Ch.16 Cancer Study Guide Qs – Flashcards

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question
The nurse is presenting a community education program related to cancer prevention. Based on current cancer death rates, the nurse emphasizes what as the most important preventive action for both women and men? a. Smoking cessation b. Routine colonoscopies c. Protection from ultraviolet light d. Regular examination of reproductive organs
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a. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer deaths in the United States for both women and men and smoking cessation is one of the most important cancer prevention behaviors. Approximately one half of cancer-related deaths in the U.S. are related to tobacco use, unhealthy diet, physical inactivity, and obesity. Cancers of the reproductive organs are the second leading cause of cancer deaths.
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What defect in cellular proliferation is involved in the development of cancer? a. A rate of cell proliferation that is more rapid than that of normal body cells b. Shortened phases of cell life cycles with occasional skipping of G1 or S phases c. Rearrangement of stem cell RNA that causes abnormal cellular protein synthesis d. Indiscriminate and continuous proliferation of cells with loss of contact inhibition
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d. Malignant cells proliferate indiscriminately and continuously and also lose the characteristic of contact inhibition, growing on top of and in between normal cells. Cancer cells usually do not proliferate at a faster rate than normal cells, nor can cell cycles be skipped in proliferation. However, malignant proliferation is continuous, unlike normal cells.
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What does the presence of carcinoembryonic antigens (CEAs) and α-fetoprotein (AFP) on cell membranes indicate has happened to the cells? a. They have shifted to more immature metabolic pathways and functions. b. They have spread from areas of original development to different body tissues. c. They produce abnormal toxins or chemicals that indicate abnormal cellular function. d. They have become more differentiated as a result of repression of embryonic functions.
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a. Cancer cells become more fetal and embryonic (undifferentiated) in appearance and function and some produce new proteins, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and α-fetoprotein (AFP), on cell membranes that reflect a return to more immature functioning. The other options are unrelated to CEA and AFP.
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What factor differentiates a malignant tumor from a benign tumor? a. It causes death. b. It grows at a faster rate. c. It is often encapsulated. d. It invades and metastasizes.
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d. The major difference between malignant and benign cells is the ability of malignant tumor cells to invade and metastasize. Benign tumors can cause death by expansion into normal tissues and organs. Benign tumors are more often encapsulated and often grow at the same rate as malignant tumors.
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A patient is admitted with acute myelogenous leukemia and a history of Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the nurse likely to find in the patient's history? a. Work as a radiation chemist b. Epstein-Barr virus diagnosed in vitro c. Intense tanning throughout the lifetime d. Alkylating agents for treating the Hodgkin's lymphoma
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d. Alkylating agents are used to treat Hodgkin's lymphoma and are carcinogens associated with initiation of acute myelogenous leukemia. Working with radiation would lead to a higher incidence of bone cancer. Epstein-Barr virus is seen in vitro with Burkitt's lymphoma. Intense tanning or exposure to ultraviolet radiation is associated with skin cancers.
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Which mutated tumor suppressor gene is most likely to contribute to many types of cancer, including bladder, breast, colorectal, and lung? a. p53 b. APC c. BRCA1 d. BRCA2
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a. Mutations in the p53 tumor suppressor gene have been found in many cancers, including bladder, breast, colorectal, esophageal, liver, lung, and ovarian cancers. APC gene mutations increase a person's risk for familiar adenomatous polyposis, which is a precursor for colorectal cancer. BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk for breast and ovarian cancer.
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Cancer cells go through stages of development. What accurately describes the stage of promotion (select all that apply)? a. Obesity is an example of a promoting factor. b. The stage is characterized by increased growth rate and metastasis. c. Withdrawal of promoting factors will reduce the risk of cancer development. d. Tobacco smoke is a complete carcinogen that is capable of both initiation and promotion. e. Promotion is the stage of cancer development in which there is an irreversible alteration in the cell's DNA.
