Flashcards About Government Exam 2
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Affirmative action is:
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a government initiative to encourage employers to hire more minorities. Explanation: Affirmative action is a government program designed to help protected classes of people who have suffered wrongful discrimination in the past. It encourages businesses to hire more members of the protected groups; it also addresses discrimination in college and university admissions.
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Which of the following is NOT a role of public opinion?
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Forcing politicians to pass legislation. Explanation: Public opinion may motivate politicians to pass some legislation. At other times, politicians may not pass legislation the public wants and instead try to shape public opinion.
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The importance that the public places on an issue is called
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salience Explanation: Salience means prominence. The salience of public opinion indicates the public's evaluation of the importance of an issue. Public opinion on an issue could strongly feature the other characteristics but have low salience.
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According to John Zaller, public opinion contains all of the following elements except
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political action Explanation: Political action is not on Zaller's list of characteristics. Political action comes after opinion has been shaped.
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Opinions are the most fundamental element in Zaller's pyramid of public opinion because they shape our view of politics over a lifetime.
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False Explanation: Values are the most fundamental element in Zaller's hierarchy. Values shape our attitudes and eventually our opinions.
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The members of the "attentive public" are those people who
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become informed on issues but do not usually get actively involved in policymaking. Explanation: The attentive public is the minority of citizens who become informed on most public issues but who normally do not become actively involved in policymaking. expect the politicians to respond to their issues
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John Zaller states that mass opinion is made up of
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values (unchanging core beliefs), attitudes (beliefs on broad policy issues), and opinions (more flexible views on specific policy issues).
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Four characteristics of public opinion
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direction (beliefs of the majority), stability (consistency over time), salience (importance), and strength (intensity of belief)
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The public can be grouped
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into the mass public (70-80%), the attentive public (15-20%), and the opinion makers (3-5%)
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What is public opinion?
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Our beliefs about broad police areas, stemming from our values
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What is affirmative action?
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The encouragement of increased representation of women and minority group members, especially in employment.
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What is mass public?
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the vast majority of citizens who pay little attention to politics or government actions. Politicians find it easier to shape their opinions.
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Opinionmakers
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The very small percentage of citizens who become informed on public issues; they actively advocate their positions and attempt to effect change
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Delegate
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Legislator that polls the public and votes accordingly
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trustee
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Expert legislator who thinks and votes independently, basing his decisions on the public welfare, even if the public disagrees
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Political socialization
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The process by which people learn their attitudes, beliefs, and opinions about politics
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Major influences on political socialization
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the process by which people learn their attitudes, beliefs and opinions about politics
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A random sample means that
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all members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected for the sample Explanation: Randomness means that each person has an equal chance of being selected for a survey.
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A "push poll" is a poll
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designed to influence voters Explanation: Push polls are deceptively designed polls used to influence voters in a certain direction.
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Which of the following characteristics does NOT represent a major cleavage in American politics?
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Marital status Explanation: Marital status can provide some difference, but does not seem to be a major cleavage on most issues.
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A confidence limit in a poll indicates
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a percentage statistic that indicates the degree of confidence a pollster has in the outcome of a poll. Explanation: A confidence limit expresses the pollster's assessment of the accuracy of a poll.
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In 1994, congressional Republicans misinterpreted data showing support for massive cuts in government programs.
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True Explanation: The Republicans believed that Americans wanted less government in their lives but did not want to cut popular programs.
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Which of the following characteristics of an opinion poll probably has the least influence on its outcome?
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the gender of the poll-taker Explanation: This characteristic probably influences outcomes the least. The nature and style of the questions are much more important.
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Peer groups may be less influential in attitude formation than social scientists originally believed because
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people have a tendency to select peers with similar attitudes. Explanation: Social scientists have long believed that peer groups strongly influence the formation of political attitudes. However, there is some evidence that people select peer groups whose attitudes match ones already formed.
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The primary effect of the media on political socialization is to reinforce citizens' attitudes regarding the political process.
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False Explanation: The media's primary influence on the country's attitudes toward politics is to disaffect people from the political process.
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One reason for the recent decline in political participation in the United States is that
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families have recently exerted a weaker influence on children and adolescents. Explanation: In recent years American families have shown decreased influence over children and adolescents. Caused by deteriorating family structure, this weakened family influence results in less political socialization and thus less participation.
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Most people's attitudes change from a belief in noble leaders to a feeling of skepticism during
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young adulthood. Explanation: At this point in life, people begin to see leaders as flawed human beings and recognize conflict in human existence.
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For many people in the United States, the Vietnam War
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created skepticism about government. Explanation: During the Vietnam War, governmental leaders often tried to shape public opinion by claiming that the U.S. was winning the war. By the end of the war, the majority of the public had become opposed to the war and had developed a skeptical attitude toward government.
