IAHSS Basic Officer Certification Questions – Flashcards
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The basic structure of a typical healthcare organization resembles a a. Circle b. Pentagon c. Pyramid d. Straight line
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b. Pyramid
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The most primary overriding concern of any security department should be a. Its image b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility c. The goals and mission if the entity employing the security services d. Cost-effectiveness
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b. The safety and well-being of anyone in the facility
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Which accreditation body provides standards to address Environment of Care, Emergency Management, and Life Safety in the healthcare environment? a. The Joint Commission (TJC) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA) d. American Society of Healthcare Engineers (ASHE)
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a. The Joint Commission (TJC)
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According to IAHSS Hospital Crime Survey, assaults have a. Increased b. Decreased c. Remained the same d. Become less violent
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a. Increased
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What are the two types of criminal acts? a. Burglaries and Felonies b. Misdemeanors and Felonies c. Larceny and Misconduct d. Misdemeanors and Larceny
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b. Misdemeanors and Felonies
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Business offices are often measured by: a. Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs) b. The admission process c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days) d. The physician survey
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c. Accounts receivable days (A/R days)
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Which of the following is a security issue for employees of support or ancillary services? a. Well staffed during the day b. Isolated at night c. Mix of certified and non-certified employees d. Located in the center of the facility
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b. Isolated at night
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Which of the following defines property risk: a. Lawsuits brought about by action or inaction, including negligent security or safety hazards b. Loss of staff due to perception of an unsafe environment c. The healthcare organizations inability to perform one or many of its normal functions, leading to the inability to generate income d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
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d. Damage, theft, or vandalism to buildings, equipment, and supplies
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What three components make up the Access Control Triad? a. Identification systems, staff education & training, badging b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards c. Staff education & training, video surveillance, physical security safeguards d. Identification systems, proprietary logo usage, staff education & training
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b. Identification systems, staff education & training, physical security safeguards
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What two things should be used regardless of the type of vehicle patrol used? a. Helmets and preventative maintenance programs b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections c. Supervisor inspections and helmets d. Battery maintenance and inspections
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b. Preventative maintenance programs and sift-by-shift inspections
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Which of the following is NOT one of the three basic purposes of the Incident Command System? a. Assuring the safety of responders and others b. Assuring achievement of tactical objectives c. Assuring efficient use of resources d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
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d. Assuring constant communication between agencies
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Standard precautions are a set of precautions that the CDC had called for in order to minimize the risk of infection. Which of the following is NOT covered under standard precautions? a. Blood and body fluids b. Mucous membranes c. Non-intact skin d. Sweat
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d. Sweat
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A class B fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Paper fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire
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a. Flammable liquid fire
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Which is the best method to control a bomb threat? a. Wait for the threat to come in and see what happens b. Call the public health department to handle c. Relax because it is probably a hoax d. Prepare before the threat is received
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d. Prepare before the threat is received
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The Joint Commission (TJC) requires how many disaster drills each year? a. Three b. One c. Two d. Six
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c. Two
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The measurable indications that workplace violence programs should include are: a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers b. Independent reviewers, opinions of elected officials, prior incidents c. Employee surveys, environmental considerations, prior incidents d. Employee surveys, independent reviewers, engineering input
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a. Employee surveys, prior incidents, independent reviewers
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Which of the following is NOT a misdemeanor? a. Simple assault b. Trespass c. Burglary d. Vandalism
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c. Burglary
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According to statistics published by the National Association of Security Companies, how many states have NO regulations for security officers? a. Twelve b. Ten c. Five d. Eight
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b. Ten
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Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d.National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
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c. The Joint Commission (TJC)
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The Joint Commission Environment of Care Standards addresses how many areas? a. Seven b. Six c. Four d. Eight
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a. Seven
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Which of the following is the definition of an interview? a. Questioning a party whom the officer suspects of criminal involvement b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect c. Questioning a suspect under the circumstances wherein the suspect would feel under the control of the officer d. Questioning family members of a suspect
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b. Questioning a party whom the officer has no reason to believe is a suspect
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Hostage situations have which of the following characteristics? a. Events with no predictable chronology b. People being held against their will c. Release contingent upon demands d. Each of these
