Combo with A & P Blood and 1 other – Flashcards

________ is a pivotal molecule associated with the external surfaces of aggregated platelets and is involved in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms of blood clotting. A) PGI2 B) PF3 C) Thrombin D) Thromboplastin (prothrombin activator)

What is the average normal pH of blood? A) 8.4 B) 7.8 C) 7.4 D) 4.7

The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________. A) hemoglobin A B) hemoglobin B C) hemoglobin F D) hemoglobin S

Together, leukocytes and platelets comprise approximately ________ percent of total blood volume. A) 1 B) 75 C) 45 D) 10

Which blood type is called the universal donor? A) A B) B C) AB D) O

Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood? A) delivery of oxygen to body cells B) transport of metabolic wastes from cells C) prevention of blood loss D) maintenance of normal pH in body tissues

Which of the following is a protective function of blood? A) prevention of blood loss B) maintenance of adequate fluid volume C) maintenance of normal pH in body tissue D) maintenance of body temperature

Which of the following is not a phase of erythropoiesis? A) production of ribosomes B) synthesis of hemoglobin C) ejection of the erythrocyte nucleus D) production of vacuoles

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis? A) hypoxia of EPO-producing cells B) decreased tissue demand for oxygen C) an increased number of RBCs D) moving to a lower altitude

As red blood cells age ________. A) ATP production increases B) membranes ʺwear outʺ and the cells become damaged C) they will eventually be excreted by the digestive system D) iron will be excreted by the kidneys

An individual who is blood type AB negative ________. A) can receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen B) can donate to all blood types in moderate amounts C) can receive types A, B, and AB, but not type O D) can donate to types A, B, and AB, but not to type O

The most abundant plasma protein is ________. A) globulin B) clotting protein C) albumin D) bile

When neither anti-A nor anti-B clots on a blood plate, the blood is type ________. A) A B) B C) AB D) O

Select the correct statement regarding blood cell formation. A) The main sites of blood cell production in adults are the spleen and the liver. B) Before the seventh month of fetal development, yellow marrow is the main site of blood cell formation. C) Red marrow is the main site of blood cell formation throughout adult life. D) Yellow marrow is the main site of leukocyte formation

Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________. A) dextran B) albumin C) packed cells D) saline solutions

James has a hemoglobin measurement of 16 g/100 ml blood. This is ________. A) above normal B) normal only if James is an infant C) abnormally low D) within the normal range

Which of these is not a normal plasma protein? A) fibrinogen B) gamma globulin C) thromboplastin D) albumin

All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________. A) high hematocrit B) low blood viscosity C) increased blood volume D) high blood pressure

No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________. A) monocytes B) basophils C) eosinophils D) neutrophils

Which of the following is not a phase of hemostasis? A) vascular spasm B) fibrinolysis C) platelet plug formation D) coagulation

Which of the following are not currently known red blood cell antigens? A) Carson B) Lewis C) Kell D) Duffy

Place the following in correct developmental sequence: 1. reticulocyte 2. proerythroblast 3. normoblast 4. late erythroblast

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________. A) aplastic anemia B) polycythemia C) pernicious anemia D) sickle-cell anemia

The slowest step in the clotting process is ________. A) formation of prothrombin activator B) production of fibrin strands C) binding fibrin strands D) release of PF3

Thromboembolic disorders ________. A) result in uncontrolled bleeding B) include thrombus formation, a clot in a broken blood vessel C) include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system D) are caused by vitamin K deficiency

Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders? A) thrombocytopenia, a condition of decreased circulating platelets B) excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF) C) a defect in the clotting cascade D) vitamin K deficiency

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes? A) They are nucleated. B) They have cytoplasmic granules. C) They are phagocytic. D) They are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood

Which of the following is true about blood plasma? A) It is the same as serum but without the clotting proteins. B) The main protein component is hemoglobin. C) It is about 90% water. D) It contains about 20 dissolved components.

Platelets ________. A) stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break B) have a life span of about 120 days C) are the precursors of leukocytes D) have multiple nuclei

Select the correct statement regarding age-related blood disorders. A) They include anemias and thromboembolic disorders. B) They are usually the result of the red blood cells wearing out. C) Increased incidence of leukemia is not usually associated with aging. D) They are caused by abnormal forms of hemoglobin F

Which sequence is correct for the following events? 1. fibrinogen → fibrin 2. clot retraction 3. formation of thromboplastin 4. prothrombin → thrombin A) 3, 4, 1, 2 B) 1, 2, 3, 4 C) 4, 3, 1, 2 D) 3, 2, 1, 4

) Fredʹs blood was determined to be AB positive. What does this mean? A) There are no antibodies to A, to B, or to Rh antigens in the plasma. B) Antibodies to A and B are present in the red cells. C) His blood lacks Rh factor. D) He can only receive blood from a donor who is AB positive.

