Economics Final Test Questions – Flashcards

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economics is most importantly concerned with?
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studying how we allocate scarce resources to satisfy unlimited wants
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economic choices or tradeoffs are the result of?
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scarcity
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economics is concerned with
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all of the answers are correct
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economic resources are also known as?
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factors of production
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which of the following is not an example of a resource?
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all of the answers are resources
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human capital is?
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the expertise or knowledge possessed by workers
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which of the following is true?
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poverty could be eliminated but scarcity could not
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which of the following is true of resources?
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they are the inputs used to produce goods and services
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an example of a capital resource is?
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a dump truck
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entrepreneurship is
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the resource that organizes the other factors of production in order to produce goods and or services
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which of the following is an example of an individual motivated be self-interest?
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all answers are correct
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economists believe that individuals act as if they are motivated by self-interest and..
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respond in predictable ways to changing circumstances
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from an economists perspective which of the following observations is not true
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self-interest is purely monetary in nature
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when economists refer to economic behavior, they mean that?
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rational people try to anticipate the likely consequences of their actions
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what according to an economist, forms the basis of rational human behavior under current and anticipated circumstances
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values and information
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"as a rational person, you would expect individuals to always avoid actions that are illegal"
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This is a false statement because it is expected that individuals will consider the consequences of their actions and that some will choose to commit illegal acts anyway.
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when economists speak of markets, they primarily mean
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mechanisms that coordinate actions of buyers and sellers.
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which of the following serve as the language of the market system
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Market prices
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which of the following is an example of a market failure
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all the examples are market failures
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market failure occurs when
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the economy fails to allocate resources efficiently on its own
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a hypothesis is
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a testable proposition
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a theory can best be defined as
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a deliberate simplification of factual relationships that attempts to explain and predict how those relationships work
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the importance of the ceteris paribus assumption is that it
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allows one to analyze the relationship between two variables apart from the influences of other variables
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economics is different from a "hard" science like physics because
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economists cannot easily control all the variables that might influence human behavior
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macroeconomis topics do not usually include
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the profit maximizing decisions of an individual manufacturer
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which of the following lies primarily within the realm of microeconomics
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a study of supply and demand conditions in the market for orange juice
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which of the following best illustrates the fallacy of composition
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if ms. spann had more money, she could buy more scarce goods; if the nation had more money,everyone could buy more scarce goods
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which of the following is a statement of positive economics
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the income tax reduces after-tax incomes of the rich
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Suppose there are two members of the U.S. Congress who were once economics professors. Why is it important to be able to distinguish their positive from their normative statements about economic policy?
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Their positive statements help us understand the economy's response to a particular policy, while their normative statements reflect their value judgments.
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Which of the following is not an example of the use of the problem solving perspective provided by economics?
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The Fogelberg family takes its vacation at Lake Arrowhead this year simply because they have done so for as long as anyone can remember.
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because of scarcity
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we must sacrifice valuable alternatives to obtain more goods and services we desire
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Trent decides to spend an hour playing basketball rather than studying. His opportunity cost is:
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the benefit to his grades from studying for an hour.
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the opportunity cost of an item is
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the highest valued alternative you give up to get that item
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the opportunity cost of going to college includes
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both tuition and the value of the students time
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opportunity cost includes
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both monetary and non-monetary costs
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economists believe that in regards to criminal behavior
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those choosing to commit criminal acts weigh the expected marginal benefits rather than the expected marginal costs
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Despite the warning on a package of cigarettes about the potential health hazards of smoking, a man lights up a cigarette. An economist would conclude that:
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in the man's judgment, the expected marginal benefit of smoking the cigarette outweighs the expected marginal cost.
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which of the following best defines rational behavior
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undertaking activities whenever the marginal benefit exceeds the marginal cost
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if people are self-interested
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as their preferences for leisure time increases, they are likely to work less. as the wages they are offered increases, they are likely to work more
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Pollution damages the environment we live in. An economist would advise that we reduce air pollution:
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as long as the marginal benefit from air pollution reduction outweighs the marginal cost of achieving the reduction.
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specialization is a way for
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individuals to make the best use of resources by devoting themselves to one primary productive activity
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Resources are used more efficiently if people, regions, and countries specialize in goods for which they have a(n)
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comparative advantage in production.
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Sergei makes millions of dollars a year playing hockey. Sergei is also the best tailor in his hometown in Russia. Why doesn't Sergei make his own clothes?
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The opportunity cost to him of making his own clothes is very high because it takes away from his lucrative hockey career.
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A nation has a comparative advantage in the production of cars over another nation if:
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it can produce cars at a lower opportunity cost than the other country.
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Mike is able to complete a tax return in two hours earning a fee of $100. As an alternative, he could pitch in at a volunteer car wash washing four cars in one hour. His roommate Joe would take four hours to complete a tax return earning a $100 fee and also can wash four cars in one hour. Both individuals could benefit if
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Mike worked on tax returns for eight hours and paid Joe $10 for each car he washed.
