BIO 244 – Exam 3 – Flashcards

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question
What is Hyaluronidase?
answer
  1. Virulence factor
  2. Sticky substance that allows oraganisms to move through connective tissue by decreaseing its permeability
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What are the 3 common species of Staphylococci found on your skin?
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  1. Staph. aureus
  2. Staph. epidermidis
  3. Staph. saprophyticus

 

 

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What are the factors that make Staph like our skin so much?

 

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They withstand high salinity, radiation levels, and they like oils.
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Where are Staphylocci found on the human body?
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Nostrils, head, arms, legs, urinary tract
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Virulence Factor

 

Protein-A

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antibody neutrolizer - ties up immunoglobulin (Ig)

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Virulence Factor

What is Fibronectin Binding Protein?

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it allows organism to colonize within connective tissue (associated with the wall)
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Virulence Factor

What is DNase?

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Enzyme that breaks up DNA, and allows raw nucleotides to be used for nutrients
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Virulence Factor

What is a hemolysin?

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enzymes that break down membranes of RBC's
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Virulence Factor

What does Lacthamase do?

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breaks down some antibiotics
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What does VISA stand for?
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Vancomysin Intermediate Staph Aureus

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semi-resistant, gene is not fully expressed

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What does VRSA stand for?
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Vancomysin Resistant Staph Aureus;
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What are Leukocidins?
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virulence factor that punches holes in leukocytes

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lyses them

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What are Exfoliative Toxins?
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cytotoxins that interferes with skin and causes surfaces layers to fall off
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What are some diseases caused by Staph aureus?
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styes, folliculitis, decubitus ulcer (bed sore), breast absess, boil, carbuncle, bolus impetigo, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, endocarditis, and pneumonia
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What is the triangle of sensitivity?
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It's the triangular area on the face where you are most suseptible to staph infections. 

 

 

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What are some general characteristics of Streptococcus?

Where does it like to infect? 

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Facultative anerobe and creates biofilms 

 

it likes to infect deep

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What group of Strep causes the most problems?
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Group A - Strep Pyogenes
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What virulence factor allows Strep Pyogenes to colonize mucus lined areas?
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M-proteins: adhesive, sticks to mucus area by bindng to fibrinogen.
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What is a Viridian?
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Strep that is not included in groups A, B, C, or D.
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What is Toxic Shock Toxin 1 (TSST1)?
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a toxin released by staph aureus, and pyogenes that alters BP, stimulates clotting factors, shuts down vasculature, and organs.

 

Causes toxic shock syndrome

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What is something associated with Staph Infection?
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Maladies
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What is C5 peptidase?
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A viruelnce factor that degrades compliment component.
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What are some key features about Proteus Mirabilus?
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  1. It's opportunistic
  2. Swarmer - swarm swimmer
  3. Can form a biofilm

;

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Where does Proteus Mirabilus usually infect?
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Gall bladder, UTI, kidney area - not deadly but causes complications
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  1. What is a virulence factor of Klebsiella?
  2. Where does it usually infect?
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  1. Respiratory infections
  2. opportunistic
  3. produces thick capsules - polysaccharide chains like mucus, which lets it escape macrophages
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  1. What are some key features of Pseudomonas?
  2. What diseases is it associated with?;
  3. Virulence factors?
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  1. opportunistic and gram negative,;stricly aerobic,;plagues cystic fibrosis patients
  2. causes pneumonia, corneal ulcers and swimmers ear
  3. leukocidins, exotoxin A - inhibits protein synthesis, green pigment contains pyocyanin, proteases, and lipases
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What are virulence factors of Pseudomonas?
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  1. proteases ; lipases
  2. exotoxin A - cytotoxin that stops protein synthesis
  3. leukocidin
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Pseudomonas produce a green pigment, what are the advantages of this?
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  1. It contains pilocidin
  2. Colicin
  3. Induces inflammatory response
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  1. What are some key features of Neiserria?
  2. How is it transmitted?
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  1. causes meningitis or ghonnorhea
  2. microdroplet transmission, std
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What are important notable virulence factors associated with Neiserria?
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  1. P ; S Fimbriae - (P - urogenital S - meninges)
  2. Por Protein;
  3. Opa Protein
  4. Rmp Protein
  5. LOS - lipooligosaccharide
  6. IgA protease
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What are the infection sites of Neiserria?
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mucous membranes, back of the throat, and urogenital tract
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What are some features of Neiserria Meningiotidis? (Meningiococcal)
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  1. capsule that camouflages from immune system
  2. causes petechial lesions
  3. microdroplet ;transmission
  4. ID50 = 10
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What are some key features of Acinetobacter?
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  1. found on the skin (armpit), can withstand dehydration, likes warm climate
  2. opportunistic -;neonates and ventilation patients most susceptible
  3. causes UTI's
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What are some featuers of Coccobacillary?
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  1. gram negative
  2. microaerophils - likes small concentrations of oxygen
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What are 3 examples of Coccobacillary organisms?
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Hemophilus Influenza Type B, Hemophilus ducreyi, Bordatella
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What are some key virulence factors associated with Hemophilus Type B?
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  1. encapsulated
  2. endotoxins
  3. IgA protease
  4. CDT - cytotoxic distending toxin - carinogen
  5. Fimbriae and adhesins
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Which strand of Hemophilus is the most problematic/pathogenic? 

 

What can it cause in infants?