Which of the following is a precursor of a basophil? A) megakaryoblast B) myeloblast C) lymphoblast D) monoblast

Sickling of red blood cells can be produced in those with sickle-cell anemia by ________. A) travel at high altitude B) vigorous exercise C) malaria and travel at high altitude D) travel at high altitude and vigorous exercise

All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________. A) vascular spasm B) vitamin K deficiency C) severe hypocalcemia D) liver disease

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother? A) if the child is type O positive B) if the child is Rh+ C) if the father is Rh+ D) if the father is Rh-

Complications of aplastic anemia generally do not include ________. A) increase of leukocytes as a result of erythrocyte loss B) suppressed immunity C) impaired formation of all formed elements D) bleeding disorders

Blood is a ________. A) colloid B) homogeneous compound C) heterogenous compound D) suspension

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production? A) Kidney B) Brain C) Liver D) Pancreas

The shelf life of whole collected blood at 4° C is about ________ days. A) 206 B) 120 C) 55 D) 35

A healthy adult male individual contains about ___ liters of blood. - 1-2 - 5-6 - 7-8 - 2-3 - 3-4

A major plasma protein that maintains the blood osmotic pressure is - globulin. - fibrin. - fibrinogen. - angiotensinogen. - albumin.

Blood group O - has the AB antigens on its plasma membrane. - is a universal donor because they can give blood to all other groups. - does NOT have the anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the serum. - can receive blood from either group A or B but NOT from group AB. - is a universal recipient because they can receive blood from all other groups.

Diapedesis refers to - the type of movement erythrocytes use in the tissue spaces. - the escape of leukocytes from blood vessels into tissue spaces. - the secretion of chemicals that trigger the inflammatory process. - the chemical attraction leukocytes use to reach the site of tissue damage. - the engulfing of foreign bodies by leukocytes.

During the life cycle of red blood cells, - the globin portion of hemoglobin is degraded to bilirubin by the liver. - RBCs are unable to synthesize proteins, grow, or undergo mitotic division. - RBCs have life span of about 70 -80 days. - the heme portion of hemoglobin is broken down to amino acids. - old red blood cells are destroyed by the macrophages in the kidneys.

Granulocytes do NOT include - basophils. - neutrophils. - PMN. - monocytes. - eosinophils.

Mature red blood cells in the circulating blood are filled with - lysosomes. - hemoglobin molecules. - nuclei and all other cellular organelles. - smooth endoplasmic reticulum. - mitochondria.

Pernicious anemia may result from - rupture of red blood cells due to parasites. - abnormal production of hemoglobin due to genetic defect. - the lack of vitamin B12 in diet or deficiency of intrinsic factor needed to absorb B12. - excessive bleeding. - the absent or depressed synthesis of globin chains.

Renal dialysis patients usually suffer from anemia because - a large number of RBCs are lost with urine. - the life span of RBCs is shorter in kidney failure patients. - the failed kidney destroys large number of RBCs. - their kidneys stop sending the chemical required to stimulate the red bone marrow to cause RBC to mature faster. - the kidney fails to stimulate the red bone marrow.

The final step in clot formation is - fibrinogen → fibrin. - formation of prothrombin activator. - platelet plug formation. - prothrombin → thrombin. - the release of chemical by platelets.

The most numerous leukocyte is the - monocyte. - neutrophil. - basophil. - lymphocyte. - eosinophil.

The terms biconcave and anucleated apply to - white blood cells. - leukocytes. - thrombocytes. - red blood cells. - platelets.

When red blood cells transport respiratory gases - both oxygen and carbon dioxide combine to the globin portion. - carbon dioxide binds to the heme portion and oxygen binds to the globin portion. - both oxygen and carbon dioxide combine to the heme portion. - oxygen binds to the heme portion while carbon dioxide binds to the globin portion.