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a, c, d. Promoting factors such as obesity and tobacco smoke promote cancer in the promotion stage of cancer development. Eliminating risk factors can reduce the chance of cancer development as the activity of promoters is reversible in this stage. Increased growth, invasion, and metastasis are seen in the progressive stage.
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The patient was told she has carcinoma in situ, and the student nurse wonders what that is. How should the nurse explain this to the student nurse? a. Evasion of the immune system by cancer cells b. Lesion with histologic features of cancer except invasion c. Capable of causing cellular alterations associated with cancer d. Tumor cell surface antigens that stimulate an immune response
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b. Carcinoma in situ has the histologic features except invasion. Evasion of the immune system by cancer cells by various methods is immunologic escape. Oncogenic factors are capable of causing cellular alterations associated with cancer. Tumor cell surface antigens that stimulate an immune response are tumor-associated antigens.
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Which word identifies a mutation of protooncogenes? a. Oncogenes b. Retrogenes c. Oncofetal antigens d. Tumor angiogenesis factor
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a. Oncogenes are the mutation of protooncogenes, which then induce tumors. Oncogenic viruses cause genetic alterations and mutations that allow the cell to express the abilities and properties it had in fetal development and may lead to cancer. Oncofetal antigens are antigens that are found on the surface and inside the cancer cells. They are an expression of the cells usually associated with embryonic or fetal periods of life and may be used as tumor markers to monitor treatment. Tumor angiogenesis factor is the substance within tumors that promotes blood vessel development.
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What is the name of a tumor from the embryonal mesoderm tissue of origin located in the anatomic site of the meninges that has malignant behavior? a. Meningitis b. Meningioma c. Meningocele d. Meningeal sarcoma
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d. Meningeal sarcoma is from the embryonal mesoderm, is located in the meninges, and is malignant. A meningioma has the same tissue of origin and anatomic site but it is benign. Meningitis is inflammation or infection of the meninges. Meningocele is a hernia cyst filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
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A patient's breast tumor originates from embryonal ectoderm. It has moderate dysplasia and moderately differentiated cells. It is a small tumor with minimal lymph node involvement and no metastases. What is the best description of this tumor? a. Sarcoma, grade II, T3N4M0 b. Leukemia, grade I, T1N2M1 c. Carcinoma, grade II, T1N1M0 d. Lymphoma, grade III, T1N0M
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c. The breast cancer origination gives it the anatomic classification of a carcinoma. Grade II has moderate abnormal cells with moderate differentiation. T1N1M0 represents a small tumor with only minimal regional spread to the lymph nodes and no metastasis. Sarcomas originate from embryonal mesoderm or connective tissue, muscle, bone, and fat. Leukemias and lymphomas originate from the hematopoietic system. The other histologic grading and TNM classifications do not represent this patient's tumor.
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The nurse is counseling a group of individuals over the age of 50 with average risk for cancer about screening tests for cancer. Which screening recommendation should be performed to screen for colorectal cancer? a. Barium enema every year b. Colonoscopy every 10 years c. Fecal occult blood every 5 years d. Annual prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and digital rectal exam
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b. Healthy men and women should have a colonoscopy every 10 years, an annual fecal occult blood test, or a barium enema every 5 years. These frequencies may change depending on the results. Annual PSA and digital rectal exams screen for prostate problems, although the decision to test is made by the patient with his health care provider.
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A small lesion is discovered in a patient's lung when an x-ray is performed for cervical spine pain. What is the definitive method of determining if the lesion is malignant? a. Lung scan b. Tissue biopsy c. Oncofetal antigens in the blood d. CT or positron emission tomography (PET) scan
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b. Although other tests may be used in diagnosing the presence and extent of cancer, biopsy is the only method by which cells can be definitely determined to be malignant.
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A patient with a genetic mutation of BRCA1 and a family history of breast cancer is admitted to the surgical unit where she is scheduled that day for a bilateral simple mastectomy. What is the reason for this procedure? a. Prevent breast cancer b. Diagnose breast cancer c. Cure or control breast cancer d. Provide palliative care for untreated breast cancer
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a. A simple mastectomy can be done to prevent breast cancer in women with high risk and can be used to control, cure, or provide palliative care for breasts with cancerous tumors. A mastectomy would not be used for biopsy or otherwise to establish a diagnosis of cancer.