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d. Each of these
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What are the two key elements in civil disturbance planning? a. Planning and Preparation b. Planning and Response c. Preparation and Response d. Preparation and Documentation
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a. Planning and Preparation
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How many room sweeps are suggested to properly conduct a bomb search? a. 4 b. 5 c. 6 d. 7
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a. 4
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Which of the following is NOT one of the seven signs of terrorism? a. Surveillance b. Communication c. Test of security d. Acquiring supplies and assets
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b. Communication
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The fourth stage of a fire - after the incipient stage, smoldering stage, and the flame stage - is what? a. Heat stage b. Extinguished stage c. Burning stage d. Fuel stage
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a. Heat stage
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The four phases in Emergency Management are: a. Funding, Mitigation, Recovery, Rescue b. Preparedness, Recovery, Mitigation, Rescue c. Recovery, Response, Mitigation, Safety d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
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d. Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery
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Which is the most common source of identity theft from healthcare facilities? a. Computer records b. Unattended purses and wallets c. Discarded paperwork d. Hearing the information and copying it
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b. Unattended purses and wallets
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Which of the following defines vulnerability? a. The act of being physically wounded b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage c. Possibility of a loss d. The act of being attacked
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b. Something with the potential to be physically wounded or open to attack or damage
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The security department is considered which type of department? a. Support b. Clinical c. Direct Patient Care d. Service
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a. Support
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The areas with the highest potential for hostage taking are: a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy b. ICU, PCU, Obstetrics, Administration c. Engineering, Administration, Finance, Obstetrics d. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Admitting
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a. Administration, Emergency Department, Obstetrics, Pharmacy
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Which of the following do NOT regulate and accredit healthcare facilities? a. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) d. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
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b. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
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The best way to avoid loss of patient valuables is: a. Lock them up b. Inventory them c. Place into a safe with double lock and key d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
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d. Discourage from bringing valuables into the facility
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Which organization developed a code of ethics for healthcare security? a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS) b. National fire and Protection Association (NFPA) c. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) d. Department of Public Health (DPH)
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a. International Association for Healthcare Security and Safety (IAHSS)
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You cannot effectively patrol a facility unless you are: a. Are looking good b. Are prepared c. Are finished eating d. Have your radio
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b. Are prepared
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Which organization requires the hospital to train forensic staff? a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) b. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) c. The Joint Commission (TJC) d. National Fire and Protection Association (NFPA)
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The Joint Commission (TJC)
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Which of the following is a physical environment consideration, as defined by the Joint Commission? a. Staffing competency b. Medical records c. Life safety d. Patient privacy
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c. Life safety
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Security officers face sanctions under criminal law if they violate the constitutional or civil rights of a party or engage in criminal acts. The sanctions are in which two areas? a. Constitutional and Civil Rights b. Judicial and Constitutional Rights c. Civil and Judicial Rights d. Civil and Personal Rights
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a. Constitutional and Civil Rights
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Which answer best describes security's role in a workplace violence program? a. Security is the sole department responsible for the workplace violence program b. Security has virtually no role in the workplace violence program c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines d. State and federal governments dictate the role of security in workplace violence programs
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c. Workplace violence programs are a partnership between security and many other healthcare disciplines
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A protection order is designed to do what? a. Provide a legal mechanism to enforce no contact between victim and assailant b. Begin the process of reconciliation between victim and assailant c. Protect the physical well being of the victim d. Both A and C
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d. Both A and C
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Which of the following best describe de-escalation techniques: a. Do not provide limits b. Do not spend time listening to the individual c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy d. Both A and B
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c. Use listening skills and respond in a way that shows empathy
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Which of the following is NOT a valid assumption when developing a plan for response to a civil disturbance? a. Availability of adequate staffing may be affected b. Planning and coordination will be an ongoing activity c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected d. Needed response by police and fire may be delayed
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c. Outside services such as transportation and deliveries will not be affected
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Who should handle any demonstrator action on public sidewalks or streets? a. Administration b. Security c. Facility personnel d. Local law enforcement
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d. Local law enforcement