Which leukocyte contains histamine in its granules? - Monocytes - Basophils - Neutrophils - Eosinophils - Lymphocytes

Which of the following is a protective function of blood? - Preventing infection - Maintaining normal pH in the body - Delivering oxygen from the lungs to all body tissues - Maintaining normal body temperature - Transporting hormones from endocrine organs to target tissues

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of blood? - Its temperature is slightly higher than the body's temperature. - Blood is thicker than water. - The pH of blood varies between 7.15 to 7.25. - The color of blood varies from scarlet red to dark red.

Which of the following statements about platelets is INCORRECT? - Platelets are essential for clotting process. - Platelets are fragments of a larger cell called megakaryocyte. - The life span of platelets is 30 to 60 days. - The formation of platelets is regulated by the hormone thrombopoietin. - Platelets contain serotonin, ADP, calcium and PDGF.

Which property do white blood cells have in common? - All WBC are granulocytes. - WBC are nucleated and have a protective function. - All WBC have phagocytic function. - WBC transport oxygen.

Which statement is NOT a factor in stimulating the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys? - Living in a high altitude climate - Living by the sea coast - Inflammation of lung tissue as in pneumonia - Excessive bleeding - Excessive destruction of RBCs

Individuals with malaria have a better chance of surviving if they have the following type of anemia. - Athlete's anemia - Hemorrhagic anemia - Iron-deficiency anemia - Sickle-cell anemia - Aplastic anemia

Which of the following types of white blood cells kills parasitic worms; destroys antibody complexes; and inactivates some inflammatory chemicals of allergy? - Eosinophil - Neutrophil - Monocytes - Basophil - Lymphocytes

Which of the following is a function of neutrophils? - Release histamine and other mediators of inflammation - Seal small tears in blood vessels - Phagocytize bacteria - Kill parasitic worms - Mount immune response by direct cell attack or via antibodies

Which of the following is a function of erythrocytes? - Transport oxygen and carbon dioxide - Kill parasitic worms - Phagocytize bacteria - Mount immune response - Release histamine

Which of the following is a function of basophils? - Transport blood gases - Release histamine during allergic reaction - Mount immune response - Kill parasites - Phagocytize bacteria

Which of the following would NOT normally be found in circulating blood? - Neutrophil - Electrolytes - Normoblast - Erythrocyte

Which of the following is a function of lymphocytes? - Destruction of virus containing cells - Produce albumin - Maintain body temperature - Carry oxygen - Regulate pH

Which of the following is a function of fibrinogen? - Phagocytize bacteria - Maintain blood volume - Regulate pH - Transport blood gases - Polymerization

The percentage of total volume used to determine the number of erythrocytes in a blood sample is referred to as the - hematocrit. - reticulocyte count. - red blood cell count. - ESR

The buffy coat that appears after a sample of blood has been centrifuged contains - plasma. - serum. - RBCs. - WBCs.

Which of the following statements about whole blood is incorrect? - It is five times more viscous than water due to the presence of proteins in the plasma. - It is slightly alkaline at room temperature. - It accounts for about 8% of the body weight. - It has a metallic taste.

The RBC biconcave shape is maintained by a protein known as - gamma globulins. - hemoglobin. - albumin. - spectrin.

Which of the following plasma proteins are not produced by the liver? - fibrinogen - beta globulins - albumin - gamma globulin

Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on making RBCs very efficient oxygen transporters? - They don't contain a nucleus. - They generate ATP by anaerobic mechanisms and do not consume any of the oxygen they carry. - They represent most of the formed elements in the blood. - They carry 20% of the carbon dioxide released by tissues back to the lungs.

All of the following would occur if hemoglobin was free in the plasma rather than being contained in the erythrocyte except that the - viscosity of blood would increase. - osmotic pressure of blood would increase. - hemoglobin would be more stable. - hemoglobin would leak out of the blood stream.

Another term for reduced hemoglobin is - oxyhemoglobin. - hemoglobin S. - deoxyhemoglobin. - carbaminohemoglobin.

The first step in formation of a mature RBC from a hemocytoblast is the - differentiation of a myeloid stem cell to a proerythroblast - differentiation of a basophilic erythroblast into a normoblast. - development of a reticulocyte from a normoblast. - proerythroblast differentiated into a reticulocyte.

