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Chapter 13 Vocabulary For Edsp 452 Edu

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Aphasia
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Disturbance in language comprehension or production, often as a result of a stroke.
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Apraxia
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Oral motor muscles loose function, unable to speak with meaningful utterances. DISORDER OF MOTOR PLANNING. LOSS OF LEARNED PURPOSEFUL MOVEMENTS.
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Articulation
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How speech sounds are formed
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Cluttering
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Some children with LD experience disfluent speech that on the surface might seem like stuttering. It is characterized by overuse of fillers and circumlocations associated with word-finding difficulties, rapid speech, and word and phrase repititions.
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Content
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Fluency Impairment
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A condition in which speech is broken by abnormal stoppages (no sound), repetition (“st-st-stopping”), or prolongations (“mmmmmmmmaking”). There may also be unusual facial and body movement associated with the effort to speak.
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Form
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1. Having the three dimensions, solid. 2. The organization, placement or relationship of basic elements
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Language Disorder
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Refers to difficulty receiving or understanding information, or formulating idea and information
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Morphology
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Refers to its rules for word formation. Are the smallest combination of sounds that have a meaning. Prepositions, prefixes, suffixes, and whole words_______.
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Phonology
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The rule system within a language by which phonemes are sequenced, patterned, and uttered to represent meaning
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Speech Disorder
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articulation errors or phonological processes that are rarely seen in normally developing children
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Stuttering
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A condition marked by rapid-fire repetitions of consonant or vowel sounds, especially at the beginnings of words, prolongations, hesitations, interjections, and complete verbal blocks
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Syntax
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Language rules that govern how words can be combined to form meaningful phrases and sentences
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Expressive Language Disorder
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A communication disorder characterized by having a limited and faulty vocabulary, speaking in short sentences with simplified grammatical structures, omitting critical words or phrases, or putting words together in peculiar order.
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Sound Quality
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the result of the blending of several pitches through interference
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From the physiological perspective, the distinction between “deaf” and “hard of hearing” is based on A) decibel levels detected. B) frequency of sounds detected. C) location of hearing loss. D) language ability.
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decibel levels detected.
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From an educational point of view, how is “deafness” best defined? A) a condition present since birth B) an inability to understand speech even with a hearing aid C) a hearing loss of more than 90 dB in at least one ear D) a condition of old age
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an inability to understand speech even with a hearing aid
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The term “hard of hearing” is used to describe people with hearing impairment who A) were not born deaf but became deaf later in life. B) find it “hard” (in their own subjective judgment) to hear as well as the rest of the population. C) have a conductive hearing loss. D) have enough residual hearing to process sound with a hearing aid.
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have enough residual hearing to process sound with a hearing aid.
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Simon has a hearing loss that occurred when he was seven years old. His loss is best described as A) conductive. B) sensorineural. C) congenital. D) postlingual.
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postlingual
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According to the U.S. Department of Education, what percentage of students are identified as deaf or hard of hearing? A) 14% B) 0.14% C) 1.4% D) 0.014%
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0.14%
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People who say that deafness should not be considered a disability argue that A) there is a difference between prelingual and postlingual deafness. B) they should be considered a cultural minority with a language of their own. C) there are advantages to being deaf, so it is not a disability. D) although deafness is a handicap, it is not a disability.
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they should be considered a cultural minority with a language of their own.
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The ossicles function to create A) increased sense of balance. B) electrical impulse being sent to the brain. C) transfer of energy from the middle to the inner ear. D) a vacuum that stimulates hair cells.
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transfer of energy from the middle to the inner ear.
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The most important organ for hearing is the A) cerumen. B) tympanic membrane. C) vestibular mechanism. D) cochlea.
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cochlea
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Ideally, screening tests for babies should follow a A) 2-4-6 year rule B) 1-3-6 month rule C) 2-4-6 week rule D) 2-4-6 month rule
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1-3-6 month rule
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Pure-tone audiometry establishes A) detection and understanding of speech. B) threshold for hearing at various frequencies. C) kinds of hearing tests to be used. D) presence of the Moro reflex.
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threshold for hearing at various frequencies.
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Most speech sounds have frequencies (pitch) that A) have a very narrow range: 50-500 Hz. B) have a range that is affected by altitude and humidity: 100-900 Hz. C) have a range higher than long-haired dogs: 250-1,000 Hz. D) have a wide range: 500-2,000 Hz.
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have a wide range: 500-2,000 Hz.
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The “speech reception threshold” is best defined as the A) dB level at which one can understand speech. B) intensity and frequency of spoken English. C) Hz level at which the average person can detect sound. D) level at which the human ear can discriminate between similar sounds.
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dB level at which one can understand speech.
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When testing the hearing of a two-year-old child, an audiologist should avoid use of which type of audiometry? A) brain-stem-evoked response B) speech C) tympanometry D) conditioned play
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speech
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All of the following identify the location of hearing loss EXCEPT A) conductive. B) mixed. C) sensorineural. D) adventitious.
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adventitious
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A condition in which the external auditory canal does not form is A) atresia B) otitis C) anoxia D) atrium
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atresia
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Swimmers’ ear A) is a myth, the external canal is impervious to infections. B) is medically known as external otitis, an infection of the skin of the external auditory canal. C) is caused by allergies to algae in the water. D) is caused by a perforation of the eardrum.
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is medically known as external otitis, an infection of the skin of the external auditory canal.
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The most severe hearing impairments are associated with which part of the ear? A) middle ear B) eardrum C) inner ear D) outer ear
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inner ear
