Course 14 V6 MP 3: Leadership and Management – Flashcards
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What is ethical leadership?
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Knowing your core values and having the courage to live by them in all parts of your life in service of the common good.
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What are values?
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The core beliefs we hold regarding what is right and fair in terms of our actions and our interactions with others; what individuals believe to be of worth and importance to their life.
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What are morals?
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Values that we attribute to a system of beliefs that help us define right from wrong, good versus bad. Typically, they get their authority from something outside the individual—they come from a higher being or authority.
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What does ethics?
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The study of what we understand to be good and right behavior and the study of how we judge those behaviors. A set of standards of conduct that guide decisions and actions based on duties derived from core values.
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What are military ethics?
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Deal specifically with those values and expected rules of the profession that are appropriate to actions taken within the military environment
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What is ethical relativism?
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The belief that nothing is objectively right or wrong and that the definition of right or wrong depends on the prevailing view of a particular individual, culture, or historical period.
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What is an ethical dilemma?
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Situation where one is forced to choose between two alternatives.
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What is an ethically minded organization?
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An organization that exemplifies professionalism, humility, self-control, personal discipline, and values.
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What are the ethical codes that make it possible to act and behave in an ethical manner in any given situation?
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- USAF Core Values - Oath of Enlistment - AFIs - UCMJ - DOD 5500.7-R, Joint Ethics Regulation (JER) - AFI 36-2618, Enlisted Force Structure
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What kind of issues do military leaders encounter ethical dilemmas?
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- Standards Of Ethical Conduct - Financial Disclosure Forms - Gifts To Superiors - Foreign Gifts - Use of Government Resources for Mementos and Gifts - Participation in Frequent Flyer Programs - Use of Government Communications Systems - Honoraria - Honorary Memberships - Off-Duty Employment
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What is an Ethical Trap?
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Confusion or uncertainty as to what action or behavior should be taken, conflicting opinions/values, all choices have drawbacks.
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What is Ethical Relativism?
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Making decisions based on personal values/beliefs rather than on military rules, regulations and codes of conduct.
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What is Loyalty Syndrome?
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Making decisions based on respect and/or loyalty to an individual, unit, or organization etc. rather than on military rules, regulations and codes of conduct.
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What is Worry Over Image?
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Making decisions based on how the decision will impact one‟s reputation/standing among peers, subordinates, supervisors, community etc.rather than on military rules, regulations and codes of conduct.
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What is Drive for Success?
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Making decisions based on a "win at all cost" attitude rather than on military rules, regulations, and codes of conduct.
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What is The Shame Test?
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If your actions were publicized, would you be embarrassed, discredited, or humiliated?
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What is The Community Test?
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Besides your family, would you want your peers, neighbors, or friends to know?
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What is The Legal Test?
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Could you face legal action? Are you willing to face legal action?
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What is The Situation Test?
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Could you justify your action because of peculiar, special or extraordinary circumstances?
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What is The God Test?
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What would your religious leader say? Would you want the action done to you? Or would you want everyone to make the same decision?
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What is The Consequences Test?
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Will the end justify the means?
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What are The three O's?
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Owing, ordering, and oughting state that we must know who and what we owe, display proper ordering by having moral structuring and ethical priorities, and understand what Airmen should do or ought to do.
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What are The three P's?
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Principle, purpose, and people are in the context that SNCOs must put principle (truth telling and honor) first; purpose (mission accomplishment and duty) second; and people (fellow citizens, Airmen, Soldiers, etc.) third.
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What are The three R's?
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Rules, results, and realities explain that rules give us ethical guidance, results are the outcomes or bottom line, and the consequences of following or not following those rules, and realities, which recognize the importance of the situation, circumstances, or realities.
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What are the The three D's?
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Discern, declare, and do state that we must try to discern the truth; at appropriate times, we declare the truth, as we have discerned it; and then we do what we have discerned and declared.
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What is "Sanctions and forgiveness for mistakes"?
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Actions caused by a misunderstanding that may not require disciplinary action; i.e., subordinate provides customer with incorrect information so the subordinate is provided remedial training on the topic and then closely supervised to ensure learning has occurred.