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Which of the following is true?
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A. People specialize by concentrating their energies on the activity to which they are best suited, because they incur lower opportunity costs as a result. B. The primary reason people pursue their comparative advantage is their self-interest. C. One advantage of specialization is that workers acquire greater skill from repetition. D. If a person, a region, or a country can produce a good or service at a lower opportunity cost than others, we say that they have a comparative advantage in the production of that good or service. E. All of the above are true.
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Which of the following is true?
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A. Voluntary trades give both parties more in value than what they give up. B. Without the ability to trade, people would not tend to specialize in those areas where they had a comparative advantage. C. People can gain by specializing in the production of the good in which they have a comparative advantage. D. Voluntary trade directly increases wealth by making both parties better off, and it is the prospect of wealth-increasing exchange that leads to productive specialization. E. All of the above are true.
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Which of the following is not true?
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What one trader gains from a trade, the other must lose.
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advantages of specialization do not include
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reduced interdependence
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Tom is a castaway who washes up on a remote island. He can kill eight birds per hour or catch ten fish per day. The natives on the island can kill ten birds per day or catch twenty fish per day. According to comparative advantage,
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tom should kill more birds and fish less, then trade birds for fish
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which of the following is true of a competitive market
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buyer and sellers have little market power
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the law of demand refers to
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inverse relationship between the price of a good and the quantity demanded
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in economics, the demand for a good refers to the amount of the good people
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will buy at various prices
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the demand schedule for a good
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indicates the quantities that will be purchased at alternative market prices
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the price of music downloads decreases, which of the following is most likely to happen
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quantity demanded will increase
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if the price of tennis rackets were to increase, we would expect
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the demand for tennis balls to decrease
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which of the following is most likely to be an inferior good
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used clothing
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a decrease in consumer incomes will
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A. decrease the demand for an inferior good. B. decrease the supply of an inferior good. C. increase the demand for a normal good. D. increase the supply of a normal good. E. do none of the above.
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Whenever the price of Good A decreases, the demand for Good B increases. Good A and B appear to be:
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complements
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A change in which of the following variables does not cause a change in demand?
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prices of unrelated goods
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the supply curve shows
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how the quantity produced varies with price
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an upward sloping supply curve shows that
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suppliers are willing to increase production of their goods if they receive higher prices for them
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a supply schedule shows
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how many units producers are willing and able to sell at various prices
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each point on the supply curve shows
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quantity supplied at that price
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the market supply schedule reflects the total quantity
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supplied at each price by all of the producers
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which of the following would NOT cause a change in the supply of milk?
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an increase in the price of milk
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to an economists, a decrease in supply means a
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A. rightward shift of the supply curve. B. movement up along a supply curve. C. downward shift of the supply curve. D. movement down along the supply curve. E. none of the above
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The difference between a change in quantity supplied and a change in supply is that a change in:
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quantity supplied is caused by a change in a good's own, current price, while a change in supply is caused by a change in some other variable, such as input prices, prices of related goods, expectations, or taxes.
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Which of the following would be most likely to cause a reduction in the supply of Nintendo video games?
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an increase in the price of computer chips used to make Nintendo games
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Which of the following would not shift the supply curve for swordfish?
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an increase in the price of swordfish
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If there is a surplus, ____ will be frustrated by their inability to exchange at the current price, and they will compete the prices ____ as a result.
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sellers; down.
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Ceteris paribus, if the vacancy rate in an apartment complex increased from 5% to 20% over the past two years, we would expect to see
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the price decrease leading to an increase in quantity demanded.
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Which of the following is the correct way to describe equilibrium in a market?
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At equilibrium, quantity demanded equals quantity supplied.
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At the equilibrium price for gasoline:
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both a. and d. are correct.
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When there is an excess quantity supplied of a product at the current price, then:
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both c. and d. will occur.
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Interpret the following statement: "Demand exceeds the available quantity of apartment housing. If the price of apartment rentals were increased, demand would decrease and an equilibrium could be achieved."
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The statement is incorrect because it confuses "demand" with "quantity demanded."
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When there is an excess quantity demanded of a product at the current price, then:
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the price will tend to rise.
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Which of the following would increase the quantity of LCD TVs demanded but would not increase the demand for LCD TVs?
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a decrease in the current price of LCD TVs
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Assume that coffee and tea are substitutes for each other. If weather conditions cause a substantial portion of the available coffee crop to be destroyed, then most probably:
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the demand for tea will increase.
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A shortage currently exists in the market for strawberries. Which of the following statements is correct?
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The quantity of strawberries demanded exceeds the quantity supplied and the market price is below the equilibrium price.
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price elasticity of demand is defines as
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the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price
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Demand is said to be ____ when the quantity demanded is very responsive to changes in price.
