benign tumors that develop after menopause d. Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal changes
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a
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16. Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast? a. It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule. b. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane. c. Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development. d. The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.
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b
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26. Which of the following is the most common cause of acute bacterial prostatitis? a. N. gonorrhoeae b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. S. aureus d. E. coli
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d
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27. The most common solid tumor found in young men is: a. prostatic cancer. b. testicular cancer. c. bladder cancer. d. penile cancer.
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b
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28. A hard nodule in the peripheral area of the prostate gland is typical of: a. prostatic cancer. b. benign prostatic hypertrophy. c. acute prostatitis. d. chronic prostatitis.
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a
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29. How do testicular tumors usually present? a. Soft, tender mass b. Multiple firm nodules c. Hard, painless unilateral mass d. Small, fluid-filled cyst
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c
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32. Testicular cancer usually spreads first to the: a. lungs. b. bone. c. pelvic lymph nodes. d. brain.
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c
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37. Adjuvant chemotherapy and radiation may be used in cases of breast cancer in order to: a. slow the growth of the primary tumor. b. destroy any micrometastases. c. prevent the removal of any lymph nodes. d. reduce the need for a mastectomy.
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b
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39. Specific genetic links have been shown for: 1. cervical cancer. 2. testicular cancer. 3. breast cancer. 4. prostatic cancer. a. 1, 2 b. 3, 4 c. 1, 3, 4 d. 2, 3, 4
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d
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41. Adenocarcinomas make up the most common cancers found in the: a. prostate. b. testes. c. ovary. d. cervix.
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a
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Chapter 15
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sensation eye and ear
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1. What do the extrinsic muscles of the eye control? a. Movement of the eyeball b. Movement of the eyelid c. Size of the pupil d. Shape of the lens
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a
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2. What must happen for the pupil of the eye to dilate? a. The circular muscle of the iris must contract. b. Cranial nerve III must be activated. c. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system is required. d. The optic nerve must be stimulated.
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c
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3. Which of the following is caused by an irregular curvature of the cornea or lens? a. Nystagmus b. Astigmatism c. Hyperopia d. Strabismus
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b
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5. Which statement does NOT apply to chronic glaucoma? a. Degeneration and obstruction of the trabecular network b. Gradual increase in intraocular pressure c. Abnormally narrow angle between the cornea and iris d. Damage to the retina and optic nerve
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c
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6. Which disorder is manifested by loss of peripheral vision? a. Retinal detachment b. Chronic (wide-angle) glaucoma c. Cataract d. Macular degeneration
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b
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7. Which of the following involves a gradual clouding of the lens of the eye? a. Glaucoma b. Cataract c. Macular degeneration d. Keratitis
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b
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8. Which of the following is a likely consequence of an untreated detached retina? a. Lack of nutrients causing death of retinal cells b. Edema of the cornea causing blurred vision c. Cupping of the optic disc with damage to the optic nerve d. Damage to the fovea centralis
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a
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9. Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina? a. Painless blurring of vision b. Eye pain, halos around lights, and nausea c. Progressive loss of central vision d. No pain, development of a dark area in the visual field
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d
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10. What is the basic pathological change with macular degeneration? a. Increased amount of aqueous humor in the eye b. Movement of vitreous humor between the retina and the choroid c. Degeneration of the retinal cells in the fovea centralis d. Damage to the optic nerve and meninges
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c
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11. What does the inner ear contain? a. Malleus, incus, and stapes b. Organ of Corti and semicircular canals c. Tympanic membrane and auditory canal d. Ossicles and oval window
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b
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12. Which of the following is an example of conduction deafness? a. Damage to the organ of Corti b. Degeneration of cranial nerve VIII c. Adhesions reducing the movement of the ossicles d. Trauma affecting the temporal lobe
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c
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16. Which is the early effect of age-related macular degeneration? a. Loss of central visual acuity b. Intermittent pain and blurred vision c. Loss of peripheral vision d. Loss of night vision and color perception
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a
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17. Which of the following is often the first sign of ototoxicity from drugs or chemicals? a. Sudden total loss of hearing b. Tinnitus c. Severe pain in ear d. Fluid exudate draining from ear
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b
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19. Loss of the left visual field results from damage to the: a. left optic nerve. b. right optic nerve. c. left occipital lobe. d. right occipital lobe.