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Political socialization is the process by which a country changes from a free-market economic system to one in which the government owns all the means of production.
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False Explanation: Political socialization is the process by which people form their attitudes, beliefs, and opinions. It does not refer to an economic system.
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Which of the following is NOT a method of conventional political participation?
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Strikes Explanation: Strikes are considered to be a form of unconventional political participation because most people do not participate in them.
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A sit-in is a
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nonviolent occupation of space in a public or other location. Explanation: During a sit-in, protesters occupy space in a public or other facility in order to make a political statement. The sit-in was a form of protest used effectively to persuade businesses to serve African-Americans.
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In political terminology, a "parochialist" is a person who
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is interested in a single issue. Explanation: A parochialist contacts officials and actively works on one issue.
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Unconventional political participation includes all of the following except
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contributing money to campaigns. Explanation: This method is conventional. Many people and organizations make campaign contributions.
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Conviction for a major felony may affect a person's voting status.
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True Explanation: A person convicted of a felony loses the right to vote.
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The percentage of people who run for office in the U.S. is
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less than 1%. Explanation: Few people in the U.S. actually run for office; the percentage is less than 1%.
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What is the strongest predictor of political participation?
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Socio-economic status Explanation: A person's SES level provides the best prediction of his or her level of political participation.
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In presidential elections from 1964-2004, the highest voting rates were found in those age 18-24.
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false Explanation: The youngest voters have the lowest voting rates.
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Which of the following is NOT true of ethnicity and voting?
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Voting data show that some ethnic groups care more about politics than others do. Explanation: Differences in voting rates among ethnic groups are accounted for by differences in SES.
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Socio-economic status (SES) includes all of the following characteristics except
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religion Explanation: High levels of SES are not associated with any particular religion.
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In U.S. national elections, around _____% of the voting-age population votes.
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50 Explanation: This is one of the lowest rates among industrialized countries.
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The social abilities necessary to understand the political system and to work within it to accomplish one's goals is a definition of
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civic skills. Explanation: These are the skills needed to make the political system work for you.
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Which of the following is NOT true of the connection between social capital and politics?
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Social capital is not necessary for democracies to flourish. Explanation: The social capital accumulated through voluntary associations is vital to democracies.
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According to The Social Contract, which of the following is not true of Rousseau's beliefs about government?
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A social contract can be maintained without social participation. Explanation: Social participation is crucial for the validity of the social contract.
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Which of the following is not true of de Tocqueville's impressions of Americans?
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They joined groups with only their own interests in mind. Explanation: Tocqueville noticed Americans were aware that their participation in groups was good for the whole society.
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Critics of Robert Putnam's Bowling Alone have pointed out that
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Americans are still joining groups, just not those tracked by Putnam. Explanation: Critics showed that Putnam had only studied a small number of the groups Americans now join.
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One of Jean-Jacques Rousseau's reasons for writing The Social Contract was to provide
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a justification for government. Explanation: He wanted to show that governments did not need to claim divine right in order to be legitimate.
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Only politically active groups produce social capital.
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false Explanation: Any association of people with similar concerns produces social capital.
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Which of the following is not a basis for interest-group formation?
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A booming economy Explanation: In most cases, people are content with a booming economic environment and would not be motivated to change it.
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A free rider is
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an individual who enjoys benefits from collective action without paying for them. Explanation: A free rider is a person who enjoys benefits without paying for them. For example, a person may benefit from lower taxes without joining the group working for lower taxes.
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The Constitution and the political system encourage the formation of interest groups by
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fragmenting power among local, state, and federal governments. Explanation: Power in the U.S. is very fragmented, making it necessary to petition many levels of government when seeking to change policies.
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An example of a single-issue interest group is the National Rifle Association.
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True Explanation: The NRA focuses only on the gun control issue and is therefore considered a single-issue organization.
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The political scientist Mancur Olson hypothesized that people would not join interest groups to change a public policy because doing so takes time and money and because
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they can benefit if the group succeeds even if they don't participate. Explanation: Olson believed that it is illogical for people to join interest groups because not participating allows one to benefit from the changes made by the group, without any effort.
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One reason for the success of the National Rifle Association is that it offers members
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All the above (merchandise and discounts, social activities, group solidarity for those sharing common goals) Explanation: The NRA, like other successful organizations, offers merchandise, social activities, and solidarity.
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All of the following give rise to social movements except
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temporary shifts in public opinion. Explanation: Temporary shifts in public opinion or weak public opinions usually do not generate social movements.
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Social movements may end due to all the following reasons except
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loss of a charismatic leader. Explanation: The loss of a charismatic leader does not lead to the end of strong movements. In fact, it may actually strengthen the movement.