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elastic
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A steel mill raises the price of steel by 7%, which results in a 20% reduction in the quantity of steel demanded. The demand curve facing this firm is:
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elastic
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Fantastic Cuts Hair Salon knows that a 15% increase in the price of their haircuts will result in a 5% decrease in the number of haircuts sold. What is the elasticity of demand facing Fantastic Cuts?
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0.33
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Which of the following is false?
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A. The price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price. B. The price elasticity of demand is defined as the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price. C. If demand is elastic, it means the quantity demanded changes by a relatively larger amount than the price change. D. If demand is inelastic, it means the quantity demanded changes by a relatively smaller amount than the price change. E. All of the above are true
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If the price elasticity of demand was 4.0 (in absolute terms), a 10% off sale would lead to:
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a 40% increase in purchases by customers.
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The Shoe Emporium reduces the price of its shoes by 50% and finds that the quantity demanded for its shoes more than doubles. The demand for shoes from The Shoe Emporium appears to be:
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. elastic.
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If the demand is perfectly inelastic, what would happen to the quantity demanded if there is a tiny increase in price?
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quantity demanded will remain the same
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which of the following would most likely feature elastic demand
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fresh green beans
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Elasticity of demand will ____ as the availability of substitutes ____.
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Both c. and d. are correct answers.
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If the elasticity of demand for bangles is equal to 1, moving along the demand curve for bangles, an increase in price will:
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increase the quantity demanded and leave total revenue unchanged.
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A price cut will increase the total revenue a firm receives if the demand for its product is:
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elastic
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The Book Nook reduces prices by 20%. If the dollar value of The Book Nook's sales remain constant, it indicates that:
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the quantity of books sold increases by 20%
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A 10% decrease in the price of energy bars leads to a 20% increase in the quantity of energy bars demanded. It appears that:
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demand is elastic and total revenue will increase
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If the elasticity of supply of a good was 2, how much would the price have to increase to lead to an increase in output of 6 percent?
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3%
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If the elasticity of supply of bangles is equal to 1, moving along the supply curve for bangles, an increase in price will:
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increases the quantity supplied and increases total revenue
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The elasticity of supply is defined as the ____ change in quantity supplied divided by the ____ change in price.
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percentage, percentage
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if the supply curve for a product is vertical, then the elasticity of supply is
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equal to zero
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a perfectly elastic supply curve is
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horizontal
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the longer the time period considered, the elasticity of supply tends to
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increase
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a surplus will result whenever the
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government imposes a price floor above the equilibrium price
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Assume a price floor is imposed at the current equilibrium price in the market for lettuce. If the demand for lettuce then increases:
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the quantity of lettuce supplied will increase
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the imposition of a price ceiling on a market often results in
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a shortage
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Which of the below is true?
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Both price floors and price ceilings generally reduce the quantity exchanged in the market.
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Which of the following is an example of an unintended consequence?
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a price ceiling on gasoline that causes a gas shortage
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If the demand for apples is highly elastic and the supply is highly inelastic, then if a tax is imposed on apples it will be paid:
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largely by the sellers of apples
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Consumer surplus is:
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the difference between what consumers are willing to pay and what they are required to pay for a good.
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Graphically, consumer surplus is measured by:
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the area below the demand curve, but above the market price.
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Which of the following best explains the source of consumer surplus for Good A?
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Many consumers would be willing to pay more than the market price for some units of Good A.
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ceteris paribus, an increase in the price of a good will cause the
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consumer surplus derived from the good to decrease
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ethics
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can be defined in any of the above ways
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in free market economics
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most market exchanges will result in all parties "winning."
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A market economy without any ethics would have:
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no value
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Effective free market ethical systems must provide for all of the following EXCEPT:
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a clearly defined moral foundation
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Cost-benefit analysis can determine the optimal amount of all the following EXCEPT
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fairness of rules
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More efficient positive market ethics will generally help improve all of the following challenges EXCEPT:
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moral externalities of a market
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In order for a market's ethics to be effective, all of the following must occur, EXCEPT
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everyone must agree to take part in the market
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Ethical rules based on morals or concepts of fairness are called
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normative ethics
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If we know someone pays all their taxes and gives money to charity, we know that
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only that they pay their taxes and give money to charity
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Which of the following does not specify positive ethical rules?
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websters dictionary
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which of the following statements is TRUE
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The U.S. government defines and enforces business ethics in order to protect the economy.
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In free markets which allows a high level of unethical corruption:
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suppliers will be forced to be corrupt or to leave the market
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Ethics violators like embezzlers, frauds, tax cheats and bank robbers
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A. usually follow most rules and other ethics most of the time. B. not only injure individuals and companies, but also often hurt entire markets. C. often use rational cost-benefit analysis when deciding whether to cheat. D. may feel so ashamed and guilty of their crimes that they are driven to suicide. E. All of the above may be true of ethics violators.
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which of the following would break a positive ethic
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driving two miles per hour over the speed limit
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Which of these conditions are most likely to motivate honest people to become corrupt?