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What is "Appropriate action taken for dereliction of duty"?
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Misconduct that can require disciplinary action; i.e., misuse of Government Travel Card or subordinate reports to work late can require disciplinary action ranging from verbal counseling to courts-martial.
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What is "Prudence First - Justice Second"?
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Considering what is right before what is possible; just because something is legal or permissible, does not mean it is the right thing to do; and prudence is lawful behavior, but is also wise and just.
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Why is Compliance important
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•Important for unit discipline •Allows units to operate effectively •Maintains readiness •Allows units to face adversity •Maintains an effective fighting force
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Why is Compliance is Important for Unit Discipline
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•Allows individuals to perform as a single unified entity •Enables airmen to face challenges •Strengthens the unit to overcome adversity
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What must Enlisted leaders must understand regarding unit Discipline?
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•How unit discipline affects mission effectiveness at home station and in deployed and/or joint environments •Unit discipline and its impact on unit morale •Your actions as an SNCO affect the morale of your unit
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Why is Compliance Important for Unit Discipline?
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•Make the right decision when someone fails to follow rules •Properly discipline those who break the rules •Discipline is important for organizational safety and effectiveness
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What is Compliance?
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Compliance is the act of fulfilling official requirements and complying with: desire, demand, proposal, regimen, and coercion. In the Air Force it is a disposition to yield to others based on True Faith and Allegiance.
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The guidelines, rules, laws, procedures, checklists, and instructions also exist to:
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•Ensure the organization is doing the right thing •Create and maintain a culture of integrity •Ensure the organization meets its regulatory obligations •Detect and prevent activities contrary to organizational standards, policies, and laws •Provide a reference resource for the staff •Support the organization in making decisions that include high legal and ethical standards
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What are the three central themes exist in highly-successful organizations?
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•High performance standards •Caring attitude about people •Sense of uniqueness and pride
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What are the 3 qualities of Team accountability systems?
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1. Focus on clear expectations. 2. Foster the team's influence - in three directions. 3. Result in the consequences of team performance connecting directly to the team members.
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What four actions are the predictable "lessons learned" for establishing the culture of team and personal accountability?
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1) Enforce the rules, standards, instructions, etc. 2) Encourage personal accountability and establishing a culture of workplace accountability 3) Promote a sense of self-discipline through the use of task, imposed and group discipline 4) Encourage open and honest communication, a commitment to excellence, cooperation, support and empowerment, and flexibility
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What does resource stewardship mean?
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"the careful and responsible management of resources under one's control." Also means prudent use of allocated funds and the efficient and effective use of assigned facilities, space, equipment, and people.
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What is Continual Resolution Act (CRA)
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Fiscal law authority that allows the government to continue operations at a minimum level for a specific amount of time until funds are released to AF.
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What are appropriations?
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•Refers to money set aside for specific purposes •Covers military personnel pay and allowances, plus many other costs
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What types of items are covered under Operations and Maintenance (O&M) appropriations?
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1. mobilization 2. recruiting and training 3. administration and service wide activities 4. civilian salaries 5. installation operation and maintenance 6. environmental restoration, and a myriad of other costs associated with day-to-day Air Force operations.
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What is the budget process?
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An endless cycle of planning, programming, revising, adjusting, and spending.
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What milestones are included in the budget cycle?
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1. quarterly spending targets 2. variance analysis and execution plan submissions 3. end of year close out
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In the budget cycle, what are SNCOs most concerned with?
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1. Budget Execution Review (BER) 2. financial execution plans (FEP) 3. hitting budget spending targets
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Describe the two-part process of the BER:
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The first part requires every level of command to identify, validate, and prioritize its unfunded requirements and then submit them to higher headquarters for funding consideration. The second part requires each level of command to review and prioritize (Rack and Stack) all subordinate command unfunded requirements in order to move funds around the command to cover funding shortfalls deemed top priority.
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What is the Financial Execution Plan?
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A product used by the Air Force to balance available funding, risks and requirements, while delivering goods and services to customers within the Operations and Maintenance (O&M) appropriation.