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All of the following are problems associated with inner ear hearing loss EXCEPT A) sound distortion. B) balance problems. C) ringing noises. D) draining fluid.
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draining fluid
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The most frequent viral cause of deafness in newborns is A) otitis media. B) maternal rubella. C) congenital herpes. D) congenital cytomegalovirus.
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congenital cytomegalovirus.
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Joanne is a nine-year-old girl with a hearing loss. She can hear loud voices if they are within a foot of her ear and can hear environmental sounds, though she usually can’t identify them. What degree of hearing loss does Joanne appear to have? A) mild B) marked C) severe D) anywhere between mild and severe
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severe
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Signs in American Sign Language consist of each of the following EXCEPT A) handshape. B) location. C) intensity. D) movement.
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intensity
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Each of the following is true about sign language EXCEPT A) It is a primitive, visual representation of oral language similar to mime. B) It has grammatical structure at the sentence level and the word level. C) There is no universal sign language. D) Twins who are born deaf develop a signing system, but it is rudimentary and less sophisticated than ASL.
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It is a primitive, visual representation of oral language similar to mime.
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Each of the following is true about children who are deaf EXCEPT A) They reach the same language development milestones in sign as children without hearing loss do in spoken language, but at a slower rate. B) They reach the same language development milestones in sign at the same time as children without hearing loss do in spoken language. C) They are at a distinct disadvantage regarding acquisition of spoken language. D) They are at a distinct disadvantage regarding acquisition of English language comprehension.
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They reach the same language development milestones in sign as children without hearing loss do in spoken language, but at a slower rate.
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When performance tests, rather than verbal tests, are used, A) the IQ scores of both those who are hearing and those who are deaf are lower. B) the IQ scores of those who are deaf are lower than those who are hearing. C) the IQ scores of those who are deaf are higher than those who are hearing. D) there is no difference in IQ scores between those who are deaf and those who are hearing.
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there is no difference in IQ scores between those who are deaf and those who are hearing.
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With respect to phonology skills in students who are deaf A) because they are virtually non-existent, they are largely irrelevant to their learning to read. B) they should be ignored in reading instruction because they interfere with the visual skills needed to learn sign. C) they are similar to phonology skills of students with reading disabilities. D) they are most easily acquired if they are integrated into a differentiated curriculum model of instruction.
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they are similar to phonology skills of students with reading disabilities.
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Among students who are deaf, those who achieve the highest levels of literacy tend to have A) hearing parents who teach them how to speak. B) parents who are deaf who teach them ASL. C) brothers and sisters who are hearing. D) parents who communicate with them using both ASL and speech.
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parents who are deaf who teach them ASL.
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The two factors that seem to have a positive effect on social adjustment are A) more inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who hear B) more inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who are deaf C) less inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who hear D) less inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who are deaf
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less inclusion with hearing peers and having parents who are deaf
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All of the following factors identify the Deaf community as a true culture EXCEPT A) voluntary organizational networks such as National Theater of the Deaf. B) historical awareness documenting people and events significant to deafness. C) predominant pattern of intermarriage with people outside of the Deaf community. D) well-established behavioral guidelines with regard to such things as eye contact and physical touching.
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predominant pattern of intermarriage with people outside of the Deaf community.
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A deaf baseball player for whom a petition has been circulated for him to be inducted into the Major League Baseball Hall of Fame is: A) Yogi Berra. B) Johnny Lipon. C) “Dummy” Hoy. D) Al Kaline.
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“Dummy” Hoy
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A particularly controversial point of view held by many members of the Deaf culture is that A) children should not receive cochlear implants to improve their hearing. B) parents should not permit children who are deaf to learn English. C) all students who are deaf should attend residential schools until the age of 16. D) all citizens should be required to learn American Sign Language.
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children should not receive cochlear implants to improve their hearing
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The genetic engineering debate regarding Deaf activism refers to members of the Deaf community who want to A) eliminate embryos that have the Connexin-26 gene because in can cause deafness B) physically alter a gene to cause a baby to be hearing C) eradicate deafness in vitro D) deliberately increase their chances of having a deaf child
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deliberately increase their chances of having a deaf child
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The auditory-verbal approach encourages children with hearing impairment to A) depend on their peers for sound cues. B) use their residual hearing. C) learn sign language as quickly as possible. D) focus on visual cues.
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use their residual hearing.
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Teaching people with hearing impairments to use visual information (such as facial expressions) to understand what is being said to them is A) speechreading. B) lipreading. C) face reading. D) gestural reading.
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speechreading.
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The total communication approach uses A) Braille and manual communication. B) sign language and a typewriter. C) a telephone and a computer. D) oral and manual communication.
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oral and manual communication.
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Each of the following statements about signing English systems is true EXCEPT A) They are the type of manualism most often used in total communication. B) They follow the same word order as spoken English. C) They include fingerspelling. D) They result in more fluency than ASL.
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They result in more fluency than ASL.
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A principle underlying the bicultural-bilingual approach is A) teaching the history of the Deaf culture instead of that of the dominant culture. B) providing a foundation in spoken English to serve as a basis for ASL. C) stressing that ASL is the primary language, and English is secondary. D) encouraging hearing people to learn ASL as a second language.
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stressing that ASL is the primary language, and English is secondary.
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FM systems are used in conjunction with hearing aids to A) amplify sound. B) increase reverberation. C) provide individualized instruction. D) broadcast the schedule of daily events.
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amplify sound.
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Virtually all new television programs are captioned for use by people with hearing impairment. Federal law requires that TVs over 13 inches must A) contain a chip that produces captions. B) come with a decoder. C) come with a VCR. D) come with a teletypewriter.
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contain a chip that produces captions.