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seeing your boss and fellow workers get rich by lying and cheating
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plagiarism is unethical because
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A. plagiarism might result in stealing profits from the original writer B. plagiarism can decrease the value of honest students' diplomas C. plagiarism can make it more difficult for instructors to assess the quality of students' writings D. plagiarism is a type of fraud E. all of the above are reasons
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Which of the following are NOT very important to maintaining effective market ethics?
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whether people understand the reasons for the rules or regulations
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which of the following people are more likely to break ethical rules
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someone who is ignorant
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Which of the following are reasons why most owners of companies want their employees to act ethically?
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A. Because they care about the well-being of their customers B. To enhance productivity C. To maximize public good will toward the company D. To avoid large fines and expensive lawsuits E. All the above are reasons why.
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A free market lacking clear ethical rules, adequate oversight and meaningful punishments for rule breakers might suffer:
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A. decrease in market demand. B. decrease in market supply. C. decrease in equilibrium price. D. total market collapse. E. all of the above.
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An externality occurs when:
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people other than those making the demand and supply decisions share the benefits or the costs of an activity.
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Costs that accrue to the total population are called ____ costs. Costs incurred by the producer or consumer who makes the decision are called ____ costs.
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social, private
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If a negative externality results from the refining of oil, the cost of production as seen by the oil refinery:
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does not include the external cost
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which of the following statements is true
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externalities can never refer to costs borne by the seller
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If Don paints the outside of his house a horrendous color:
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he probably has lowered the value of his home and the value of his neighbors' homeshe is unlikely to bear all the social costs of his actions.
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If there are significant external costs associated with the production of a product, it can be said that the private cost of production to the firm ____ the cost to society associated with this product and output should ____ to move toward the efficient situation.
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understates; decreases
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If a positive externality results from the consumption of higher education, then the marginal benefit students receive from education:
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is less than the marginal social benefit
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If a good that features a positive externality is produced in an unregulated free market, the good will be:
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under-produced and under-priced
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to internalize a positive externality
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the consumers of a good could receive a subsidy equal to the external benefit resulting from the production or consumption of the good.
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If the production of a particular good involves significant external benefits, to force the externality to be internalized the government might:
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offer a subsidy for production of the good in order to increase production.
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which of the following is an example of a public good
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clean air
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As an additional consumer obtains the benefits of a public good such as national defense, the benefits to existing consumers:
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do not change
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Which of the following is true?
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It is extremely difficult to limit the benefits of a public good to the people who pay for it.
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public goods are those that are consumed
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by the paying and nonpaying public alike
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Public goods are characterized by:
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nonrivalry in consumption. nonexcludability of nonpayers
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Without government intervention, society is likely to get too little production of:
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both private goods that generate external benefits and public goods
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the determination of which goods are public depends on
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whether it is possible to exclude additional users from consuming the good if they do not pay for it.
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Which of the following is true?
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A. The government may be able to overcome the free rider problem with public goods by providing the public goods and imposing taxes to pay for them. B. The nature of public goods is such that the government cannot accurately assess the benefits and costs of those affected. C. National defense and flood control are illustrations of public goods. D. Just as in the case of external benefits, public goods tend to be underprovided by the private sector. E. All of the above are true.
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in a competitive economy with no government sector
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there will be too few public goods produced
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The free rider problem suggests that competitive markets will tend to:
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produce less than the optimal quantity of a public good
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The practice of potential buyers offering lower prices for a product of uncertain quality than they would for a product of certain quality is known as:
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the lemon problem
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sellers may choose not to sell in certain markets because
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buyers are unable to accurately perceive the quality of their goods and are, therefore, less willing to pay an appropriate price for them.
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Which of the following is most likely to be an example of asymmetric information?
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a collectible baseball card purchased on eBay
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If a company offers a medical and dental care plan that offers benefits to all of the members of each employee's family for a given monthly premium, an employee who is a mother of five children and who has bad teeth who elects that plan would be an illustration of:
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the adverse selection problem
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which of the following is true
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Reducing information costs to consumers and suppliers could permit more intelligent market decisions and lead to greater satisfaction.
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a warranty offered by a seller is one way to overcome
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an adverse selection problem
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the tendency of those who are insured to take more risks is a problem of
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moral hazard
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The U.S. government establishing a policy that it will bail out troubled financial institutions and a resulting increase in the number of bank failures is an example of:
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the moral hazard problem
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Which of the following statements best summarizes the essence of public choice analysis?
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Public choice analysis applies economic principles to political science issues.
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The view that those whose preferences represent the middle position on an issue will tend to determine the outcome of an election is called:
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the median voter model
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an explicit cost is
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an opportunity cost. an out of pocket expense
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an implicit cost
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is characterized by an opportunity cost and does not require an outlay of money
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A firm which owns its own equipment and is earning positive economic profits
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is probably earning positive accounting profits
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economic profits will exist
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economic profits are not sure to exist in any of the above cases
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When economic profits in an industry are zero and implicit costs are positive:
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accounting profits will be greater than zero. resources will not tend to either enter or leave the industry, other things equal
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economic profits will take into account
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both implicit and explicit costs.