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d
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20. The involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is referred to as: a. strabismus. b. nystagmus. c. presbyopia. d. diplopia.
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b
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22. Which fluid is found surrounding the optic disc? a. Aqueous humor b. Vitreous humor c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Tears
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c
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23. The area providing the greatest visual acuity is the: a. Macula lutea b. Fovea centralis c. Optic disc d. Lens
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b
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24. Narrow-angle glaucoma develops when the angle is decreased between the: a. retina and ciliary process. b. lens and ciliary body. c. iris and cornea. d. iris and lens.
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c
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25. The lens and cornea are nourished by: a. small capillaries. b. tears. c. vitreous humor. d. aqueous humor.
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d
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26. Which term refers to near-sightedness? a. Hyperopia b. Presbyopia c. Myopia d. Diplopia
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c
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27. Severe pain develops with narrow-angle glaucoma when the: a. pupils are constricted. b. pupils are dilated. c. lens changes shape. d. excess vitreous humor forms.
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b
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29. Trachoma is indicated by the presence of: a. purulent exudate and red sclerae. b. corneal abrasions by the infected eyelids. c. diplopia and cloudy lens. d. ptosis and fixed dilation of the pupil.
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b
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30. Which of the statements apply to infection of the eye by Staphylococcus aureus? 1. It involves the conjunctiva. 2. It is highly contagious. 3. It is commonly known as "pinkeye." 4. It usually causes keratitis and permanent visual loss. a. 1, 3 b. 2, 3 c. 2, 4 d. 1, 2, 3
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d
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31. Herpes simplex virus is a common cause of: a. conjunctivitis. b. corneal ulceration and scarring. c. eye infection in the neonate. d. total blindness.
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b
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32. Sensory receptors that provide information about body movement, orientation, or muscle stretch are referred to as: a. visceroceptors. b. exteroceptors. c. mechanoceptors. d. proprioceptors.
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d
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Test 1 Questions
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Answers
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• Not an age related response
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o hypertrophy
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not depressed
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extended family
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R CHF acute
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call 911
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cause of L CHF
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?
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angina relieved by
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nitroglycerin and rest
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MI signs
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radiate left arm
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athrosclerosis
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in legs
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L compared to R CHF
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?
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Orthopinea
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?
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hemophthysis
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?
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1st sign of emphazyma
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?
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during acute asthma attack how does obstruct occur
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?
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destruction of alveolar walls
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?
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typical chronic bronchitis
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?
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pre contemplatice
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contemplatice etc.
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what does not cause depression
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church activities
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depression example
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masked
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depression major or minor
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?
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3X more than younger /85 years
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?
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not symptom of anti depressants
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slurred speech
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t or f depression is sudden
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t
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MI patho
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?
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angina or precipitate factor
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?
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partial obstruct
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angina
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medicare A
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1260
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medicare A continuum
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hospice SNF
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coronary artery bypass
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?
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dysarythmium
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fat/connective tissue?
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mitral valve stenosis back up in
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?
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emphazime vs bronchitis
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lung changes?
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lobar
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rusty sudden onset
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bronco
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green sputum
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prolapse
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t or f
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systolic period of
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?
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not sign of MI
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confusion
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not pulmonary sign
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morning headache
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not age related pulmonary
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muscle atrophy, chest wall rigid, loss of recall
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extrinsic asthma
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?
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hyperinflaiton
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?
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hypoxia with asthma
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?
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ischemia definition
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?
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dyspnea/proximal dyspnea
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not mitrovalve prolapse
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Test 2 Questions
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Answers
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remember what you had for breakfast
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episodic memory
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boutineer deformity
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?
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mallot finger
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?
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swan neck
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?
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dysexecutive syndrome
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?
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bone density
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alcohol doesn't affect it
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subacute: skilled therapy yes or no
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not skilled therapy
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white versus Hispanic for bone growth
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Hispanic heritage has nothing to do with it
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cartilage becomes fatty?
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yes cartilage does become fatty
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walking versus getting out of bed
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walking doesn't fit with it
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osteo intervention
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?
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ankyloses develops because of
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select all
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large metal cap snap fit
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bipolar hemi
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meta processes
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executive function and self-awareness