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The Reverend Jerry Falwell is associated with
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the Moral Majority. Explanation: Moral Majority is a fundamentalist Christian organization founded by Rev. Falwell.
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Which of the following issues inspired a conservative social movement?
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Term limits Explanation: The move to limit the number of terms members of Congress could serve arose out of conservative leaders' frustration with apparently undefeatable liberal incumbents.
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The abolitionist movement of the 19th century was concerned with
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slavery. Explanation: This movement sought the end of slavery, which occurred in 1862 when Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation.
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A grassroots social movement is one that originates with political leaders and then catches on with the public.
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False Explanation: A grassroots movement is one that begins with ordinary citizens and is then taken over by politicians.
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An inside strategy for an interest group is one in which the group tries to mobilize other groups to influence members of Congress.
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false Explanation: Interest groups using an inside strategy attempt to lobby members of Congress directly.
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Interest groups have proliferated in American politics for all of the following reasons except
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groups are completely unrestricted in their activities. Explanation: There are laws governing lobbying, and even free speech is not an unlimited right.
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How is a relatively small group like Mothers Against Drunk Driving (MADD) able to be so effective?
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The intensity of its members' beliefs carries over into all of its activities. Explanation: Small intense groups often lobby very effectively.
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The Chamber of Commerce has been successful in getting Congress to pass much of its legislative agenda because
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it has members in almost every congressional district. Explanation: Almost every congressional district contains business owners, many of whom belong to chapters of the Chamber of Commerce.
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Mobilizing the public to influence elected officials is an example of
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an outside strategy. Explanation: An outside strategy attempts to influence representatives indirectly.
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The primary skill of interest groups is providing
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credible information on policy issues. Explanation: This is the main way groups achieve and maintain influence.
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Federal law does not permit interest groups to donate money directly to political candidates. Therefore, many interest groups form political action committees to support candidates.
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True Explanation: Federal law prohibits direct contributions from interest groups. PACs, on the other hand, are legal and may contribute.
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PACs may not legally
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donate up to $10,000 to each congressional candidate. Explanation: They may donate only $5,000 to each candidate.
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Elected officials sometimes form PACs to
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raise money for candidates they hope to see elected. Explanation: Elected officials may raise money to help candidates who share their goals.
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Which of the following groups is represented by the most PACs and raises the most money for PACs?
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Business Explanation: Business corporations sponsor more PACs and raise more money than any other group.
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A connected PAC is
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formed by a company or labor union to advocate the organization's interests. Explanation: A connected PAC is tied to a specific business or union.
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Business PACs tend to support _______________ while labor union PACs tend to support __________________.
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Republicans, Democrats Explanation: Businesses tend to be more conservative and to support Republicans; labor unions tend to be more liberal and to support Democrats.
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A lobbyist seeking to persuade a member of Congress may employ an inside strategy, that is, one that tries to influence
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the member's congressional staff. Explanation: An inside strategy is one that seeks to influence a member's staff or congressional colleagues.
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Lobbyists may gain credibility and trust with members of Congress by
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forming personal relationships with them. Explanation: Many lobbyists develop personal relationships with members of Congress. The relationships help the lobbyists gain access to the member.
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In lobbying terms, to "astroturf" means to
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create the image of grassroots support where none exists. Explanation: Lobbyists may try to create a false impression of public support for an issue to help get legislation passed.
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To communicate with politicians, the public often uses all the following direct actions except
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visiting all senators in Washington. Explanation: The public does not often have person to person contact with politicians; that is why lobbyists are so important.
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A lobbyist is
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a person who works to influence members of Congress to pass legislation. Explanation: A lobbyist is a person who tries to influence Congress or other political bodies to adopt policies or pass legislation favorable to the lobbyist's employer.
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An outside strategy for a lobbyist might try to generate grassroots support for a cause through advertising or by directly contacting the groups concerned.
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True Explanation: Lobbyists may work to direct change from the public to the legislature.
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Retired members of Congress must wait ___________ years before they can become lobbyists.
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five Explanation: The waiting period to become a lobbyist is five years after retirement from Congress.
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The Federal Regulation of Lobbying Act (FRLA)
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limits the ability of interest groups to lobby Congress directly. Explanation: This act, passed in 1946, curtailed direct lobbying of Congress by interest groups.
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Before 2002, "soft" money referred to
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money contributed to political parties. Explanation: Soft money is money contributed to state and local party organizations that is not tied directly to a candidate. Please refer to topics 436 (Campaign Finance) and 437 (Campaign Finance Reform) for up-to-date information regarding soft money and other campaign finance issues.
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The Founders wrote the Constitution specifically to promote the formation of interest groups.
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False Explanation: The Founders feared the factionalism of interest groups but assumed that they were inevitable.