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economic profits are
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less than accounting profits if implicit costs are greater than zero
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when a firm makes zero economic profit, it means that
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the firm is covering he total opportunity costs of its resources
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an economic profit of zero implies
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A. normal profit. B. the firm is covering both explicit and implicit costs. C. the firm's revenues are sufficient to compensate the money and time that the owners put into the business. D. all of the above
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which of the following observations is true
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sunk costs are irrelevant for any future actions
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Don Keene promotes boxing matches. He makes $6,500 per fight. Which cost is most relevant to a decision as to whether to promote one more fight?
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the marginal cost of promoting all boxing matches during the year
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fixed costs are best defined as
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costs that do not vary with output
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the marginal cost of good is
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the addition to total cost from producing one more unit of output
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which of the following is most likely to be a fixed cost for a business
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. interest payments on a loan used to finance the construction of a building
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the sum of AVC and AFC equals
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average total cost
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Assuming fixed costs are positive, over a range of output in which average total costs were constant,
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average variable cost would be rising as output increases
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total variable cost
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increases as production increases
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when economics of scale exist, a decrease in the level of output will lead to
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an increase in cost per unit
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when economies of scale exist
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per unit production costs decline as output expands
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constant returns to scale indicate that a firm is experiencing
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per unit costs of production that remain stable as the scale of output expands.
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a perfectly competitive firm is a
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price taker
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which of the following best resembles a perfectly competitive market
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the stock market
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which of the following is a characteristic of perfect competition
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homogeneous products
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perfect competition is the term used to describe
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an industry in which numerous price-taking firms produce identical products.
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the perfectly competitive model assumes that
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firms can enter and exit the industry with relative ease
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which of the following is true about perfect competition
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A. Since a perfectly competitive seller can sell all he wants at the market price, her demand curve is horizontal at the market price over the entire range of output that she could possibly produce. B. Because perfectly competitive markets have many buyers and sellers, each firm is so small in relation to the industry that its production decisions have no impact on the market. C. Because consumers believe that all firms in a perfectly competitive market sell identical (homogeneous) products, the products of all the firms are perfect substitutes. D. Perfectly competitive markets have easy entry and exit. E. All of the above are true about perfect competition.
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which of the following is true of perfectly competitive firms
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none of the above
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a perfectly competitive firm faces a demand curve that is
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horizontal and perfectly elastic
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a competitive firm facing a perfectly elastic demand curve can
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sell all of its output at the market price
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a perfectly competitive firm has no influence over price because
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its output is insignificant relative to the market as a whole
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a firm facing a horizontal demand curve
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is characterized by all of the above
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in a perfectly competitive industry, influence over price is exerted by
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the forced of supply and demand
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which of the following is false of perfectly competitive firms
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Because perfectly competitive firms are price takers, each firm's demand curve remains unchanged even when the market price changes.
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The horizontal demand curve facing an individual firm in a perfectly competitive market:
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is a reflection of the firm's small size relative to the total market.
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If the market demand curve in a perfectly competitive industry shifts right, the demand curve for each existing firm will:
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shift up
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A profit-maximizing firm in a perfectly competitive market will always produce a quantity of output that:
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maximizes the amount by which total revenue exceeds total cost
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for a perfectly competitive firm, which of the following is always true
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p=mr=d
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A firm sells grapefruit in a perfectly competitive market at a price of $1.50 per pound. The firm's marginal revenue:
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equals $1.50
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for a perfectly competitive firm, average revenue is
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equal to marginal revenue at all levels of output. equal to price at all levels of output
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f a perfectly competitive firm's marginal revenue was less than its marginal cost,
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it would contract its output (but not raise its price) in order to increase its profits.
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If a perfectly competitive firm is operating in the short run and seeks to maximize profit, the firm should:
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increase output whenever market price exceeds marginal cost
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In perfect competition, at the firm's profit maximizing short run output, which of the following is true?
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all the above
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Assume a perfectly competitive firm sells its output for $250 per unit. At its current 2,000 units of output, marginal cost is $180 and increasing, and average variable cost is $160. Assuming it wants to maximize its profits, it should:
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increase output
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If a profit-maximizing firm finds that price exceeds average variable cost and marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue, it should:
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reduce output, but continue producing in the short run
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A price-taking firm will tend to expand its output as long as price exceeds average variable cost and:
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its marginal cost is less than the market price
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Firms will continue to enter a competitive industry until:
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any economic profits have been competed away
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If new entry occurs in a perfectly competitive industry, the demand curve for each existing firm will:
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shift down
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If perfectly competitive industry B is currently realizing economic profits, we would expect that:
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industry output will rise, good B will fall in price, and economic profits will tend to disappear.