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What are some types of basic funding requirements for most organizations?
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•Include a spending plan which projects when the funds will be spent throughout •Include other common areas such as civilian pay, building maintenance and repair, and custodial and landscaping contracts •Include information technology costs
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Describe section I of the FEP:
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Section 1: Mission Critical Requirements, lists all mission critical requirements funded within the projected fiscal year's budget. Each requirement is assigned to an element of expense investment code (EEIC).
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Describe section II of the FEP:
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Section 2: Justification, is the cost of each requirement listed in section one along with justification.
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Describe section III of the FEP:
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Section 3: Unfunded Requirements, list requirements that exceed projected funding and include the cost and justification for each unfunded requirement.
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Describe section IV of the FEP:
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Section 4: Spend Plan, illustrates how projected funds will be spent over a 12-month fiscal year period.
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What are the functions of the Anti-Deficiency Act?
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•Requires sending report to Comptroller General on the same date •Requires violators send reports to Congress and the President •Enables Congress to exercise constitutional control of the public purse
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What is Authorizing?
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Obligating your unit to spend more than it has been authorized and do not spend money on unauthorized items or purchase items, contracts, resources, supplies, and so forth from the wrong pot of money.
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What is Obligating funds?
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According to U.S. Code, involving the government in any obligation to pay money before funds have been appropriated for that purpose, unless otherwise allowed by law. Simply put, do not spend or obligate funds in anticipation of receiving them.
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What is Voluntary/personal services?
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According to U.S. Code, accepting voluntary services for the United States, or employing personal services not authorized by law, except in cases of emergency involving the safety of human life or the protection of property.
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What is Obligations/expenditures?
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According to U.S. Code, making obligations or expenditures in excess of an apportionment or reapportionment or in excess of the amount permitted by agency regulations.
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Anti Deficiency Act violations include:
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•Subject to appropriate administrative and punitive measures (suspension without pay or removal from office •Incur fines of not more than $5,000, imprisonment for not more than two years, or both for "knowingly and willingly" violating any of the provisions cited
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pick up on pg 54
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What are the 4 manpower core competencies?
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•Organizational Management •Program Allocation & Control •Requirements Determination •Performance Management
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What is an Organizational Change Request (OCR)
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The instrument used to activate, inactivate, redesignate, or reorganize organizations
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What is the Unit Manpower Document ?
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A computer product detailing a unit's organization and manpower composition.
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What is the purpose of the UMD?
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To provide commanders and managers a consolidated document detailing the organization structure, (the number, skills, grade and security requirements of manpower authorizations), the position number for each authorization ,and other pertinent data needed for management of manpower resources.
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What are unfunded requirements?
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Valid, but unfunded, positions needed to accomplish the assigned workload. Funded manpower positions are allocated by category-officer, enlisted, and civilian. Given the fact that requirements have always exceeded available funding, commanders prioritize requirements and allocate funding to the highest priority.
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What is an Authorization Change Request (ACR)?
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A multi-purpose instrument used to propose adjustments to the UMD.
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Examples of ACR use include?
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•Changes to Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSC) •Adjustments in grade or skill level •Changes to Support Assistance Request (SAR) or Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) codes
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Do not submit an ACR when problems are created by what?
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•Shortage of assigned personnel •Poor or inadequate supervision, personality conflicts, or lack of workers' skills •Self-imposed or peaking workloads •Inefficient procedures and/or ineffective and/or inefficient use of personnel
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When does the wing or vice wing commander approve all ACRs?
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Authorizations that impact across group lines of command or are on the wing staff.
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When does the group commander approve all ACRs?
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Authorizations that impact across squadron lines of command within that commander's group.
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When does the squadron commander approve all ACRs?
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Authorizations that impact subordinates and report to the commander.
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What is Strategic Alignment and Development
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The method used to ensure everyone in Air Force organizations is working effectively towards the same goals identified by senior leadership. It is a product of annual strategic and performance planning.
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What is Strategic Alignment and Development designed to do?