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Interest groups have certain constitutionally protected rights. These include all the following except
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the right to disrupt public meetings. Explanation: No individual or group has the right to disrupt public meetings.
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The maximum amount of "hard" money that an individual may contribute to a candidate is
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$1,000. Explanation: This is the "hard" money limit. There is no limit on "soft" money.
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The party with a Congressional majority can shape Congress and influence legislation in the following way:
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All of the above. (it can decide whose voice count most during floor debates, it can determine the size of staffs, it can select committee chairmen) Explanation: These are just a few of the ways in which the party that controls congress can influence legislation.
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Political parties try to
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simplify politics for the public Explanation: Doing so helps the public know who to vote for and what policies, in general, candidates are likely to support.
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Which of the following is not a function of political parties?
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To vote on amendments to the Constitution functions of political parties: -to define the proper role of government -to provide a condesend, clarified view of the government for the public -to win elections
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Parties that win Congress and the presidency
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can more easily form legislative coalitions Explanation: A majority party in both houses of Congress and in the White House has an enormous ability to form effective coalitions in order to decide what parts of the platform will be adopted and what laws will be enacted.
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Traditionally, the Republican Party has been identified with
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lower taxes
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Parties often simplify their platforms to make them more accessible and understandable to the general public.
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true Explanation: This is one of the ways that parties simplify politics, which helps the general public know which candidate(s) they wish to support.
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The party platform is essentially a ballot, regarding important governmental issues, that party members must vote on before it becomes official.
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false Explanation: The party platform is authored by the party leaders to tell people what the goals, the purposes, and the ends of the party are. Typically there is no voting involved.
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To win elections, political parties
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encourage people to vote and try to persuade voters Explanation: Party fund raising is largely aimed at these activities, since winning elections ultimately allows parties to organize the government.
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Traditionally, the Democratic Party has been identified with
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protection of the environment
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Which of the following is NOT a reason for the continued existence of a two-party system in the United States?
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Proportional voting Explanation: No national elections in the U.S. allow proportional voting.
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The number of electors in a state is determined by
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the total number of the state's congressional delegation (representatives and senators). Explanation: Each state has electors equal in number to the number of its representatives in Congress plus two (the number of its senators).
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Pat Buchanan had more impact as a presidential candidate in 1996 than he did in 2000 because in 1996 he ran as a Republican and in 2000 he represented the Reform Party.
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True Explanation: Buchanan had more impact as a major-party candidate than as third-party candidate.
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The two-party system has been criticized most strongly for
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making it difficult to bring outside voices into government. Explanation: The two parties tend to reflect mainstream American views.
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Under a proportional voting system, minor parties
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gain seats in the legislature based on the percentage of votes they receive. Explanation: All parties divide the legislative seats among them based on the percentage of votes each received.
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As an example of the major parties' failure to bring other voices into the system, Hispanices recently split from the Republicans and Democrats to form a strong third party.
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False Explanation: Hispanics have not formed such a party but have found places in the major parties.
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Which of the following was NOT favored by the Democratic-Republicans during the first party era?
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Government by elites Explanation: The Federalists were in favor of a government controlled by elites.
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Which party won 7 of the 9 presidential elections from 1860-1892?
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Republicans Explanation: Starting with the election of Lincoln in 1860, this period was the first of Republican dominance.
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Who was elected president in 1932?
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Franklin Roosevelt Explanation: This was the first of four presidential elections FDR won.
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All of the following parties were active during the period of Jacksonian democracy except the
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Federalists. Explanation: The Federalists were no longer a force in American politics by 1820.
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Which of the following has been true of U.S. politics since 1968?
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Southern whites have largely changed their party allegiance from the Democrats to the Republicans. Explanation: President Nixon and other Republican leaders wooed southern whites with sometimes questionable tactics.
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The presidential election in __________ marked the point at which the Democrats and Republicans came to control U.S. politics.
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1856 Explanation: This election marked the beginning of the Republicans' rise to power and the end of the Whigs.
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Which of the following is NOT true of representatives in the English parliamentary system?
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They nominate themselves for office. Explanation: In Britain, parties select candidates for office.
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In the U.S., elected officials
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feel free to vote the way their constituents want them to vote. Explanation: In the U.S., parties are weak, and politicians often vote counter to their party's platform.
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A party platform is a document written by a committee at the party's national convention stating the party's basic beliefs.
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True Explanation: The platform is a general statement of beliefs for party members to run on.
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A line-item veto is a veto
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of a specific part of a spending bill. Explanation: The president may veto one part of a spending bill with which he disagree. The veto does not affect the rest of the bill.
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The model of responsible party government contains all of the following points except
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expelling party members who do not subscribe to every point in the platform. Explanation: Responsible parties do not demand absolute ideological purity from their members.