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A TT is a device for A) decoding closed captions on TV. B) accessing teletext service. C) printing sign language texts. D) communicating via telephone.
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communicating via telephone.
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Currently, approximately what percentage of students with hearing impairments attends their local schools? A) 86% B) 8% C) 10% D) 18%
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86%
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In recent years, many parents and professionals have questioned the trend toward inclusion of children with hearing impairment because A) it creates too much work for the general education teacher. B) they do not get along with the other students. C) it reduces their opportunity to participate in the signing community. D) they do not have the cognitive or academic skills to succeed in the mainstream.
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it reduces their opportunity to participate in the signing community.
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Many in the Deaf community believe that residential schools for children who are deaf are necessary to A) perpetuate the Deaf culture and use of ASL. B) ensure that students learn age-appropriate social skills. C) provide jobs for those who are deaf as workers in the schools. D) overcome the negative effects of many home situations.
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perpetuate the Deaf culture and use of ASL.
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Which statement about the assessment of progress of students who have hearing impairments is true? A) Curriculum-based measurement is not an appropriate method for measuring reading fluency for these students. B) Most standardized assessments are biased towards the majority culture. C) Research does not support the development of phonics-based reading skills for these students. D) Several standardized measures of reading ability are available for these students.
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Most standardized assessments are biased towards the majority culture.
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The focus of early intervention for children with hearing impairments is on A) social skills. B) language development. C) play. D) self-esteem.
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language development
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Children with deafness who have parents who are also deaf A) develop language more slowly than do infants with deafness who have hearing parents. B) tend to be overly dependent on their parents when they reach school age. C) develop ASL at a rate similar to the rate at which hearing infants develop English. D) have difficulty relating to hearing children when placed in mainstream preschool settings.
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develop ASL at a rate similar to the rate at which hearing infants develop English.
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Frank, who is deaf, is the six-month-old son of hearing parents. To interact effectively with Frank, his parents should A) emphasize lip movements. B) encourage verbal babbling. C) attend to eye gaze. D) avoid use of speech.
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attend to eye gaze.
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Until the mid-1960s the only institution specifically for post-secondary education of students with hearing impairments was A) Rochester. B) Gallaudet. C) Stanford. D) Georgetown.
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Gallaudet
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Sign language interpreters A) use ASL. B) use transliteration. C) use a hybrid of ASL and transliteration, Signed American Sign Language (SASL). D) can use either ASL or transliteration.
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can use either ASL or transliteration.
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What percentage of deaf children have hearing parents? A) 10% B) 5% C) 50% D) 90%
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90%
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Students who are deaf who do not go on to post-secondary training may face increased obstacles to employment in the future because A) increasingly fewer employers are willing to employ workers who sign. B) the manual trades that they typically prepare for are disappearing. C) antidiscrimination laws do not cover students with inadequate training. D) there will be increased competition for the same jobs by individuals with other disabilities.
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the manual trades that they typically prepare for are disappearing.
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1) The most obvious problem of children with E/BD is A) imaginary friendships. B) aggression aimed at others. C) lack of close emotional ties. D) social fear or disinterest.
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C) lack of close emotional ties.
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2) Many different terms have been used to designate children who have extreme social interpersonal and/or intrapersonal problems. Which term have some pointed out has the advantage of focusing attention on the clearly observable aspect of these children’s problems: A) behaviorally disordered. B) emotionally disturbed. C) socially maladjusted. D) emotionally conflicted.
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A) behaviorally disordered.
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3) The terminology proposed by the National Mental Health and Special Education Coalition in 1990 is A) serious emotional disturbance. B) severe behavioral disorder. C) emotional or behavioral disorder. D) emotionally or behaviorally challenged.
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C) emotional or behavioral disorder.
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4) The problematic behavior of children and youth with EBD tends to be A) exhibited more often in highly structured environments. B) a psychological processing problem. C) a sudden onset of extremely inappropriate behavior. D) episodic, highly variable, and situation specific.
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D) episodic, highly variable, and situation specific.
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5) The federal definition of E/BD has been most widely criticized for its exclusion of children with A) autism. B) schizophrenia. C) social maladjustment. D) attention deficit disorder.
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C) social maladjustment.
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6) In contrast to the present federal definition, the proposed National Mental Health and Special Education Coalition definition of E/BD A) recognizes that disorders of emotion and behavior may occur separately or in combination. B) focuses on problems that exist in a school setting only. C) excludes students with schizophrenia. D) is less sensitive to ethnic and cultural differences.
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A) recognizes that disorders of emotion and behavior may occur separately or in combination.
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7) Two broad dimensions of behavior disorders are A) externalizing and internalizing. B) withdrawal and disinterest. C) exterior and interior. D) hostility and aggression.
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A) externalizing and internalizing.
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8) Schizophrenia is associated the least with which of the following problems? A) delusions and hallucinations. B) tendency to withdraw into their own private worlds. C) epileptic seizures. D) severe disorder of thinking.
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C) epileptic seizures.
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9) Comorbidity in persons with E/BD is A) not unusual. B) very unusual. C) rare. D) part of the diagnosis.
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A) not unusual.
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10) According to the federal government, what percentage of the school-age population is identified for special education services under the category of “emotional disturbance”? A) less than 1% B) about 2% C) 3-5% D) 6-10%
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A) less than 1%
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11) What percentage of the school-aged population exhibits serious and persistent emotional/behavioral problems, according to credible studies in the U.S. and other countries? A) less than 1% B) about 2% C) 6-10% D) 10-15%.
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C) 6-10%
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12) Each of the following statements about children with E/BD is true EXCEPT A) aggressive acting-out behavior is most common. B) boys outnumber girls. C) most students identified are psychotic. D) juvenile delinquency and conduct disorder cannot be clearly distinguished from emotional disturbance.
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C
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13) The causes of E/BD have been attributed to each of the following EXCEPT A) biological disorders and diseases. B) pathological family relationships. C) undesirable school experiences. D) membership in a particular cultural group.