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When perfectly competitive firms in an industry are earning positive economic profits,
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we would expect entry into the industry.
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If a perfectly competitive industry is neither expanding nor contracting, we would typically expect that:
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economic profits to be zero the price of the good will be stable
question
If the long-run industry supply curve in a perfectly competitive market slopes upward, then very likely input prices will ____ as industry output expands.
answer
increases
question
If input costs remain the same as industry output expands, what would you expect to be the long-run impact of an increase in demand on an industry currently in long-run equilibrium?
answer
there will be more firms but the price will remain the same
question
extractive industries such as farming mining or lumbering typically
answer
are considered to be increasing cost industries
question
If your company is in the range of output where it experiences economies of scale, you know:
answer
a 5 percent increase in all inputs will increase output by more than 5 percent.
question
Which of the following is true about the long run operations of perfectly competitive firms?
answer
all the above
question
monopoly is at the other end of the spectrum from
answer
perfect competition
question
a monopolist firm is a
answer
price maker that faces the market demand curve
question
In a perfectly competitive industry, the industry demand curve is ____, while in a monopolistic industry, the industry demand curve is:
answer
downward sloping; downward sloping
question
barriers that prevent the entry of new firms may arise because
answer
economies of scale exist over a substantial range of industry demand.the government protects some firms from competition.
question
pure monopoly
answer
is characterized by all the above
question
which of the following is a characteristic of a monopoly
answer
larger barriers to entry
question
a key element to preserving a monopoly is
answer
keeping potential rivals out of the market
question
Why does the government allow some markets to be monopolized by granting patents?
answer
to promote technological progress
question
which of the following would likely be an example of a monopolistic industry
answer
none of the above
question
If there are economies of scale throughout the relevant output range of production, which is false?
answer
It would typically result from a firm's possession of an exclusive patent
question
A natural gas monopoly currently sells 100 cubic feet of gas at $1.10 per cubic foot. To sell one more cubic foot, the natural gas company must lower the price of gas to $1.09. Which of the following best describes the marginal revenue of the 101st cubic foot of natural gas?
answer
the marginal revenue is less than $1.09
question
A monopolist can sell 6 units per day at $8 per unit, or 7 units per day at $7 per unit. Its marginal revenue for the seventh unit of output is:
answer
$1
question
the demand curve facing a monopolist
answer
is less elastic than a perfectly competitive firms demand curve
question
Graphically which of the following is true for a monopoly?
answer
The marginal revenue curve lies below the demand curve and is steeper than the demand curve.
question
a monopolist will operate at the quantity where
answer
MR = MC and charge a price corresponding to demand at that level.
question
Profit-maximizing monopolists choose a level of output such that:
answer
marginal revenue equals marginal cost
question
For a profit-maximizing monopolist, the price of a product is:
answer
always greater than marginal revenue
question
Which of the following is true for a monopolist but not for a perfectly competitive firm?
answer
a. and b. are true for a monopolist but not for a perfectly competitive firm.
question
in the long run, economic profits are
answer
possible for a monopolist but not for a perfectly competitive firm
question
in both perfect competition and monopoly, a firm
answer
will be characterized by both b. and c.
question
A monopolist would charge ____ prices and produce ____ output than would exist under perfect competition.
answer
higher; less
question
which of the following is generally true of monopoly
answer
All of the above are generally true of monopoly.
question
which of the following is likely in a monopolized market
answer
all of the above
question
If an unregulated monopolist operates in a market, then:
answer
all the above
question
the aim of antitrust policy is to
answer
prevent firms from acquiring or exercising undue market power
question
What was the first important law regulating monopoly that prohibited "restraint of trade"?
answer
sherman act
question
Which landmark legislation made it illegal to engage in predatory pricing and also prohibited mergers if it led to weakened competition?
answer
clayton act
question
U.S public utilities are often
answer
regulated natural monopolies
question
If a regulatory commission wishes to allow a firm to earn a normal rate of return, it should set price equal to:
answer
average total cost
question
If a regulatory board wanted to make sure that a natural monopoly earned a normal rate of return, it should set price which is equal to:
answer
average total cost
question
Price ____ occurs when producers charge different customers different prices for the same good or service.
answer
discrimination
question
price discrimination refers to
answer
charging different prices to different groups without a basis for doing so because of differences in production costs.
question
When a monopolist is able to sell its product at different prices to different customers, it is likely engaging in:
answer
price discrimination
question
The practice of selling a product to different customers at different prices when marginal cost is the same is known as:
answer
price discrimination
question
When setting prices, the monopolist may choose to charge alternative customers different prices based on:
answer
all the above
question
A price-discriminating monopolist will tend to charge a higher price to senior citizens if it believes that senior citizens:
answer
have a greater willingness to pay than other demanders
question
A monopolist who is able to price discriminate by charging two different groups different prices:
answer
will set prices so that both group's demand curves are elastic at the prices charged.