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In his farewell address, George Washington advocated strong parties because he felt that they would help unify the country.
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False Explanation: Washington distrusted parties and thought that they would be detrimental to the country.
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On May 24, 2001, Senator James Jeffords of Vermont left the Republican Party and declared himself an independent. This was significant for all of the following reasons except
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the Republicans were reduced to insignificance by his action. Explanation: The Democrats' one-vote majority meant that they would have to work closely with Republicans to get legislation passed.
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All of the following are regular operations of the national party committees except
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providing patronage jobs. Explanation: This is something that state party organizations used to do. Operations of national party committees: -raising money for campaigns -conducting polls -mobilizing voters
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Party advocates are faithful party members who are more ideological than the general public.
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true Explanation: Advocates are also more committed to and passionate about the party.
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Which of the following is NOT an area in which political parties attempt to put their ideas into practice?
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Interest groups Explanation: Interest groups have their own organizations which may not be compatible with party goals.
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All of the following are functions of the parties' national conventions except
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projecting a negative image. Explanation: Parties have tried more and more to create softer, more positive images at their conventions. functions of the parties' national conventions: -showing support for the party's presidential nominee -writing and ratifying the party's platform -bringing party members together
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A party's national chairman is chosen by
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the party's presidential nominee. Explanation: The choice of a losing presidential candidate is replaced.
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By state law, _______________ holds the first presidential primary.
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New Hampshire Explanation: New Hampshire has steadfastly maintained its position as the first primary state.
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According to the Constitution, a president must be all of the following except
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male. Explanation: It is not a requirement that the president be a man. requirements: -at least 35 years old -a natural-born citizen -a U.S. resident for at least 14 years
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Which of the following is NOT true of modern presidential campaigns?
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The nominating process is easier now than in the past. Explanation: The arduous process is used to winnow out candidates who lack broad public support.
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Which of the following is NOT one of the ways delegates to the Democratic National Convention may be chosen?
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Winner-take-all primary Explanation: Winner-take-all primaries are used in only a few Republican primaries.
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In which kind of primary are voters NOT required to declare party allegiance?
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Open Explanation: Anyone may vote in an open primary.
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A state's delegates to the national convention are usually proportional to the state's
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population. Explanation: Representation is generally proportional to population.
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As a rule, in American elections 50% of campaign funds come from citizen contributions and an additional 10% come from candidates' personal funds, loans, or political parties. The remaining 40% comes from
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political action committees. Explanation: PACs are the second-largest source of funds for campaigns.
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According to Tip O?Neill, former Speaker of the House, the most important component of any political campaign is the
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money. Explanation: O'Neill believed that money drove the other three components--the candidates, the issues, and the campaign organization.
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Soft money is money contributed to state or local party organizations. The money is unregulated and does not have to be reported to the Federal Election Commission.
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True Explanation: Soft money is not contributed directly to candidates and does not have to be reported.
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An incumbent is an individual who challenges an officeholder in an election.
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False Explanation: An incumbent is a current officeholder.
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Political action committees (PACs) tend to donate the most money to all of the following except
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third-party candidates. Explanation: PACs tend not to donate to candidates not likely to win.
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One position in favor of wealthy candidates running for office argues that
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they may be more independent than candidates who must raise money from special interest sources. Explanation: Wealthy candidates are able to choose the sources of their campaign contributions, and this may make them more independent once elected to office.
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All of the following are reasons for the continued importance of the television audience for conventions except
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televised images are no longer as potent as they once were. Explanation: Televised images are powerful, and parties manage conventions accordingly.
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Delegates to the national conventions represent people of all levels of political activity.
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false Explanation: Delegates are more ideological and more committed to political activity.
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All of the following are activities of delegates to the national conventions except
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behaving solemnly, in keeping with the importance of the occasion. Explanation: Delegates are often boisterous and noisy.
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This group prowls the skyboxes at the conventions, trying to enlist the support of powerful politicians and wealthy campaign donors.
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Future presidential hopefuls Explanation: Those hoping to win the nomination in the next four to eight years will lay the groundwork at a current convention.
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Presidential candidates today are likely to choose running mates for
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viewpoint compatibility. Explanation: Contemporary presidential nominees choose vice presidents based on the compatibility of their views.
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Which of the following is not true of the party platform?
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It is written with forceful, concrete words. Explanation: Platforms are often written in bland, generically patriotic language.
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Which of the following people would probably have the hardest time establishing name recognition early in a presidential race?
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The mayor of a small town in Alaska
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Which of the following is not a group immediately affected by a presidential campaign?
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Foreign citizens
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Which of the following is not typically part of a candidate's early campaign strategy?
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Choosing a vice-presidential candidate
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Which of the following is not among the personal qualities a successful presidential candidate needs?
