Microbiology Virology (3rd Deb) – Flashcards
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Unlock answersWhich virus family is characterized by a single-stranded DNA genome? |
Parvoviridae |
Which virus family is characterized by a double-stranded RNA genome? |
Reoviridae |
Which viruses are susceptible to acyclovir? What is the mechanism of effect of the drug? |
alpha herpesviruses – HSV1, HSV2, VZV; inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase and DNA chain terminator |
Explain why acyclovir is selectively toxic to cells infected by alpha-herpesviruses! |
These viruses encode their own thymidine kinase enzymes, which are needed for activation (phosphorylation) of the drug. Cellular thymidine kinase does not activate the drug. |
In which cells do Herpes simplex viruses establish latent infection? |
Sensory ganglion cells (trigeminal or sacral ganglia) |
What is the possible, late complication (years after acute infection) of the childhood chickenpox? |
Herpes zoster (shingles) |
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by B19 parvovirus? |
fetal death or hydrops fetalis |
Which isotype of antigen-specific immunoglobulins in the newborn's blood indicates a; congenital infection? |
IgM; |
What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in congenital infections? |
cytomegalic inclusion disease ; spontaneous abortion, CNS damage (deafness, blindness,; mental retardation), hepatosplenomegaly, jaundice; |
What diseases do cytomegalovirus cause in immunocompetent persons?; |
mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil-antibody negative) |
Mention 2 diseases that cytomegalovirus can cause in immune compromised persons! |
pneumonia, chorioretinitis, colitis |
Which antiviral drug is active against cytomegalovirus infection? |
Ganciklovir, (foscarnet, cidofovir); |
Describe the heterophil antibody test used in Epstein-Barr virus diagnostics! |
Paul-Bunnel test ; in mononucleosis caused by EBV, the serum of the patient; agglutinates sheep red blood cells; |
Which virus causes exanthema subitum (roseola infantum)? |
HHV6; |
Which virus causes erythema infectiosum?; |
Human parvovirus B19 |
Reverse transcription is involved in the replication of which DNA virus?; |
Hepadnaviridae ; HBV |
What is the mechanism of antigenic shift in influenza viruses? |
reassortment of genome segments |
Which antigens of the influenza virus are recognized by neutralizing antibodies? |
Hemagglutinin, neuraminidase |
Which virus(es) is(are) susceptible to amantadine?; |
Influenza A virus |
What is the possible late complication of measles infection (several years after the; acute infection)? |
SSPE ; subacute sclerosing panencephalitis |
What is the portal of entry of the viruses belonging to Paramyxoviridae? |
Respiratory tract ; aerosol infection; |
Which age group is mostly affected by respiratory syncitial (RS) virus infection? |
babies (6 week ; 6 month old) |
What are the possible complications of adulthood mumps virus infection? Specify at; least 2 of them!; |
Orchitis, meningitis, pancreatitis |
What is the route of infection of rabies virus? How does rabies virus spread in the; infected body?; |
By the bite of a rabid animal, (rarely by infectious aerosol); spread of the virus in the host ; along the axons; |
What medication does a person need after exposure to rabies virus?; |
Active immunization ; human diploid cell vaccine (killed virus); and passive immunization ; rabies immune globulin |
What is the portal of entry of polioviruses? Which areas of the central nervous system; are affected by poliovirus infection? |
oropharynx and gastrointestinal tract; damage in motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord + brain stem |
Which viruses belong to the Enterovirus genus? |
Polioviruses, coxsackie A and B viruses, echoviruses, enteroviruses 68 - 71 |
Mention 4 diseases caused by Coxsackie viruses!; |
febrile rashes, herpangina, myocarditis, pericarditis, meningitis, pleurodynia, hand-; foot-and-mouth disease |
What disease do rotaviruses cause? At which age? |
gastroenteritis in young children |
List the 3 antigens of hepatitis B virus against which antibodies may develop during or; after the acute phase of infection? |
HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg; |
Which hepatitis B-specific antibody is never present in chronic hepatitis? |
Anti-Hbs; |
What are the main modes of transmission of HBV (hepatitis B virus) infection? |
sexual contact; perinatally from mother to newborn; by blood or blood product |
What are the 2 serological markers that are necessary and sufficient to prove acute; hepatitis B virus infection? |
HBsAg, Anti-HBc IgM; |
Describe the active and passive prophylaxis against hepatitis B! |
active immunization: recombinant HBsAg vaccine; passive immunization: HBIG (hepatitis B immune globulin); |
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired orally? |
HAV, HEV |
Which hepatitis viruses are acquired via parenteral routes? |
HBV, HCV, HDV, (HGV) |
Mention 4 diseases that can be caused by adenoviruses!; |
pharyngitis, pharyngoconjunctival fever, acut respiratory disease, bronchitis,; atypical pneumonia, hemorrhagic cystitis, gastrointestinal infection |
Mention 2 human prion diseases! |
Kuru, Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease, Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome, fatal; familial insomnia |
What are the serious complications of HSV infection in newborns? |
disseminated infections, encephalitis, skin, eye, mouth infection; |
Mention 3 DNA virus families containing no envelope! |
Parvoviridae, Papovaviridae, Adenoviridae |
Mention 3 DNA virus families containing envelope! |
Herpesviridae, Hepadnaviridae, Poxviridae; |
Mention 3 RNA virus families containing no envelope!; |
Picornaviriade, Caliciviridae, Reoviridae |
Mention 3 RNA virus families containing envelope! |
Orthomyxoviridae, Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, etc. |
What is the portal of entry of mumps virus? |