question
Ceteris paribus, in which of the following cases would we expect economic profits to be greatest?
answer
an unregulated monopolist who is able to price discriminate.
question
When a monopolist is able to price-discriminate:
answer
both its profits and output tend to increase.
question
A monopolist who is unable to price discriminate:
answer
will be characterized by both b. and d.
question
An industry characterized by only a few firms in the market is called:
answer
an oligopoly
question
which of the following is characteristic of an oligopolistic industry
answer
all the above
question
A basic characteristic of the firms in an oligopoly market structure is that they are:
answer
large and interdependent
question
The key characteristic of oligopoly markets is "interdependence among firms." This means that:
answer
each firm must consider how its decisions will affect its competitors
question
high barriers to entry are generally found in
answer
both c and d
question
oligopoly firms
answer
base their pricing and output decisions on the likely responses of rival firms
question
an example of an oligopoly is
answer
the automobile indusrty
question
Economists believe that oligopolists like American Airlines and the Kellogg Company:
answer
carefully watch and anticipate the pricing and advertizing moves of their competitors.
question
Under conditions of oligopoly, economies of large-scale production mean that:
answer
small firms are at a disadvantage in competing with relatively large firms.
question
In which of the following industry models are the individual firms not price takers?
answer
a and b
question
a cartel is
answer
a group of oligopolists who try to behave like a single monopolist and split the benefits among themselves.
question
The Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is an example of:
answer
a periodically successful cartel
question
If the firms in an oligopoly collude, the results will represent what other type of industry?
answer
monopoly
question
If firms meet together to decide on prices and outputs, it is called:
answer
overt collusion
question
overt cartels are relatively because
answer
all the above
question
Which of the following is true for a typical firm in a typical cartel?
answer
"If I alone cheat, I'm better off; if everyone cheats, I'm worse off."
question
Cartel members have a collective interest in ____ industry output and a private interest in ____ their own output.
answer
decreasing; increasing
question
____ facilitates joint profit maximization for the oligopoly.
answer
collusion
question
The maximum possible profit that could be earned by a cartel is:
answer
equal to the monopoly profit
question
predatory pricing
answer
both c and d
question
Approximately ____ of national income goes to wages and salaries for labor services.
answer
75 percent
question
The price of any productive resource is ____ related to ____ the final good or service:
answer
directly; demand for
question
Which of the following best illustrates the concept of "derived demand"?
answer
An automobile firm faces an increase in the demand for cars it supplies to the market, which leads to an increase in the demand for autoworkers.
question
When labor is a firm's only variable input in its production process, a profit-maximizing firm will continue to employ additional workers as long as:
answer
the marginal revenue product of labor > the marginal resource cost.
question
Which of the following statements are true regarding profit-maximizing firms?
answer
They will attempt to maximize the difference between total revenues and total costs.
question
Which of the following would cause the demand for carpenters to increase?
answer
an increase in the demand for housing
question
The relationship between the wage rate and the quantity of labor that employers wish to hire is called:
answer
the market demand curve for labor
question
If labor is the only variable input, an additional worker increases output from 72 to 78 units, and the product price is $6, the marginal revenue product from an additional worker:
answer
is $36
question
When a firm evaluates the contribution of a worker to its ____, it must calculate the worker's contribution to revenue, minus the worker's ____.
answer
profits; wage
question
the market supply curve for labor
answer
shows the relationship between the wage rate and the quantity of labor that workers are willing to supply.
question
Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased worker productivity?
answer
increased labor supply
question
If the demand for software engineers ____ more slowly than does supply, wages of software engineers will ____
answer
increase; fall
question
Which of the following will NOT contribute to higher wage rates for labor?
answer
significantly relaxed immigration standards
question
Which of the following will NOT result in a leftward shift of the market demand curve for labor?
answer
an increase in the wage rate
question
improvements in the productivity of labor will tend to
answer
increase wages
question
Which of the following is the best example of an investment in human capital?
answer
a summer internship at a law firm filled by someone attending law school
question
which of the following is false
answer
an increase in wage will lead to an increase in the supply of labor
question
Wages are approximately ____ higher in union jobs than in comparable nonunion jobs.
answer
15%
question
Not all similarly skilled workers are included in unions. As a result, wages for unionized workers tend to be ____ than for nonunion workers. Additionally, as a significant number of skilled workers seek work in the nonunion sector, the supply curve for nonunion labor shifts to the ____, thereby ____ wages for nonunion workers.
answer
higher; right; reducing
question
Which of the following is not part of an argument that unions lead to increased productivity?
answer
benefits from featherbedding
question
Since the 1980s the proportion of income received by the top (richest) 5 percent of Americans has ____, and the measured income of Americans in the lowest (poorest) fifth has ____.
answer
risen; fall
question
With regard to the income quintile (20% of the population) listings below, which one indicates the greatest degree of income inequality?