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1. Align the enterprise to achieve the priorities, goals, objectives, metrics, and tasks impacting the entire organization 2. Provide a common/standard methodology to deploy metrics and action plans throughout the enterprise 3. Communicate commander's intent relative to goals, objectives, metrics, and action plans 4. Assign accountability and responsibility at all levels 5. Ensure alignment throughout the organization 6. Concentrate the organization on high-leverage outputs 7. Form a disparate group of individuals into a team with a common goal
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What is Strategy?
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The first part being Strategy. Strategy is about choices. What you choose to prioritize, your actions in support of your priorities, the order in which you take them, and how you allocate resources against your priorities to support the nation's objectives.
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What is Alignment?
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Alignment is the translation of the vision into measurable results.
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How does the Cascading Process affect Alignment?
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It ensures everyone is on board with the Priorities and Goals from the top down and ensures the work done from the bottom up is completing these Goals.
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What are the five priorities that provide the foundation for aligning Air Force wide activities and investments?
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1. Continue to strengthen the Air Force nuclear enterprise; 2. Partner with the joint and coalition team to win today's fight 3. Develop and care for Airmen and their families 4. Modernize air and space inventories, organizations, and training 5. Recapture acquisition excellence.
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What are tasks?
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Concise, simple, and understandable action statement consisting of specific deliverables.
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What is the Balanced Score Card?
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A strategy management system - establishing and communicating an organization's mission, vision, and strategy map to customers, stakeholders and employees and for aligning day-to-day work to the strategy.
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The Balanced Score Card is a more "dressed up" version of the Strategy Map and normally displays what?
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1. Measurements, such as metrics identifying whether or not objectives are being met. 2. Based on alignment, it is a strategy execution tool, not a creation tool.
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The Balanced Score Card is used by which MAJCOMs?
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•AETC •AFMC •Air Force Logistics •USAFA
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What does CPI improve?
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•reduced energy consumption •safety •optimizing costs •cycle time and reliability •availability of warfighting capabilities
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AFSO21's approach uses portions of what?
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Lean, Six Sigma, Business Process Reengineering, and Theory of Constraints, with some of the greatest emphasis on Lean Thinking.
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What does continuous process improvement improve?
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1. Time and reliability 2. Optimized costs 3. Improved safety 4. Reduced energy consumption 5. Improved availability of warfighting capabilities
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What is Strategic agility?
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Always moving towards process innovation and organizational adaptability to confront and overcome these difficulties.
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What are the 5 Lean principles:
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•Produce only what is pulled by the customer •Make all the processes flow •Identify all the steps along the process chain •Specify what creates value from the customer's perspective •Strive for perfection by continually removing waste
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What does OODA stand for?
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Observe, Orient, Decide, Act.
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What are the 8 steps Change Management?
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Step 1: Clarify and validate the problem Step 2: Break down the problem and identify performance gaps Step 3: Set Improvement Target Step 4: Determine Root Cause Step 5: Develop Countermeasures Step 6: See Countermeasures through Step 7: Confirm Results and Process Step 8: Standardize Successful Processes
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What are the four stages of change according to Janssen's Model of Change?
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1. Contentment 2. Denial 3. Confusion 4. Renewal
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What could failing to synthesize change requirements could lead to?
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1. The wrong people being put in the wrong positions 2. Poor planning 3. Lack of direction 4. Lack of leadership 5. A failed change effort
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What are the 8 stages of transforming an organization?
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Stage 1: Establish a sense of urgency Stage 2: Create the guiding coalition Stage 3: Develop a vision and strategy Stage 4: Communicate the change vision Stage 5: Empower others for broad-based action Stage 6: Generating short term wins Stage 7: Consolidate gains and produce more change Stage 8: Anchor new approaches in the culture
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What is project management
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The process of leading, coordinating, planning, and controlling a diverse and complex set of processes and people in the pursuit of achieving project objectives.
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What are the constraints of Project Management?
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Time, Cost, Scope, and Quality or Performance
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What are the 5 stages in the project management process?
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Stage one - project initiation Stage two - project planning and design Stage three - project execution and construction Stage four - project monitoring and controlling systems Stage five - project completion
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What is the primary task of team?