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Prior political experience
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A viable presidential candidate will probably be affiliated with one of the two major political parties, which can offer their candidate all of the following except what?
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Certain victory
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Democratic presidential candidates typically seek the endorsement of which of the following organizations?
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National Organization for Women
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Which of the following is the term for public relations workers who set up media events before a candidate's appearance?
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Advance staff
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Presidential candidates must attend numerous fund-raising dinners. Because of the low quality of the food served to them, these fund-raisers have become known collectively as what?
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rubber-chicken circuit
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To meet the constitutional qualifications to become president, a candidate must be at least how many years old?
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35
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In 2004, this former governor of Vermont became the first presidential candidate to raise funds from grassroots supporters via the Internet.
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Howard Dean
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In political science terms, the activists who identify strongly with a political party and work to promote its success are known as the party's what?
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Base
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Which of the following is a name for a powerful leader of a political party, able to control votes and dictate appointments?
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A party boss
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The period of intense campaigning occurring for a year or more before the first primary election is known as what?
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Invisible primary
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The process for choosing presidential nominees changed after riots broke out at which of the following party conventions?
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1968 Democratic National Convention in Chicago
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One way candidates try to stand out from a crowd of competitors in a primary is by attacking their opponents. However, this strategy can be risky because of which of the following reasons?
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Criticizing primary opponents too severely can be seen as an attack on the party
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In a primary election there are generally __________ candidates, but in the general election there are usually __________ main ones.
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many; two
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Because the media tend to cover the primary season as if it were one long horse race, candidates must do which of the following?
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Poll constantly and worry about their pack position
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Which of the following resembles a primary, except that the voting is done in small gatherings of voters, rather than by secret ballot.
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Caucus
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Which of the following is not an activity that figures into a candidate's general strategy during the primary season?
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Choosing a vice-presidential nominee
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Which of the following are the first two states to select delegates during the primary season?
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Iowa and New Hampshire
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To discover the concerns of undecided voters, campaigns typically do all except which of the following?
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Send out direct mail
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Which of the following two third-party candidates won enough votes to affect the outcome of a general election?
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Ross Perot and Ralph Nader
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In the general election, a campaign concentrates its energies on winning over all but which of the following groups of voters?
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the party's base
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The 2004 presidential election was decided by the results in this battleground state.
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Ohio
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of voters in a battleground state?
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They are not up for grabs, according to candidates' polling
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Every state in the union as well as the District of Columbia has a minimum of ____ electoral votes.
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3
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A __________ issue—a position issue that divides members of a political party—is used by candidates to try to attract disaffected voters away from an opponent's party.
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wedge
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A synonym for "battleground state" is "__________ state."
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swing
question
A candidate must win which of the following to win the general election?
answer
A majority in the Electoral College
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A majority of the votes in the Electoral College is at least ___ votes.
answer
270
question
When campaign volunteers spread out across a neighborhood, knock on doors, and talk to people briefly about a candidate's views, which of the following are they conducting?
answer
Canvass
question
Groups like the League of Women Voters and Rock the Vote are best known for their work with which of the following?
answer
Get-out-the-vote drives
question
A type of fake poll used to discourage an opponent's supporters from voting is known as a _____ poll.
answer
push
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Campaign techniques are used to implement all aspects of campaign __________.
answer
strategy
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Which of the following activities is not characteristic of a get-out-the-vote drive?
answer
Unregistered voters are ignored as not being worth the effort
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______________ is an investigation into all aspects of a candidate's personal and public life.
answer
Opposition research
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Which of the following is not true of the questions asked in a valid poll?
answer
They are chosen randomly
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Which of the following is a term used for the group of people who respond to a poll?
answer
Sample
question
Which of the following is not true of focus groups conducted by political campaigns?
answer
They produce results that are generalizable to the population at large
question
Some simple, traditional ways for candidates to boost their name recognition include all except which of the following?
answer
Podcasts
question
This term refers to a type of negative campaign ad, often broadcast on television, that seeks to destroy an opponent's character.
answer
attack ad
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Which of the following is not true of issue ads?
answer
They are paid for by candidates' campaigns
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Which of the following apply to candidates in a televised presidential debate?
answer
They must answer questions on a variety of topics
question
Which of the following is not an advantage of using the Internet as part of a media campaign?
answer
Mistakes rarely crop up on the Internet, and are easily contained
question
Which of the following is true of magazines that regularly cover politics?
answer
They tend to have small circulations
question
Which of the following activities is not generally a way for candidates to use the press as a campaign tool?
answer
Start up a newspaper and use it to promote a campaign
question
As part of a television campaign, a candidate should be prepared to appear on all except which of the following.
answer
Sketch-comedy shows
question
Radio ads are still an important campaigning technique because of which of the following.