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During a disturbance, which of these is a critical action to be taken by the facility? a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary b. Lock all doors so no one can leave or enter c. Allow free access to building as if business as usual d. Validate those entering the building only
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a. Control access and validate all entering the building as necessary
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Which of these is an example of an internal event that could affect your medical center? a. Loss of electricity b. Major vehicle accident c. Severe weather d. Wild land fires
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a. Loss of electricity
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Which of these is NOT a community planning partner regarding the healthcare organization's emergency program? a. Health department b. Sheriff's office c. Local fire department d. Local TV station
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d. Local TV station
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Which of these does The Joint Commission deem a critical area of the emergency management plan? a. Communication b. Food c. Mortuary d. Decontamination
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a. Communication
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Which of these are required in exercising the organization's emergency management plan? a. Monthly testing b. Two exercises yearly c. An exercise with actual patients d. An exercise using a medical evacuation helicopter
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b. Two exercises yearly
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Which of these is an operational function of security officers during emergency situations? a. Patient treatment b. Crowd control c. Spokesperson to the media d. Initiation of facility evacuation
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b. Crowd control
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Which of the following categories is NOT part of a bomb threat plan? a. Establishing authority b. Searching for the bomb c. Pretension d. Receiving the threat
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c. Pretension
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What is the most common delivery of a bomb threat? a. Called into the media b. By phone at the facility c. By email at the facility d. Delivered in person to the facility
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b. By phone at the facility
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Which of the following is NOT a question on the Telephone Bomb Threat Checklist? a. What does the bomb look like? b. Where is the bomb? c. What is your name? d. How old are you?
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d. How old are you?
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What is the recommended distance to evacuate in case of a bomb threat? a. Radius of 100 to 200 feet b. Radius of 200 to 300 feet c. Radius of 300 to 600 feet d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
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d. Radius of 500 to 1000 feet
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Which of the following is NOT a reason terrorists use suicide bombers? a. Lack of an outfitted army b. Final way to have their views hears c. Most successful way of inflicting damage d. Affects the least people
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d. Affects the least people
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Which of the following prohibits the unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government? a. US Code of Federal Regulations b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration c. The Joint Commission d. US Department of Homeland Security
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a. US Code of Federal Regulations
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What does the acronym ROARR stand for? a. Remember, Observe, Act, Record, React b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend c. Retreat, Order, Alert, Remember or Record d. None of the above
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b. Report, Observe, Anticipate, React or Recommend
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Fire creates heat through many methods, Which of these is NOT a method by which fire spreads? a. Radiation b. Osmosis c. Conduction d. Convection
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b. Osmosis
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What does the acronym NFPA stand for? a. National Federation of Protective Agencies b. Northern Fire and Police Association c. National Fire and Protection Agency d. None of the above
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d. None of the above (National Fire and Protection Association)
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PASS is an acronym that describes what process? a. How to activate a fire alarm b. How to respond to a fire c. How to evacuate a building d. How to use a fire extinguisher
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d. How to use a fire extinguisher (pull, aim, squeeze, sweep)
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A class A fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Ordinary combustible materials c. Electrical fire d. Grease fire
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b. Ordinary combustible materials (paper, wood, fabric)
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A class C fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Paper fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire
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c. Electrical fire
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A class D fire extinguisher is used to fight what kind of fire? a. Flammable liquid fire b. Flammable metals fire c. Electrical fire d. Wood fire
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b. Flammable metals fire
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There are several external organizations that healthcare institutions collaborate with to maintain a safe environment. What is the common mission among them? a. Provide training to healthcare employees b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety c. Conduct a proactive risk assessment twice a year d. Regulate MRI safety
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b. Continuously promote, improve, and assure health and safety
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Identify the object of the Safety Management Program. a. To improve organizational performance b. To minimize accidents and injuries c. To reduce or control costs for Workers' Compensation d. To assist in compliance documentation e. All of the above
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e. All of the above
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When incidents expand, authority for performance of these functions may need to be delegated: Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Finance/Administration. What are the personnel who perform these four management functions called? a. Deputy staff b. Director staff c. Command staff d. General staff
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d. General staff
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Depending on the type and size of the incident or event, the Incident Commander may need to designate personnel to provide information, safety, and liaison services for the entire organization. What are these personnel called? a. Deputy staff b. Director staff c. Command staff d. General staff