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D
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14) In the majority of cases, the cause of E/BD is A) biological. B) family-related. C) unknown. D) school-based.
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C
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15) A biologically determined behavioral style is a A) personality. B) temperament. C) learning style. D) attitude.
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B
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16) Each of the following statements about biological causes of E/BD is true EXCEPT A) If a disorder has a biological cause it can still be an emotional or behavioral disorder. B) Causes are usually exclusively biological or exclusively psychological. C) Medical treatment is seldom the only intervention needed. D) Medical approaches may be of little benefit if psychological and social aspects are not addressed.
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B
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17) Each of the following is true regarding school practices and development of E/BD EXCEPT A) Children may become better or worse, depending on how they are managed in the classroom. B) A child’s temperament and social competence interact with behaviors of peers and teachers. C) We know which specific school experiences contribute to E/BD. D) Teachers need to be aware of how their academic instruction and behavior management approaches may contribute to student’s misconduct.
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C
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18) Each of the following societal conditions may predispose children to develop E/BD EXCEPT A) availability and level of drug use. B) a child’s temperament. C) level of violence depicted in the media. D) use of terror as a means of coercion.
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B
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19) Despite problems in defining E/BD, most children with severe E/BD are easily recognized because A) teachers are trained in the use of behavior rating scales. B) systematic screening procedures are used in most schools. C) their behavior attracts immediate attention. D) most schools have psychologists on-site.
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C
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20) Bert is a nine-year-old boy with E/BD. If he is like the typical child with E/BD, his IQ score probably falls in which range on standardized tests? A) dull-normal B) bright-normal C) normal D) superior
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A
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21) On standardized achievement tests, most students with E/BD perform A) at grade level. B) above grade level. C) at mental age level. D) below grade level.
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D
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22) The most common problems exhibited by children with E/BD are A) withdrawn behaviors. B) attention deficit disorders. C) impulsive behaviors. D) conduct disorders.
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D
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23) Many social learning theorists and behavioral psychologists believe that aggression is A) caused by an overwhelming sense of frustration. B) a result of subconscious motives. C) a defense mechanism used in distressing situations. D) a learned behavior.
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D
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24) Erik is a sixth grader with E/BD who is highly aggressive. His teacher, Mr. Glumbly, should be advised to try all of the following techniques with Erik EXCEPT A) providing examples of nonaggressive responses in aggression-provoking circumstances. B) role-playing nonaggressive behavior with him. C) preventing him from receiving positive consequences for aggression. D) letting him “act out” his aggression freely.
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D
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25) The Olweus Bullying Prevention Program includes all of the following EXCEPT A) Avoid involving parents unless absolutely necessary because they can actually make the situation worse. B) If an incident occurs the parents should be contacted in a timely manner. C) Facilitate discussions of bullying in the classroom. D) Establish rules and consequences for bullying.
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A
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26) A social-learning analysis attributes withdrawal and immaturity to A) inadequate environment. B) internal conflicts. C) unconscious motivations. D) conscious motivations.
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A
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27) Behavioral psychologists tend to attribute withdrawal and immaturity to A) internal conflicts. B) unconscious motivations. C) conscious motivations. D) failures in social learning.
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D
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28) Which of the following statements about depression is true? A) Depression is not a widespread problem among children and adolescents. B) The nature of depression in children and adolescents is quite different from that of adults. C) Suicide is among the leading causes of death among young people. D) Antidepressant medications have not been successful in helping young people with depression.
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C
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29) All credible conceptual models of education have two objectives. They are A) controlling misbehavior and teaching academic and social skills. B) controlling misbehavior and teaching academic skills. C) teaching academic and social skills. D) controlling misbehavior and teaching social skills.
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A
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30) To maximize their effectiveness, programs for students with E/BD should provide a balance between A) behavioral control and academic/social instruction. B) academic/social instruction and vocational training. C) psychological therapy and academic/social instruction. D) individualized instruction and behavioral control.
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A
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31) Each of the following statements regarding the need to balance behavioral control with academic and social learning is true EXCEPT A) Too often, the focus is on academic instruction at the expense of social learning and student behavior. B) Excellent academic instruction has been shown to eliminate most disruptive behaviors. C) Without effective behavior control, it is extremely unlikely that academic and social learning will occur. D) Behavior control strategies preferably involve students in self-control strategies.
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A
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32) The importance of integrated services for students with E/BD means that A) subject areas within the curriculum should not be taught in isolation from each other. B) students with E/BD should be fully included in regular classrooms. C) schools, families, and community agencies should cooperate to meet students’ needs. D) therapy should occur in school within the context of the student’s academic program.
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C
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33) Susan and Mike are looking to place their son, Max, in an effective educational program for students with E/BD. They should select a program that includes all of the following elements EXCEPT A) systematic, data-based interventions. B) direct, daily assessment of performance. C) emphasis on self-awareness, mindfulness activities. D) programming for transfer and maintenance.
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C
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34) In comparison to the percentage of students with most other disabilities, students with E/BD are more likely to be educated in A) general education classrooms. B) resource room programs. C) less restrictive settings. D) more restrictive settings.
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D
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35) The trend in programs for students with EBD is toward A) institutionalization. B) resource rooms. C) integration into more restrictive placements. D) integration into general education classrooms whenever possible.
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D
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36) Each of the following is true of instructional considerations for students with E/BD EXCEPT A) Incidental social learning is sufficient and preferred to address social difficulties. B) If social skills are improved any academic deficits will improve to the point of not being an issue. C) Many incarcerated youths actually receive better instruction because they are in a highly structured environment. D) Kindness and concern are not sufficient qualities for teachers of students with E/BD.
answer