Which of the following substances does not contain iron? - hemosiderin - transferrin - bilirubin - ferritin

____________ is an illustration of iron deficiency seen in individuals who have expanded their blood by increased activity. - Microcytic anemia - Athlete's anemia - Macrocytic anemia - Sickle cell anemia

The process of actively metabolizing oxygen to produce bleach and hydrogen exhibited by polymorphs to kill bacteria is known as - respiratory burst. - diapedesis. - amoeboid movement. - chemotaxis.

In addition to basophils, _____________ found in connective tissue can release histamine when they bind to IgE antibodies. - macrophages - plasma cells - mast cells - B-lymphocytes

Which of the following leukocytes is the largest? - monocytes - basophils - eosinophils - neutrophils

The diagnostic feature of infectious mononucleosis is - an increase in the size of a monocyte. - enlarged RBCs. - an increased number of atypical agranulocytes. - an increased number of eosinophils.

Which of the following substances is responsible for limiting a platelet plug to the immediate area of damage? - prostacyclin - thromboxane A 2 - adenosine diphosphate - serotonin

Factor XIII is known as the - antihemophilic factor. - heparin. - fibrinogen. - fibrin stabilizing factor.

Erythroblastosis fetalis is due to - loss of blood by the fetus. - Rh incompatibility between an Rh-negative mother and her Rh-positive baby during pregnancy. - increase in the number of erythrocytes in the newborn. - malfunction of the thymus during fetal development.

Which of the following plasma expanders would be associated with the least complications. - Ringer's solution - dextran - human serum albumin - hetastarch

Which of the following has the most affinity for oxygen? - Hemoglobin S - blood substitute. - Hemoglobin A - Hemoglobin F.

Prefluorinated hydrocarbon chains can be used instead of - hemoglobin. - antibodies. - thrombocytes. - leukocytes.

85% of Americans carry the ______ Rh agglutinogen on their RBCs. - C - K - E - D

Preformed antibodies to the ABO blood group antigens first appear in a - two-month-old baby. - fetus. - newborn. - a two-year-old toddler.

Which antibodies would be found in the serum of a person with AB blood? - anti-A antibodies - Both anti-B and anti-A antibodies. - no antibodies to the AB antigens - anti-B antibodies

The percentage of blood volume occupied by erythrocytes is called the ________. - buffy coat - hematocrit - blood volume - hemostat

Which of the following is not a role of albumin? - It acts as a carrier molecule. - It acts as a blood buffer. - It serves an immune system function. - It contributes to plasma osmotic pressure.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte? - It has mitochondria. - It has a biconcave disc shape. - It is comprised mostly of albumin and water. - It has a nucleus.

One molecule of hemoglobin can bind a maximum of _____ oxygen molecules. - six - eight - two - four

Erythropoiesis is best defined as: - leukocyte production. - albumin production. - platelet production. - red blood cell production.

Erythropoietin is made primarily by the: - pancreas. - pituitary gland. - kidneys. - spleen.

Aging red blood cells are fragmented and trapped in the: - kidneys. - intestines. - liver. - spleen.

A patient who lacks intrinsic factor would likely develop: - pernicious anemia. - aplastic anemia. - hemorrhagic anemia. - sickle-cell anemia.

The migration of white blood cells out of the capillary blood vessels is called: - transcytosis. - diapedesis. - leukocytosis. - active transport.

Which of the following is considered a lymphocyte? - Basophil - B cell - Neutrophil - Macrophage

Overproduction of white blood cells is called: - leukopenia. - leukopoiesis. - leukocytosis. - polycythemia.

Platelets are derived from: - megakaryocytes. - lymphocytes. - band cells. - monocytes.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of hemostasis from start to end? - Vascular spasm, coagulation, platelet plug formation - Coagulation, vascular spasm, platelet plug formation - Platelet plug formation, vascular spasm, coagulation - Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, coagulation

Which of the following is true regarding the extrinsic pathway of blood clotting? - The extrinsic pathway is independent of procoagulants. - The extrinsic pathway is slower than the intrinsic pathway of blood clotting. - The extrinsic pathway is triggered by tissue factor. - The extrinsic pathway does not involve calcium ions.

Blood type is determined by: - glycoproteins present in the plasma. - glycoproteins present on the surface of erythrocytes. - antibodies present on the surface of erythrocytes. - antibodies present in the plasma.

Choose the true statement about fetal hemoglobin. - Fetal hemoglobin is called hemoglobin A. - Fetal hemoglobin contains four alpha chains. - Fetal hemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than does adult hemoglobin. - Fetal hemoglobin is produced until the baby is one year old.