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15. Match the surgical procedures with their primary purposes in cancer treatment (answers may be used more than once). a. Mammoplasty___ b. Bowel resection____ c. Cordotomy for pain control____ d. Insertion of feeding tube into stomach____ e. Colostomy to bypass bowel obstruction___ f. Placement of a central venous catheter____ g. Debulking procedure to enhance radiation therapy____ h. Surgical fixation of bones at risk for pathologic fracture____ 1. Cure, control, or both 2. Supportive care 3. Palliation 4. Rehabilitation
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a.4;b.1;c.3;d.2;e.3;f.2;g.1;h.2.Mammoplastyis done for rehabilitation post mastectomy. A bowel resection and debulking procedure to enhance radiation therapy are done to cure or control cancer. Cordotomy for pain control and colostomy to bypass bowel obstruction are done for palliation. Supportive care includes insertion of a feeding tube, placement of a central venous catheter, and surgical fixation of bones at risk for pathologic fracture.
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Which patient would be most likely to be cured with chemotherapy as a treatment measure? a. Small cell lung cancer b. New neuroblastoma c. Small tumor of the bone d. Large hepatocellular carcinoma
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b. Neuroblastomas are cured with chemotherapy. A positive response of cancer cells to chemotherapy is most likely in solid or hematopoietic tumors that arise from tissue that has a rapid rate of cellular proliferation and new tumors with cells that are rapidly dividing. A state of optimum health and a positive attitude of the patient will also promote the success of chemotherapy.
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Which classification of chemotherapy drugs is cell cycle phase-nonspecific, breaks the DNA helix which interferes with DNA replication, and crosses the blood-brain barrier? a. Nitrosureas b. Antimetabolites c. Mitotic inhibitors d. Antitumor antibiotics
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a. Nitrosureas are cell cycle phase-nonspecific, break the DNA helix, and cross the blood-brain barrier. Antimetabolites are cell cycle phase-specific drugs that mimic essential cellular metabolites to interfere with DNA synthesis. Mitotic inhibitors are cell cycle phase-specific drugs that arrest mitosis. Antitumor antibiotics bind with DNA to block RNA production.
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The nurse uses many precautions during IV administration of vesicant chemotherapeutic agents, primarily to prevent a. septicemia. b. extravasation. c. catheter occlusion. d. anaphylactic shock.
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b. One of the major concerns with the IV administration of vesicant chemotherapeutic agents is infiltration or extravasation of drugs into tissue surrounding the infusion site. When infiltrated into the skin, vesicants cause pain, severe local breakdown, and necrosis. Specific measures to ensure adequate dilution, patency, and early detection of extravasation and treatment are important.
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For which type of malignancy should the nurse expect the use of the intravesical route of regional chemotherapy delivery? a. Bladder b. Leukemia c. Osteogenic sarcoma d. Metastasis to the brain
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a. Intravesical regional chemotherapy is administered into the bladder via a urinary catheter. Leukemia is treated with IV chemotherapy. Osteogenic sarcoma is treated with intraarterial chemotherapy via vessels supplying the tumor. Metastasis to the brain is treated with intraventricular or intrathecal chemotherapy via an Ommaya reservoir or lumbar punctures.
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Which delivery system would be used to deliver regional chemotherapy for metastasis from a primary colorectal cancer? a. Intrathecal b. Intraarterial c. Intravenous d. Intraperitoneal
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d. Intraperitoneal regional chemotherapeutic administration is used to treat metastasis from a primary colorectal cancer. Intrathecal administration is used with the spinal cord or the brain. Intraarterial administration is used to deliver chemotherapy to tumors via specific vessels. IV administration is used for systemic administration.