Upper respiratory tract |
Mention at least two viruses capable of causing pneumonia.; |
RSV, influenza virus A and B, parainfluenza virus, adenovirus, coronavirus (SARS),; metapneumovirus, |
What is the causative agent of subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)? |
Measles virus |
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigen(s) in the combined vaccine against measles,; German measles and mumps?; |
live attenuated viruses |
What is the nature of antigen in the rabies vaccine for human use? |
killed virus |
Which viral variants are included in the human influenza vaccine? |
The vaccine contains 2 influenza A strains (H3N2, H1N1) and 1 influenza B strain.; |
What is the nature of antigen in the vaccine against hepatitis B? |
Subunit vaccine, containing HBsAg |
What is(are) the nature(s) of antigens in the vaccines against poliovirus? |
IPV: inactivated polio vaccine: killed viruses (types 1, 2 and 3); OPV: oral polio vaccine: live attenuated viruses (types 1, 2 and 3) |
What is the causative agent of PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy)? |
JC virus (Polyomaviridae) |
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic shift? |
influenza A |
Which influenza virus types are characterised by antigenic drift? |
Influenza A and B |
What is the nature of the immune response in diseases caused by prions? |
There is no immune response, as prions are self proteins.; |
Mention at least 3 diseases caused by herpes simplex viruses (HSV1, HSV2)! |
oropharyngeal herpes (gingivostomatitis, herpes labialis), keratoconjunctivitis,; encephalitis, herpes genitalis |
What are the possible consequences of fetal infections caused by rubella virus? Specify at; least 3 of them! |
Congenital malformations involving the heart (patent ductus arteriosus, septum; defects), the eyes (cataract, glaucoma) and the brain (deafness, mental reardation). |
Which ifluenza A subtypes cause most human infections currently? |
H1N1, H3N2 |
Which are the two most important targets of antiretroviral chemotherapy? |
HIV reverse transcriptase and protease |
Mention 3 nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS! |
azidothymidine (zidovudine), dideoxyinozine (didanosine), dideoxycytidine; (zalcitabine), stavudine, lamivudine, abacavir |
Mention 2 non nucleoside type reverse transcriptase inhibitors used in the therapy of; AIDS! |
nevirapine, delavirdine, efavirenz; |
Mention 2 protease inhibitors used in the therapy of AIDS! |
indinavir, saquinavir, ritonavir, nelfinavir, amprenavir |
What is the principle of the ;highly active antiretroviral therapy; (HAART) currently used; in the treatment of AIDS! |
Combination of two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (such as zidovudine; and lamivudine) and a protease inhibitor (such as indinavir). Or combination of two; nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (such as zidovudine and lamivudine) and; a nonnucleosid reverse transcriptase inhibitor (such as efavirenz).; 2 NRTI + PI/NNRTI |
What are the criteria to classify a virus as robovirus? Write an example, too!; |
Robovirus: rodent reservoir (rodent-borne) ; Arenaviridae ; Lassa, Junin, Machupo, LCM virus; Bunyaviridae ; Hantaan virus,; Puumala virus, Sin Nombre virus; Filoviridae ; Marburg, Ebola virus; |
What are the criteria to classify a virus as arbovirus? Write an example, too! |
Arbovirus: arthropode vector (arthropode-borne); ; Flaviviridae ; yellow fever, Dengue-fever; Bunyaviridae ; Rift-valley fever, Crimean-; Congo hemorrhagic fever; etc.; |
Which hepatitis virus infections increase the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma?; |
HBV, HCV, HDV |
Which virus can cause haemorrhagic fever with hepatitis and nephritis? |
yellow fever virus |
Describe the 2 different epidemiological cycles of yellow fever! |
Jungle yellow fever: reservoir: monkeys; vector: Haemagogus mosquitos; humans:; accidental hosts; Urban yellow fever: reservoirs: humans; vectors : Aedes aegypti mosquitos |
How can we prevent tick borne encephalitis? |
Active immunization: killed virus vaccine, passive: specific immune globulin |
Which viruses can cause human tumors? Mention at least 4! |
HPV, EBV, HHV-8, HBV, HCV, HTLV |
Mention 3 opportunistic infections characteristic for AIDS! |
Viruses: HSV-1, HSV-2, VZV, HCMV, EBV, HHV-8, HPV; Protozoa: Toxoplasma gondii, Pneumocystis carinii; Bacteria: Mycobacterium tuberculosis, atypical Mycobacteria, Salmonella septicaemia; Fungi: Candida, Cryptococcus neoformans; |
Describe the principals of the laboratory diagnosis of HIV infection! |
Demonstration of antiviral antibodies.; Presumptive diagnosis: ELISA; Verification: Western-blot assay |
Mention three sexually transmittable viral infections! |
HPV, HSV-1, HSV-2, HIV, HBV, HCV, molluscum contagiosum |
Mention two viruses capable of getting through the placenta. |
Rubella virus, HCMV, parvovirus B19, HIV, HTLV-1; |
Mention 2 viral infections whose preventive strategy involves passive immunization!; |
;Rabies, tick-borne encephalitis, HBV, VZV, measles; |
List three viruses capable of causing (meningo)encephalitis! |
Rabies, HSV, VZV, tick-borne encephalitis, Japanese B encephalitis, eastern and; western equine encepahalitis, mumps, poliovirus, coxsackie virus, echovirus |
What is the nature(s) of antigen in the vaccine against yellow fever? |
Live attenuated virus (17D strain) |
What disease does Epstein-Barr virus cause? What are the Epstein-Barr virus; associated tumors? |
Mononucleosis infectiosa (heterophil positive); Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt;s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas; |
Mention 3 types of human cancers caused by EBV? |
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma, Burkitt;s lymphoma, other B-cell lymphomas |
What type of human cancer is caused most frequently by HHV8? |
Kaposi;s sarcoma |
What types of human cancers are caused by high-risk HPV types? |
genital cancers, most importantly cervical cancer |