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c. Command staff
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Which position is the only one always staffed in Incident Command System applications? a. Operations Section Chief b. Incident Commander c. Information Officer d. Branch Director
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b. Incident Commander
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In an Incident Command System, which General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources? a. Finance/Administration b. Logistics c. Operations d. Planning
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c. Operations
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In an Incident Command System, which Command Staff position is the conduit for information to internal and external stakeholders, including the media, or other organizations seeking information directly from the incident or event? a. Information Officer b. Liaison Officer c. Resource Officer d. Safety Officer
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a. Information Officer
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Which of the following is NOT a basic feature of the Incident Command System? a. Common terminology b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel c. Span of control abilities d. Unity of command
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b. Rigid, fixed use of personnel
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Which of the following is NOT a common type of identity theft? a. Theft of personal items b. Social engineering c. Cyber crime d. False identity
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d. False identity
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Which of the following describes when the criminal uses the victim's personal information to create or open new financial accounts in the victim's name? a. Account hijacking b. Credit card fraud c. Database hacking d. Computer viruses
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a. Account hijacking
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What is the best way to deter identity theft? a. Duplicate information sources b. No photocopying of information c. Preventative education d. Not using credit cards
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c. Preventative education
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What is the number one factor in determining if the security force should be armed with firearms? a. A needs assessment b. The type of weapon c. Which state your facility is in d. How large a staff in the security force
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a. A needs assessment
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Which of the following describes the outer zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Inside the structure d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
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a. Generally, the boundary of the property
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Which of the following describes the basic functions of lock sets? a. Manual, Office, Classroom, Storage, Passage b. Classroom, Electronic, Storage, Privacy, Passage c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage d. Keyless, Office, Storage, Privacy, Passage
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c. Office, Classroom, Storage, Privacy, Passage
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Which of the following greatly improves the effectiveness of an access control system? a. Signage b. Magnetic locks c. Magnetic swipe cards d. Fences
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a. Signage
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Which of the following describes the middle zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Inside the structure d. Footprint of the inside of the structure
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b. Footprint of the actual structure
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Which of the following describes the inner zone in the theory of protection? a. Generally, the boundary of the property b. Footprint of the actual structure c. Footprint of the inside of the structure d. Inside the structure that is being protected
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d. Inside the structure that is being protected
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Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response to a disturbance? a. Call for medical, security backup, or police assistance, if required b. Observe or identify the person(s) causing the disturbance, and provide area and crowd control c. Step up to the person(s) d. Notify your supervisor or appropriate facility personnel per policy
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c. Step up to the person(s)
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Which of the following are examples of schedule I substances? a. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone c. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine) d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
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b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone
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Which of the following are examples of schedule II substances? a. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin b. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone d. Tylenol, Aspirin, Xanax
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d. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone
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Which of the following are examples of schedule III substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
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c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
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Which of the following are examples of schedule IV substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Morphine, Cocaine, Methadone c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax d. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin
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c. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
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Which of the following are examples of schedule V substances? a. Heroin, LSD, Marijuana, Methaqualone b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine) c. Codeine, Vicodin, OxyContin d. Darvon, Valium, Xanax
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b. Cough meds (w/Codine), diarrhea meds (w/atropine)
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Access to patient information is limited to those who "need to know" by which of the following? a. Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) b. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) d. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid (CMS)
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c. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
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Which of the following should be protected by bollards? a. Sidewalks b. Curbs c. Hydrants d. Trees
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c. Hydrants
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When placing a person in handcuffs: a. Place cuffs really tight b. Place hands behind the back c. Place hands with palms together d. Do not double lock them
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b. Place hands behind the back