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Successfully perform its mission
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What is the team member's purpose?
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Proudly serve American people and partner nations by accomplishing the Air Force's mission
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What question would someone using the Conceptual Approach ask?
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"I understand what we're trying to do," or "I've got an idea on what to do."
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What question would someone using the Spontaneous Approach ask?
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"Let's get going on this," or "Let's do something different."
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What question would someone using the Normative Approach ask?
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"I've done something like this before," or "I remember what happened last time."
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What question would someone using the Methodical Approach ask?
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"Let's break this down," or "We need to look at the facts
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What does the C stand for in the four team roles?
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The first of these basic roles is the Creator. Creators focus on the possibilities and generate new ideas and fresh concepts.
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What does the A stand for in the four team roles?
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The second role is the Advancer. Advancers focus on interaction. They communicate new ideas and carry them forward.
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What does the R stand for in the four team roles?
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The third role is the Refiner. Refiners focus on the analysis. They challenge all concepts using methodical processes.
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What does the E stand for in the four team roles?
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The fourth role is the Executor. Executors focus on the realization. They follow up on team objectives and implement ideas and solutions.
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What are the unique characteristics of a flexer?
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Flexers can focus on everything. They are a combination of all the other four roles and have an equal preference for most or all of the roles. Flexers combine all four approaches to fill their role, making them much more versatile; able to fill in for any of the other four roles that may be lacking.
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Describe the P.E.P cycle?
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Panic is the first "P," in the P.E.P. Cycle, which is extremely common in any innovation process. It is as natural as the state of confusion experienced whenever you experience change. Panic is often experienced when people are in the Denial or Confusion stages. For some people, the Panic stage doesn't last very long. Sooner or later everyone gets inspired and has an idea, right? Elation is the "E" in the P.E.P. Cycle —a feeling of, "What a great idea!" After you've felt Elation, most of the time you have a moment to sit back and ponder your idea. What can happen next is reverting back to a state of Panic, the final "P." Panic is the last "P," in the P.E.P. Cycle -a feeling of "That idea will never work." When team members come up with an idea, they also move from Panic to Elation simply because they "thought of something. " However, most people quickly return to Panic because they immediately begin doubting their own ideas
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Describe the focus of C.A.R.E. during the "Z" process
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C-Creators focus o possibilities. The primary goal of the Creating Stage is to generate as many new ideas as possible. A-Advancers focus on interaction. Advancers recognize ideas and new directions in their early stages and develop ways to promote them. R-Refiners focus on analysis. Refiners challenge all concepts. E-Executors focus on realities. Executors strive for achieving high-quality results with attention to detail.
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What is Anchoring?
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An offer that is at or slightly more aggressive than the aspiration point.
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What is Aspiration Point?
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The best each party hopes to get out of a negotiated agreement.
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What is Bargaining or Zone of Possible Agreement or ZOPA?
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The bargaining range defined as the overlapping or common area of each party's aspiration point and reservation point. No overlap, no ZOPA!
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What is Best Alternative To a Negotiated Agreement or BATNA?
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Defined as an alternative that--should negotiations fail--you are willing and able to execute without the other party's participation or permission
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What is an interest?
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The reason behind your position. It is the "why" behind what you want.
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What is the reservation point?
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The bottom line; the least favorable option or offer you will accept.
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What is demand?
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A statement of terms with no room for adjustment. It is positional and embodies the most precise use of a take-it-or-leave-it option.
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What is Interest-Based Negotiations, or IBN?
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The practice of focusing on the interests, and not the positions, of the two negotiating parties. It is the preferred style by the Air Force mediators because, in most instances, there will be a continuing relationship between the parties after mediation and negotiations adjourn.
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What is the 2-fold purpose of the Trust Information Power and Options (TIPO) Model?
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First, it illustrates how trust influences your use of information and power, and how information and power influences the way you develop options to resolve a dispute, solve a problem, and find a solution. Second, understanding how trust, information, and power impact a negotiation session should motivate you to assess situations beforehand.