answer
b
question
an example of in-kind income is
answer
subsidized housing
question
Scholars argue that government activity should be considered when evaluating the measured income distribution because:
answer
the middle and higher-income quintiles have benefited more than the poor from state-subsidized airports, airlines, operas, and museums.
question
Which of the following changes would tend to increase measured income inequality?
answer
an increase in the number of divorced people
question
which of the following countries has the greatest degree of income inequality
answer
the US
question
The official poverty rate for the United States for a family of four is approximately:
answer
$20,000
question
The poverty rate in the United States is defined as the proportion of the population that fails to earn a ____ absolute income standard. Poverty rates in the United States have largely ____ since the year 2000.
answer
minimum; risen
question
Ceteris paribus, if the cost of feeding and housing a family were to increase, it would increase a family's level of ____ poverty.
answer
absolute
question
under a progressive tax system
answer
higher marginal taxes are imposed on higher incomes
question
A major macroeconomic goal of nearly every society is:
answer
all the above
question
The first formal acknowledgement of the primary macroeconomic goals of price stability, high employment, and promoting economic growth in the United States came with passage of the:
answer
the Employment Act of 1946
question
The unemployment rate is the number of people classified as unemployed as a percentage of:
answer
the labor force
question
the labor force equals
answer
the number of employed plus the number of unemployed persons
question
Kathryn chooses to go to college full-time rather than to work. Kathryn:
answer
is not part of the labor force
question
discouraged workers are defined as those
answer
who have given up looking for a job and are not counted as unemployed.
question
which of the following individuals are considered officially unemployed
answer
none of the above
question
The unemployment rate may underestimate the true extent of unemployment if:
answer
many part-time employees would like to work full-time, but are unable to get the additional work.
question
which of the following is false
answer
none of the above. they are all true
question
underemployment occurs when
answer
a worker is over-qualified and possesses more skills than his job demands.
question
Frictional unemployment occurs when:
answer
a worker decides to quit to see a different job
question
A federal program aimed at retraining the unemployed workers of the declining coal and steel industries is designed to reduce which type of unemployment?
answer
structural
question
cyclical unemployment arises when
answer
business activity in the macroeconomy declines
question
which of the following people is structurally unemployed
answer
Clem, a skilled corset maker, lost his job when his factory shut down due to a permanent reduction in the demand for corsets.
question
According to Okun's law, a 2 percent increase in cyclical unemployment reduces output by almost:
answer
4%
question
When unemployment rises above the natural rate it reflects the existence of ____ unemployment.
answer
cyclical
question
the natural rate of unemployment
answer
is the sum of both frictional and structural unemployment when they are at a maximum.
question
If the economy is operating with full employment, which of the following is essentially eliminated?
answer
cyclical unemployment
question
In recent years, economists have come to believe that full employment in the U.S. economy occurs at an unemployment rate between:
answer
4.5% and 5.5%
question
which of the following is true
answer
all of the above
question
inflation exists when
answer
the overall price level is rising
question
In the typical CPI shopping basket, which of the categories below represents the largest percentage of consumer spending?
answer
housing
question
The GDP deflator represents a somewhat ____ measure of prices that the CPI and the GDP deflator tends to be ____ volatile than the CPI.
answer
broader; less
question
During an inflationary period, those most likely to suffer reduced wealth are those who are holding their wealth in:
answer
currency
question
what are creditors harmed by unexpected inflation
answer
Creditors are paid back money with less spending power than when it was originally loaned out.
question
an unanticipated period of deflation will
answer
redistribute income form borrowers to lenders
question
given a fixed nominal interest rate on a loan, unanticipated deflation
answer
increases the burden of paying off the loan
question
which of the following groups would not tend to loss form unexpected inflation
answer
Those whose wages have cost of living adjustment clauses in their contracts
question
the cost imposed on a firm from changing listed prices are called
answer
the menu costs of inflation
question
economists use the term "business cycle" to refer to
answer
fluctuations in economic activity, measured by GDP or unemployment
question
The period of declining growth in real GDP, between the peak of the business cycle and the trough, is called the:
answer
contractionary phase
question
in the expansion phase of the business cycle
answer
all the above
question
Unemployment rises in ____, and falls in ____.
answer
contractions; expansions
question
Which of the following observations concerning phases of a business cycle is NOT correct?
answer
maximum amount of unemployment occurs exactly at the trough
question
economists usually use the term "recession" to refer to
answer
two or more consecutive quarters of declining real GDP
question
Which of the following describes the historical record of the business cycle in the United States?
answer
periods of contraction seem to have gotten shorter over time
question
which of the following is true
answer
The expansions and contractions of real world business cycles last varying lengths of time and often differ in magnitude
question
the type of unemployment that occurs because of a recession is called
answer
cyclical unemployment
question
which of the following is not a leading economic indicator
answer
unemployment rate
question
Which of the following observations concerning leading economic indicators is true?
answer
they provide warnings of likely downturns
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