C
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37) The expertise of any teacher of students with EDB includes understanding, assessing, and managing behavior to promote learning. The teacher needs the following skills EXCEPT A) use of intelligence tests and standardized achievement tests to make placement decisions. B) knowledge of prevention and intervention strategies. C) use of nonaversive techniques. D) establishment of consistent classroom routines.
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A
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38) Increasingly, researchers recognize that problem behavior occurs less frequently in the classroom when A) the teacher is offering effective instruction. B) the teacher allows unstructured free time each day. C) the teacher separates students with behavior problems from other students. D) the teacher consistently punishes each occurrence of problem behavior.
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A
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39) In the case of discipline, “zero tolerance” means that A) the circumstances surrounding an incident are not weighed in deciding what the consequences should be; only the act itself is questioned. B) the circumstances surrounding an incident are weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, and the act itself is questioned. C) the circumstances surrounding an incident are weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, but the act itself is not questioned. D) the circumstances surrounding an incident are not weighed in deciding what the consequences should be, and the act itself is not questioned.
answer

A
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40) All of the following are controversial concepts specific to discipline of students with disabilities EXCEPT A) determining if behavior is a manifestation of disability. B) use of corporal punishment. C) providing alternative placement for education. D) developing functional behavior assessments.
answer

B
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41) Proponents of positive behavioral intervention and support A) forbid the use of punishment. B) recognize the value of nonviolent negative consequences (punishment) in managing behavior. C) believe that there are rare occasions when it is necessary to use aversive punishments, such as solitary confinement. D) believe that there are rare occasions when it is necessary to use aversive punishments, such as corporal punishment.
answer