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What are the types of powers that are associated with position power and personal power?
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Coercive and Reward, Connection, Legitimate, Referent or Charisma, Information, and Expert.
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What is Reward power?
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Used to positively influence another person's situation using incentives that the other party values--like time-off or quarterly awards.
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What is Connection power?
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Pertains to who you know or are affiliated with. This power depends on the other's belief you have powerful connections with others who can support and strengthen your position.
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What is Legitimate power?
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Based on one's rank, position, or level of authority. Although you may be able to use this power over your opposite, consider the relationship and only use this power when your intentions are legal, ethical, and appropriate.
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What is Referent power (charisma)?
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People respond to this power because they have a high identification with you, respect and admire you, or tend to follow and agree with you because they aspire to be like you. This power affords the opportunity to encourage, motivate, and inspire others.
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What is Information power?
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Comes from one's knowledge, use, and sharing of data or information that others may need or desire. Some tend to withhold information from others so they maintain the advantage and the higher hand.
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What is Expert power?
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Comes from one's expertise in a specific task, subject, or career field.
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When do you use the insist strategy?
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Use this strategy when: •Obtaining your objective is paramount •There's little to no regard for preserving the relationship •There's little to no regard of the opposite's interest Insist
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When do you use the Cooperate strategy?
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Use this strategy when: •Each party's collaborative efforts •A desire to maintain trusting relationships (people orientation) •A desire to achieve a mutually satisfactory outcome (task orientation)
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When do you use the Evade strategy?
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This passive, unassertive strategy is useful when the: •Current situation favors any proposed solution •Issue at hand is unimportant to one or both parties •There are other, more pressing priorities •Opposite is way too powerful or competitive
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When do you use the Comply strategy?
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Use this strategy when: •Preserving the relationship is more important than the task •Responsibility is delegated to the other person or party •One party complies with opposite more assertive party
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When do you use the Settle strategy?
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Use this strategy when: •There's little chance of getting everything you want •There's a need for quick negotiation, but optimal outcome is not a priority •One variable is at stake
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What is Evaluative Mediation?
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Subject-matter expert: •Mediates •Describes the issue •Offers an opinion on the strengths and weaknesses of each party's side •Suggests options to resolve the matter
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What is Facilitative Mediation?
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Active third party mediator encourages the parties to: •Discuss matters freely •Voluntarily participate in the mediation process •Clarify issues •Reevaluate positions •Analyze interests to resolve the original dispute
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What are Stakeholders?
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Have a vested or personal interest in the initiation, processing, and resolution of a dispute. Stakeholders may include commanders, first sergeants, supervisors, subordinates, neighbors, family members, and legal and all other intra-agency representatives--such as labor unions.
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What is a Caucus: Confidential Meeting?
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•Confidential, private meeting between each party (individually) and the mediator •Offers the mediator perspective •Ensures potential that the parties can reach agreement
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What is a Mediator?
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•Facilitates communications •Promotes understanding •Focuses negotiating parties on their interests (rather than their positions) •Seeks creative problem solving to enable the parties to reach their own agreement
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What is The Impasse: A Barrier?
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•Parties fail to make progress toward resolution •Creates a significant challenge in any mediation •Great mediators apply their skills to move past impasse
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What is a Reality Checking for Feasibility?
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Mediator uses this process to: •Help the parties understand the weaknesses of their case, issue, or demand •Provide a reality check
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What is Emotional Control: Maintain a Safe Environment?
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The mediator: •Exhibits no outward reaction to a party's emotional display •Maintains neutrality and credibility •Maintains the safety of the participants •Remains calm and maintains the quality of the proceedings
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What is Fostering: Understanding of Others' Views?
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A skilled mediator: •Uses empathy - understanding another's situation, feelings, and motives •Does not necessarily share, agree, or even sympathize with any view expressed •Provides new perspectives that may reveal options previously hidden
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What are the five stages of mediation?
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1. Mediator opening statement 2. Parties' opening statements 3. Joint discussion 4. Caucus 5. Closure
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What happens during the parties' opening statements?