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When teaching the patient with cancer about chemotherapy, which approach should the nurse take? a. Avoid telling the patient about possible side effects of the drugs to prevent anticipatory anxiety. b. Explain that antiemetics, antidiarrheals, and analgesics will be provided as needed to control side effects. c. Assure the patient that the side effects from chemotherapy are uncomfortable but never life threatening. d. Inform the patient that chemotherapy-related alopecia is usually permanent but can be managed with lifelong use of wigs.
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b. Patients should always be taught what to expect during a course of chemotherapy, including side effects and expected outcome. Side effects of chemotherapy are serious but it is important that patients be informed about what measures can be taken to help them to cope with the side effects of therapy. Hair loss related to chemotherapy is usually reversible and wigs, scarves, or turbans can be used during and following chemotherapy until the hair grows back.
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Which normal tissues manifest early, acute responses to radiation therapy? a. Spleen and liver b. Kidney and nervous tissue c. Bone marrow and gastrointestinal (GI) mucosa d. Hollow organs such as the stomach and bladder
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c. Tissue that is actively proliferating, such as GI mucosa, esophageal and oropharyngeal mucosa, and bone marrow, exhibits early acute responses to radiation therapy. Radiation ionization breaks chemical bonds in DNA, which renders cells incapable of surviving mitosis. This loss of proliferative capacity yields cellular death at the time of division for both normal cells and cancer cells but cancer cells are more likely to be dividing because of the loss of control of cellular division. Cartilage, bone, kidney, and nervous tissues that proliferate slowly manifest subacute or late responses.
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The patient is learning about skin care related to the external radiation that he is receiving. Which instructions should the nurse include in this teaching? a. Moisturize skin with lotion b. Keep the area covered if it is sore c. Dry the skin thoroughly after cleansing it d. Avoid extreme temperatures to the area
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d. Avoiding sources of excessive heat and cold will prevent damage to the skin. Only nonmedicated, nonperfumed lotions or creams (e.g., calendula ointment, aloe gel, Aquaphor) are recommended for dry skin. The area should be exposed to air if possible. Gentle cleansing, thorough rinsing, and patting the treatment area dry are recommended.
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When a patient is undergoing brachytherapy, what is it important for the nurse to be aware of when caring for this patient? a. The patient will undergo simulation to identify and mark the field of treatment. b. The patient is a source of radiation and personnel must wear film badges during care. c. The goal of this treatment is only palliative and the patient should be aware of the expected outcome. d. Computerized dosimetry is used to determine the maximum dose of radiation to the tumor within an acceptable dose to normal tissue.
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b. Brachytherapy is the implantation or insertion of radioactive materials directly into the tumor or in proximity to the tumor and may be curative. The patient is a source of radiation and in addition to implementing the principles of time, distance, and shielding, film badges should be worn by caregivers to monitor the amount of radiation exposure. Computerized dosimetry and simulation are used in external radiation therapy.
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To prevent the debilitating cycle of fatigue-depression-fatigue in patients receiving radiation therapy, what should the nurse encourage the patient to do? a. Implement a walking program b. Ignore the fatigue as much as possible c. Do the most stressful activities when fatigue is tolerable d. Schedule rest periods throughout the day whether fatigue is present or not
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a. Walking programs scheduled during the time of day when the patient feels better are a way for patients to keep active without overtaxing themselves and help to combat the depression caused by inactivity. Ignoring the fatigue or overstressing the body can make symptoms worse and the patient should rest before activity and as necessary.
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When the patient asks about the late effects of chemotherapy and high-dose radiation, what areas of teaching should the nurse plan to include when describing these effects? a. Third space syndrome b. Secondary malignancies c. Chronic nausea and vomiting d. Persistent myelosuppression
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b. Alkylating chemotherapeutic agents and high-dose radiation are most likely to cause secondary malignancies as a late effect of treatment. The other conditions are not known to be late effects of radiation or chemotherapy.