B
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42) Under IDEA, “functional behavioral assessment” (FBA) A) simply means assessment that is based on psychoanalytic as well as behavioral principles. B) clearly refers to a specific set of procedures designed to pinpoint the function of a student’s behavior. C) is optional. D) is designed by school administrators.
answer

B
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43) With respect to monitoring the progress of students with E/BD, A) academic as well as behavioral assessment is usually necessary. B) standardized assessments are more accurate than teacher rating scales. C) curriculum-based assessments are outdated. D) teacher rating scales are all that are actually required to assess the students’ behavior.
answer

A
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44) All of the following patterns of behavior signal problems in preschool EXCEPT A) grabbing, kicking, and screaming to get one’s way. B) frequent conflicts and aloofness from others. C) infrequent outbursts, but with apparent reason. D) hiding from strangers.
answer

C
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45) Effective interventions for preschool children with E/BD that include defining and measuring behavior and rearranging the environment to teach and support more appropriate conduct are A) psychoeducational. B) humanistic. C) ecological. D) behavioral.
answer

D
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46) Each of the following is a reason why early, comprehensive, intense, and sustained intervention is so rare EXCEPT A) worry about labeling and stigma. B) lack of familiarity with the early signs of problems. C) optimism about a child’s development (i.e., “he’ll grow out of it”). D) lack of resources for any but the most severe cases.
answer

D
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47) Tad is a 15-year-old youth with a long-standing history of school failure and serious behavioral offenses. He is currently in prison and receives no special education services. A likely reason why Tad is not receiving services is that A) IDEA does not apply to prison schools. B) Tad is considered “socially maladjusted” and therefore is not eligible for services. C) because he has been convicted of a serious offense, Tad has lost the right to a free, appropriate public education. D) Tad has refused to participate in special education programming.
answer

B
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48) It is difficult to design a specific education program for E/BD at the secondary level because A) services provided for E/BD usually omit secondary education. B) few special educators are interested in this field. C) this category of youths is so varied. D) subject areas are varied and training of professionals is limited.
answer

C
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49) Transition from school to work is particularly difficult for many adolescents with E/BD for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) a high rate of dropping out of school. B) neglectful, abusive, or inadequate family relationships. C) over-emphasis on vocational training rather than academics. D) behavior that is unacceptable to peers and employers.
answer

C
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50) Among children and adolescents with E/BD, the future is especially grim for those with A) neurosis. B) conduct disorders. C) withdrawal. D) anxiety and depression.
answer

B
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1) Communication requires A) language. B) encoding and decoding. C) speech. D) listening and speaking.
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B
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2) Requesting objects, rejecting interactions, sharing ideas, and seeking social interaction are examples of A) communicative function. B) communication. C) language. D) expressive language.
answer

A
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3) The communication of ideas through an arbitrary system of symbols used according to certain rules that determine meaning is A) speech. B) language. C) communication. D) phonology.
answer

B
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4) Encoding, or sending messages, is referred to as A) expressive language. B) receptive language. C) discourse. D) communication.
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A
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5) Decoding, or understanding messages, is referred to as A) communication. B) expressive language. C) discourse. D) receptive language.
answer

D
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6) The neuromuscular activity of forming and sequencing the sounds of oral language is called A) communication. B) discourse. C) speech. D) phonology.
answer