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Here, they receive adequate time to speak without interruption regarding the issue at hand and share their side of the issue
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What happens during the Joint discussion?
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This is the first opportunity for the mediator to interact with and assist the parties in focusing less on their positions and more on their interests.
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What happens during Stage 1: Mediator Opening Statement?
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•First meeting between the mediator and both parties together •The mediator's opening statement establishes the session structure, ensures that the parties understand the mediation process, and gains their commitment to it
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What happens Stage 2: Parties' Opening Statements?
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•Explain the Issue •The disputing parties offer their opening statements. •They have adequate time to speak without interruption regarding the issue at hand and share their side of the issue. •Each party fully explains the issue, their interests, and positions as they see it so that all parties, including the mediator, understand.
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What does ACE stand for?
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Ask Care Escort
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What are the 5 C's for coping with Reckless Behavior?
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1. Care 2. Commit 3. Connect 4. Communicate 5. Celebrate
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What steps should be taken for someone who was sexually assaulted?
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1. Address immediate medical and safety needs. Be prepared for ongoing support of the victim. 2. Seek input from the victim about time off for counseling or medical issues and any other issues that may impact her or his ability to perform military duties. 3. Work with your supervisor to support the victim through the recovery process.
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What are the features of Restricted reporting?
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• Provides confidentiality • Applies only to active duty military, their dependents who are 18 years of age or older, and members of the guard and reserve in status • Does not trigger a law enforcement investigation • Does not involve the chain of command.
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What is the role of the Victim Advocate?
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Acts as liaison for victim/survivor Facilitates access to ongoing services Empowers victims/survivors to make informed choices and Remains victim-centered at all times.
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What is assault?
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A violent physical or verbal attack, an unlawful threat or an attempt to do violence or harm somebody else.
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What is aggravated assault?
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An assault plus (1) a dangerous weapon, or (2) with intent to rape, maim, or murder. "
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Who may be a part of a Workplace Violence Awareness Team, or WVAT?
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This team may consist of a Supervisor, Family Support Center, Behavioral Science Flight, Chaplain, Military Equal Opportunity Office, Civilian Personnel Office, Security Forces, an Exclusive Recognized Union, and An Office of Special Investigations.
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What does the acronym JACA stand for regarding the four indicators of future violence?
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These relate to how a perpetrator thinks about committing violence. J=Perceived justification: does the person feel justified using violence? A=Perceived alternatives: does the person perceive alternatives to violence? C=Perceived consequences: how does the person view the consequences of violence? A=Perceived ability: does the person believe he or she is able to assault someone, shoot someone, or detonate a bomb.
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What are the Air Force's 11 specific policy and training elements that advocate taking care of Airmen?
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1. Leadership involvement; 2. Professional Military Education 3. Use of mental health services 4. Community preventive services 5. Education and training 6. Investigative interview policy 7. Trauma stress response 8. Integrated delivery system (IDS) & community action information board (CAIB) 9. Limited privilege suicide prevention program 10. Integrated delivery system consultation assessment tool (formally behavioral health survey) 11. Suicide event surveillance system.
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What is strategic communication?
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Focused United States Government efforts to understand and engage key audiences to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of United States Government interests, policies, and objectives through the use of coordinated programs, plans, themes, messages, and products synchronized with the actions of all instruments of national power.
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What is the primary purpose of strategic communication?
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To influence particular audiences
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What is the Dept of State's role in strategic communication?
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•Monitors domestic and diplomatic policies •Determines specific policy objectives •Publishes messages to communicate objectives to audiences
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What is Web 2.0?
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Describes blogs, social networks, and internet-based services that emphasize collaboration and sharing
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What is a weblog (BLOG)?
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A diary on a web site usually maintained by an individual with regular commentary for public viewing. •Allows users to reflect, share opinions, and discuss various topics •Considered a powerful marketing and branding too
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What is a microblog?
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A passive broadcast medium in the form of blogging; content is typically much smaller, in both actual size and aggregate file size. •Short sentence fragment, image, or embedded video •Allows users to control who can read their microblog (i.e. Twitter)