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What describes a primary use of biologic therapy in cancer treatment? a. Protect normal, rapidly reproducing cells of the gastrointestinal system from damage during chemotherapy b. Prevent the fatigue associated with chemotherapy and high-dose radiation as seen with bone marrow depression c. Enhance or supplement the effects of the host's immune responses to tumor cells that produce flu-like symptoms d. Depress the immune system and circulating lymphocytes as well as increase a sense of well-being by replacing central nervous system deficits
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c. Biologic therapies are normal components of the immune system and are used therapeutically to restore, augment, or modulate host immune system mechanisms. They have direct antitumor effects or other biologic effects to assist in immune activity against cancer cells. Virtually all biologic therapies may cause a flu-like syndrome. The other options are not correct.
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Priority Decision: While caring for a patient who is at the nadir of chemotherapy, the nurse establishes the highest priority for nursing actions related to a. diarrhea. b. grieving. c. risk for infection. d. inadequate nutritional intake.
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c. The nadir is the point of the lowest blood counts after chemotherapy is started and it is the time when the patient is most at risk for infection. Because infection is the most common cause of morbidity and death in cancer patients, identification of risk and interventions to protect the patient are of the highest priority. The other problems will be treated but they are not the priority.
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An allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant is considered as treatment for a patient with acute myelogenous leukemia. What information should the nurse include when teaching the patient about this procedure? a. There is no risk for graft-versus-host disease because the donated marrow is treated to remove cancer cells. b. The patient's bone marrow will be removed, treated, stored, and then reinfused after intensive chemotherapy. c. Peripheralstemcellsareobtainedfromadonorwhohasahumanleukocyteantigen(HLA)matchwiththepatient. d. There is no need for posttransplant protective isolation because the stem cells are infused directly into the blood.
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c. An allogenic hematopoietic stem cell or bone marrow transplant is one in which peripheral stems cells or bone marrow from an HLA-matched donor is infused into a patient who has received high doses of chemotherapy, with or without radiation, to eradicate cancerous cells. In an autologous bone marrow transplant, the patient's own bone marrow is removed before therapy to destroy the bone marrow. The marrow is treated to remove cancer cells and may be infused shortly after conditioning treatment or frozen and stored for later use. With either source, the new bone marrow will take several weeks to produce new blood cells and protective isolation is necessary during this time.
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During initial chemotherapy a patient with leukemia develops hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia. The nurse recognizes these symptoms as an oncologic emergency and anticipates that the priority treatment will be to a. increase urine output with hydration therapy. b. establish electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring. c. administer a bisphosphonate such as pamidronate (Aredia). d. restrict fluids and administer hypertonic sodium chloride solution.
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a. Hyperkalemia and hyperuricemia are characteristic of tumor lysis syndrome, which is the result of rapid destruction of large numbers of tumor cells. Signs include hyperuricemia that causes acute kidney injury, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia. To prevent renal failure and other problems, the primary treatment includes increasing urine production using hydration therapy and decreasing uric acid concentrations using allopurinol (Zyloprim).
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Priority Decision: The patient with advanced cancer is having difficulty controlling her pain. She says she is afraid she will become addicted to the opioids. What is the first thing the nurse should do for this patient? a. Administer a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug. b. Assess the patient's vital signs and behavior to determine the medication to use. c. Have the patient keep a pain diary to better assess the patient's potential addiction. d. Obtain a detailed pain history including quality, location, intensity, duration, and type of pain.
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d. The priority in pain management is to obtain a comprehensive history of the patient's pain. This will determine the medications most useful for this patient's pain to enable giving the dose that relieves the pain with the fewest side effects. Teaching the patient about the lack of tolerance and addiction associated with effective cancer pain management will also be important for this patient's pain management.
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Which factors will assist a patient in coping positively with having cancer (select all that apply)? a. Feeling of control b. Strong support system c. Internalization of feelings d. Possibility of cure or control e. A young person will adapt more easily f. Not having had to cope with previous stressful events
answer
a, b, d. Feeling in control, having a strong support system, and the potential of cure or control of the cancer will have a positive effect on coping with the diagnosis. The other options will make coping more difficult for the patient. (See Table 16-19.)
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