answer
They can be targeted to very specific groups of voters
question
Candidates often bemoan the widespread use of negative campaigning, but nearly all of them continue to use it. Why?
answer
It works
question
The first televised presidential debates, held in 1960, were between which two candidates?
answer
Richard Nixon and John F. Kennedy
question
The matching federal funds available to candidates are financed through
answer
the $3 checkoff box on tax returns.
question
Under the FECA, the two major-party candidates can receive a public grant for __________ percent of their general-election expenses.
answer
100
question
Under federal campaign-finance law, a person can spend unlimited amounts of money on political messages as long as
answer
the expenditures are made independently of any candidate's campaign.
question
Which governmental entity is charged with enforcing the country's campaign finance laws?
answer
Federal Election Commission
question
When accepting matching funds for the general election, major-party candidates agree
answer
not to raise any additional money from PACs or individuals.
question
What is the term for a group set up by a business or issue-advocacy organization, for example, to raise and contribute funds to political campaigns.
answer
political action committee
question
In the 1970s, Congress passed and then repeatedly amended a law to regulate campaign finance. This law was called the
answer
Federal Election Campaign Act.
question
Federal campaign-finance laws prohibit which of the following from spending money on federal elections?
answer
foreign citizens
question
Campaign contributions and expenditures by most political organizations are regulated by a particular section of the Internal Revenue Code, and as a result, these organizations have come to be called
answer
527s
question
The Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act is commonly called the __________, after its two main Senate sponsors.
answer
McCain-Feingold Act
question
Before the Citizen's United v. Federal Election Commission Supreme Court decision what kind of corporation was allowed to spend money on electioneering?
answer
news corporations Explanation: These groups were exempted from the prohibition on corporate spending on advocacy for particular candidates. News organizations typically endorse candidates.
question
In the case Citizens United v. Federal Election Commission, the Supreme Court divided along what lines?
answer
conservative justices versus liberal justices Explanation: Four conservative judges (Roberts, Thomas, Scalia, Alito) and the justice who often casts a swing vote (Kennedy) found for the plaintiff and ruled the restrictions on corporate electioneering unconstitutional.
question
In 2007, the Federal Election Commission fined Swift Boat Veterans for Truth and Moveon.org, two 527 corporations because
answer
their advertisements advocated the defeat of a particular candidate. Explanation: The FEC determined that their advertisements crossed the line into advocating for the defeat of a particular candidate contrary to the restrictions placed on 527s.
question
Although they have lots of money, a corporation like Apple Computer or Microsoft might not spend it directly on electioneering ads because
answer
it might alienate customers. Explanation: Corporations like these are different from labor unions and non-profits in that they have a customer base and the country is closely divided politically.
question
Why did Barack Obama reject public funding for the presidential campaign?
answer
because he could raise more money on his own Explanation: Obama was able to raise much more money on his own than was provided by the public financing system.
question
A ballot printed by the government and kept consistent within a state is known as an ________________ ballot.
answer
Australian Explanation: These ballots, designed to prevent voter fraud, originated in Australia.
question
Although only 50% of potential voters in the United States actually vote, the percentage of registered voters who do so is
answer
80%. Explanation: Once potential voters register, they are highly likely to vote.
question
Which of the following constitutional amendments was not enacted to eliminate a barrier to voting?
answer
16th Explanation: This amendment instituted the income tax.
question
Which of the following has had the greatest effect on voting levels in the United States?
answer
Voting Rights Act of 1965 Explanation: This law brought levels of black voter turnout up to that of whites'.
question
In U.S. history, all of the following have been barriers to voting at one time or another except
answer
religion. Explanation: Voting has never been restricted based on religious belief.
question
The United States has a higher rate of voter turnout than which of the following countries?
answer
Switzerland Explanation: Switzerland is the only country in the group that has a voting rate lower than the U.S.'s.
question
A _______________ issue in one on which there are stark, irrconcilable differences between the candidates.
answer
hot-button Explanation: Abortion is an example of a hot-button issue.
question
Wedge issues and pocketbook issues are examples of
answer
position issues. Explanation: Position issues are those on which the candidates differ.
question
Which statement accurately describes the contrast between Democrats and Republicans?
answer
Democrats are more liberal on social issues; Republicans are more conservative on economic matters. Explanation: Republicans tend to favor less regulation of business; Democrats are more liberal regarding personal behavior.
question
The beliefs that prosperity is good and that crime is bad are examples of
answer
valence issues. Explanation: These are issues on which the candidates agree.
question
The median voter model has nothing to do with issues.
answer
false Explanation: Candidates can attract centrist voters only by addressing issues they care about.
question
President Kennedy's image of youthful exuberance and his willingness to experiment were connected to his
answer
founding of the Peace Corps. Explanation: The Peace Corps is a unique experiment in American foreign policy.