C
question

7) “Phonology” refers to linguistic rules governing A) construction of sentences. B) particular sounds and how they are sequenced. C) patterns of language use. D) construction of word forms.
answer

B
question

8) The meanings and concepts people attach to words and sentences are referred to as A) morphology. B) pragmatics. C) syntax. D) semantics.
answer

D
question

9) A language disorder that involves problems with functional and socially appropriate communication is A) communication. B) semantics. C) speech. D) pragmatics.
answer

D
question

10) Shaunta has a speech disorder which causes her to stutter. This is a disorder of A) articulation. B) motor-speech. C) voice. D) fluency.
answer

D
question

11) All of the following are examples of speech disorders EXCEPT A) semantic disorder. B) articulation disorder. C) fluency disorder. D) voice disorder.
answer

A
question

12) It is difficult to estimate the prevalence of communication disorders primarily because A) there is so much overlap with other categories of disability. B) schools do not maintain accurate records in this area. C) many parents are reluctant to allow their children to receive speech and language services. D) definitions of communication disorders vary so much from state to state.
answer

A
question

13) Approximately what percentage of children identified for special education receives services primarily for speech or language disorders? A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 20%
answer

D
question

14) Approximately what percentage of preschool-age students is thought to have a speech disorder? A) 1% B) 8-9% C) 15% D) 20%
answer

B
question

15) Approximately what percentage of the school-age population is thought to have a language disorder? A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 20%
answer

A
question

16) Which one of the following is the best example of a language variation? A) Appalachian English B) acquired aphasia C) stuttering D) American Sign Language
answer

A
question

17) Which of the following statements about communication variations is true? A) If a student does not use the language expected in school, she or he has a language disorder. B) Someone with a language difference who also has difficulty communicating even in his or her home language community. C) Children of nondominant cultures should not be expected to learn the rules for effective communication in the dominant culture. D) Professionals no longer have a problem of bias in normative tests of language assessment.
answer

B
question

18) Which statement is true concerning the comparison between the language of a normally developing child and one with a language disorder? A) The sequence of development is similar, but milestones are reached at later years by the child with a disorder. B) The sequence of development is different, but milestones are reached at around the same ages. C) The sequence of development is different, and milestones are reached later by the child with a disorder. D) There is no developmental difference; they just sound different.
answer

A
question

19) Many children do not learn to produce all speech sounds correctly until they A) are 18 months old. B) are 3 years old. C) are 8-9 years old. D) leave high school (16-18 years old).
answer

C
question

20) The theory that language depends on brain development and proper brain functioning and that language disorders resulting from brain dysfunction can sometimes be compensated for is the theory of A) biological maturation. B) behavioral psychology. C) information processing. D) cognitive development.
answer

A
question

21) The social interaction, or pragmatic, theory of language development suggests that A) comprehending language is more important than producing language. B) language is taught by direct instruction and arrangement of consequences. C) language development is easily separated from social and cognitive development. D) the natural environment may be arranged to teach more effective language.
answer

D
question

22) At present, which theory of communication is considered to have the most direct implications for speech-language pathologists and teachers? A) cognitive development B) pragmatic or social interaction C) behavioral psychology D) biological maturation
answer

B
question

23) Language disorders are generally classified according to two dimensions: A) domain and etiology. B) primary and secondary causes. C) phonology and cause. D) specific impairment and expressive delay.
answer

A
question

24) Each of the following statements about classification of language disorders is true EXCEPT A) If by age 2 years a child is not using two-word utterances, he might be considered to have early expressive language delay (EELD). B) About half the children whose language development is delayed at age 2 will gradually catch up developmentally. C) A significant percentage of the children who show language impairments in kindergarten will have obvious reading problems by second grade. D) Difficulty in using language in social interactions and relationships is an exclusive feature of secondary language disorders.
answer

D
question

25) Specific language impairment refers to A) language disorders resulting from learning disabilities. B) language disorders with no identifiable cause. C) language disorders occurring concomitantly with other disorders. D) language disorders resulting from mental retardation.
answer

B
question

26) An example of a primary language disorder is a/an A) phonological disorder. B) articulation disorder. C) early expressive language delay. D) fluency disorder.
answer

C
question

27) A failure of the child to understand the rules for producing the sounds of their language at an age-appropriate level and in a culturally appropriate way represents A) phonological disorders. B) articulation disorders. C) voice disorders. D) developmental apraxia.
answer

A
question

28) Articulation disorders A) are easily distinguished. B) are genetically based. C) have no known causes. D) involve errors in sound production.
answer

D
question

29) Which one of the following is an articulation disorder? A) lisping B) stuttering C) aphasia D) mutism
answer