question
When deciding whether to vote, Americans consider all of the following except
answer
whether or not their vote will make a difference. Explanation: Those who think their votes will not matter usually do not vote.
question
All of the following strongly influence voter turnout except
answer
foreign governments. Explanation: The wishes of foreign governments do not enter into most Americans' voting decisions.
question
Of the following influences on voting decisions, the strongest predictor of voting choice is
answer
party identification. Explanation: Those strongly identified with a party tend to vote almost exclusively for their party's candidates.
question
The 1992 presidential campaign generated several memorable political slogans. Which of the following was associated with Bill Clinton?
answer
"It's the economy, stupid." Explanation: Clinton ran on a promise to reinvigorate the economy.
question
Which of the following is generally considered the most important act of citizenship for an American?
answer
Voting Explanation: In a democracy, voting is the most important expression of citizenship.
question
In the 1988 presidential election, George H.W. Bush campaigned successfully using which of the following slogans?
answer
"Read my lips - no new taxes." Explanation: This promise came back to haunt him in 1990 when he was forced to raise taxes to meet budgetary necessities.
question
To ensure that they do not act directly contrary to the interests of democracy, the media now hold off projecting a winner of the presidency on election night until voters in __________ have had a chance to vote.
answer
the West
question
Internet tools for campaigns include all of the following except
answer
search engines.
question
Campaign staffs spend hours negotiating every detail of a presidential debate, including all the following except
answer
what topics the questions will cover.
question
Which of the following is true of the first televised presidential debate, held in 1960 between Richard Nixon and John F. Kennedy?
answer
Television viewers said that Kennedy won the debate.
question
The term __________ refers to a short, quotable statement convenient for media broadcasts.
answer
sound bite
question
Candidates strive not to appear stiff or awkward on television for fear that they will seem
answer
fearful or deceptive.
question
The media often seem to give scant attention to the issues in a campaign, preferring to report on the candidates' __________rather than their views.
answer
characters
question
The power of television to saddle a candidate with a negative image was forcefully demonstrated when President __________, a gifted athlete, tripped on one occasion while exiting from an airplane and was thereafter known as a klutz.
answer
Ford
question
Television revolutionized politics because
answer
with one appearance, a candidate could reach millions of viewers.
question
Candidates try to reclaim some control over their public images by doing all of the following except
answer
testifying before Congress.
question
Television and radio programs that mix elements of news and entertainment are categorized as
answer
infotainment.
question
When the roles of news and entertainment become mixed, political stories end up being reported like
answer
melodramas
question
Most radio talk-show hosts are
answer
conservative.
question
If consolidation of ownership of media properties continues, some critics fear that all the following may happen except
answer
political reporting will remain unaffected by the drive for profits.
question
The first and most important step to take to combat media bias is to
answer
be aware of it.
question
If a reporter relies too extensively on governmental experts,
answer
an official view can wind being presented as an objective one.
question
__________ is the term used to describe the tendency of news reporting to become homogeneous.
answer
Pack journalism
question
Surveys have shown media professionals in general have political attitudes that are more __________ than those of most Americans.
answer
liberal
question
A media outlet would be biased if its reports
answer
were expected to reflect its owner's views.
question
Because almost no reporter questioned the Bush administration's case for invading Iraq in 2003,
answer
most Americans believed the administration's claim that Saddam Hussein had weapons of mass destruction.
question
An example of free media coverage of a candidate is
answer
a story about a president visiting a disaster area. Explanation: A presidential visit is always news. Coverage of the visit does not have to be paid for, even if the president is running for re-election.
question
A newspaper endorsement of a presidential candidate means that
answer
a newspaper's editorial board supports a candidate in print. Explanation: Endorsements by ethical journalists are confined to editorial pages or otherwise clearly identified as opinion. An endorsement is not news reporting.
question
One of the media's primary goals when covering political events is to entertain its audience.
answer
True Explanation: The media uses politics not only to inform but also to entertain in order to gain a larger audience.
question
Candidates almost never try to use the media to help win elections because doing so would make them seem manipulative.
answer
False Explanation: Candidates love the media when they receive favorable coverage.
question
The media lent more credence to appearance than to substance during
answer
the 1960 presidential debate between John F. Kennedy and Richard Nixon. Explanation: Those who watched the debate on television were favorably impressed with the way Kennedy looked as opposed to Nixon's tired appearance. Those who listened to it on radio thought that Nixon won the debate.
question
The media can instill fear in a candidate and even destroy a campaign. This was shown by coverage of
answer
Senator Gary Hart's alleged affair while campaigning for president in 1988. Explanation: Before the 1988 primary season, the media reported that Senator Hart had engaged in improper behavior; he subsequently withdrew his candidacy.