A
question

30) The dimensions of voice are A) resonance, pitch, and tone. B) resonance, loudness, and quality. C) pitch, loudness, and quality. D) resonance, pitch, and quality.
answer

C
question

31) Causes of voice disorders include all of the following EXCEPT A) hearing loss. B) cleft palate. C) chicken pox. D) nodules.
answer

C
question

32) The most frequent type of fluency disorder is A) stuttering. B) acquired aphasia. C) echolalia. D) dysarthria.
answer

A
question

33) What percentage of children and adults are considered stutterers? A) 1% B) 2% C) 5% D) 8%
answer

A
question

34) Due to a brain injury, Ethan has difficulty selecting and sequencing speech. He knows he makes errors and what he wants to say, but simply cannot. Henry’s condition is A) dysarthria. B) stuttering. C) acquired apraxia. D) acquired aphasia.
answer

C
question

35) A disorder due to brain damage that affects a person’s respiratory support for making speech sounds is A) apraxia. B) echolalia. C) dysarthria. D) aphasia.
answer

C
question

36) The primary role of the classroom teacher is to facilitate development of which aspect of language? A) phonology B) semantics C) pragmatics D) morphology
answer

C
question

37) Which one of the following is an example of an alternative question-asking strategy? A) focusing on student-initiated questions B) reducing the complexity of a question C) increasing interaction between student and teacher so both members ask and answer questions D) creating several questions with synonymous meaning
answer

B
question

38) Students with communication disorders may have trouble with stories about ideas or events they have experienced or thought about, called A) autobiographical narratives. B) personal essays. C) first-person accounts. D) personal narratives.
answer

D
question

39) The ability to transfer written words into speech is A) phonology. B) decoding. C) encoding. D) reading.
answer

B
question

40) All of the following are guidelines that teachers and parents can follow when talking with children with speech and language disorders EXCEPT A) Lead the discussion. B) Talk about things the child is interested in. C) Allow enough time for the child to respond. D) Do not interrupt the student.
answer

A
question

41) Which of the following statements about written language development is true? A) Written language and literacy are not usually problems for students with speech and language disorders. B) As students progress throughout the grades, written language takes on increasing importance. C) Students with language disorders tend to express themselves clearly in writing. D) Mastering the alphabetic system is not part of written language instruction.
answer

B
question

42) Methods of progress monitoring that involve a cycle of teaching, followed by testing, and then reteaching as necessary are A) dynamic assessments. B) curriculum-based language and communication assessment. C) curriculum-based management. D) response to intervention.
answer

A
question

43) All of the following are examples of functional speech language activities EXCEPT A) developing appropriate conversation skills. B) using private transportation. C) following instructions. D) performing a job.
answer

B
question

44) Much of a child’s language and social development depend on two characteristics of language interaction the child has with caregivers. What are the characteristics? A) nature and quantity of the language B) quality and variety of the language C) variety and resonance of the language D) loudness and functionality of the language
answer

A
question

45) Jeremy is a four-year-old boy who makes infantile noises and uses gestures to request objects. He displays A) articulation problems. B) acquired aphasia. C) prelinguistic communication. D) syntactic dysfunction.
answer

C
question

46) Which procedure most closely resembles “milieu teaching?” A) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks “What do you want to do with the ball?” The teacher gives Fiona the ball only when she replies to the question. B) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who says “There are fun things to do with a ball!” The teacher then gives Fiona the ball. C) Fiona requests a ball from her teacher who asks “What do you want to do with the ball?” The teacher waits five seconds, then gives Fiona the ball whether she replies to the question or not. D) Fiona’s teacher tells her to play with a ball, then observes her playing and waits for opportunities to interact verbally with her.
answer

A
question

47) Ideally, the earliest intervention in the area of speech and language development, if needed, should begin A) during the first few months of life. B) between the ages of 12 and 18 months. C) when the child is of preschool age. D) in kindergarten.
answer

A
question

48) Jennie is a preschooler with delayed language development. Language intervention at this level generally focuses on A) articulation. B) verb forms and plurals. C) discourse. D) concept development.
answer

C
question

49) Each of the following statements about adolescents and adults with speech and language problems is true EXCEPT A) They might refer themselves to a speech-language pathologist because of social embarrassment. B) The loss of the ability to speak is typically more disabling than the loss of the ability to use language. C) People with severe disabilities may need to be taught an alternative to oral language or be given an augmentative communication system. D) There may be problems settings realistic goals for speech and language learning.
answer

B
question

50) Which condition reduces the effectiveness of strategy training for adolescents with speech and language disorders? A) use of natural group settings B) emphasis on vocational goals C) poor reading skills D) involvement of peers
answer

C