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Influenza Type B

can cause meningitis in infantst up to age 5

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Hemophilus Ducreyi causes what uderreported STD?
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Chancroid 
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What are some key features about Bordatella?
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  1. Pertussis agent
  2. person to person transmission via aerosol; can't live outside of the body
  3. DPT vaccine
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What are notable characterstic virulence factors associated with Bordatella?
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  1. pertussis toxin;
  2. tracheal cytotoxin
  3. dermatocritic toxin
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What is the proximal stage of a bordatella infection?
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organism has succesfully colonized the trachea, fluid has built up, rupturing of tissue, which causes coughing (whooping cough) and spitting up blood;
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  1. What type of bacteria is Brucella?
  2. What disease does it cause?
  3. What are some Virulence factors associated with Brucella?
answer
  1. Coccobacillary
  2. Brucelossis
  3. Virulence factors:
  • Toxic LPS;
  • Can neutrolize peroxides
  • Thick peptidoglycan layer (thicker than normal gram negatives)

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What are some things other than Brucelosis can Brucella cause?
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  • Undulent fever
  • Bubos (swollen lymph nodes)
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  1. What is the most common carrier of Francisella?
  2. What are some modes of transmission it can acquired through?
  3. What symptom can it cause?
answer
  1. Rabbits
  2. Airborne, Lesions, Vectors, Products from animals (meats etc)
  3. Can cause a Bubo
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  1. What type of organism is Yersinia Pestis?
  2. What is an infamous disease it causes?
  3. What are virulence factors associated with Yersinia?
answer
  1. Coccobacillary
  2. Bubonic Plague
  3. V;W Factor, Fra Capsule, Secretion apparatus, Yop Proteins
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Why is a cutaneous route of infection better than a pneumonic (respiratory) route of infection?
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Because incubation times are typically longer with cutaneous routes, which gives your immune system more time to mount a defense.
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  1. What type of organism is Anthrax?
  2. What are its carriers?
  3. What is a visible sign typical of Anthrax?
  4. What are its notable virulence factors?
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  1. Bacillus
  2. Cattle, Livestock and Soil
  3. Eschar - a necrotic patch
  4. Athrax toxin which consists of a few other toxins (PA Factor, Edema Factor(ED), LF Factor)

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  1. What type of organism is Terpanema?
  2. What is an associated disease caused by Trepanema?
  3. What is its generation time?
  4. What are some virulence factors?
answer
  1. Spirochete
  2. Syphillis and Periodontitis
  3. Gen time = 20-30 hours
  4. Hyaluronidase, Can't be phagocytized due to their shape, Endoflagella, Phase Variation
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  1. What are typical incubation times of  Trepanemes?
  2. Where does it usually colonize?
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  1. 3 weeks 
  2. Urogenital tract
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What are the stages of infection associated with Syphillis?
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  1. Primary Infection Stage: chanker leasion on penis - 1 month long
  2. Primary Latency Stage - dormancy 1-2 months where phase variation takes place
  3. Secondary Infection - organism moves and symptoms more system (Rash arthritis, warts)
  4. Secondary Latency: goes into dormancy again, possibly for years
  5. Tertiary Infection: crawls into CNS, causes dementia and insanity
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  1. What type of organism is Borellia Burgdorferi
  2. What disease is it associated with?
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  1. It's a Spirochete
  2. It causes Lyme's disease
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What are signs, symptoms and stages of Lyme's Disease?
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Stage 1 - bullseye rash, fatigue, myalgia;

Stage 2 - Arhtritis, Palsy, Encephalitis, Cardiac Damage

Stage 3 - CNS disease, Arthritis, Alzheimers-like Meningitis

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  1. Where is Campylobacter Jejuni typically found?
  2. What does it cause?
answer
  1. It's typically found in Poultry
  2. Causes diarrhea, and arthritis. It can further develop into Guillans Barre Syndrome
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  1. What is the %'age of people is Helicobacter pylori present in?
  2. What are some virulence facters associated with H. pylori?
  3. When does infection usually occur?
answer
  1. It's present in 60% of people
  2. Virulence factors include Ureases, Mucinase, Adhesins. It may also carry CAG Gene (pathogenicity island). It cay carry CDT (Cyto distending Toxin)
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  1. What is CDT toxin?
  2. What is especially dangerous and different about this toxin?
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  1. Cyto distending toxin
  2. It can be carcinogenic
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  1. What is the nick name for Mycobacterium
  2. What is special about the cell walls of mycobacterium?
  3. What is it's generation time?
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  1. Acid Fast bacteria
  2. It has lipoprotein ; peptidoglycan wall which makes it hard to kill
  3. Gen Time = 13 hrs
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What are virulence factors associated with Mycobacterium ;Tuberculosis?
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Sulfolipids - inhibits phagocytosis
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What must happen for a typical TB infection to take place?
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  1. Predisposition must be set up. Immunosuppressed due to trauma or secondary infection, macrophages not working well, substance abuse, stress etc.
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  1. What is a Tubercle?
  2. What is a GHON complex?;
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  1. A Tubercle is a wall created around infected macrophages made of body tissue.
  2. GHON complex is a calicified tubercle
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What happens if a GHON complex ruptures?
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It causes caseation, which is when tissue becomes cheesy/soft with holes. This develops into miliary or disseminating TB and is systemic.;
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What is the Drug therapy for TB?
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FOUR drug therapy for TWO months - kill active growing popultion

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THEN

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TWO drugs for FOUR months

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What is MAC?;
answer
Mycobacterium Avian Complex
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What are some features of Mycobacterium Marinum?
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causes skin ulcerations and is associated with Toxins?
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  1. Where is Legionella found?
  2. What disease does it cause?
  3. What are some virulence factors?
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  1. Water systems, cooling towers, humidifiers
  2. Legionaires disease
  3. Cytotoxins, and exotoxins, pleomorphic
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  1. What are sub bacteria?
  2. Which organisms are classified as subbacteria?
answer
  1. Bacteria that are smaller than normal bacteria.
  2. Mycoplasm, Chlamydia, and Rickettsia
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What is SCC?
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A pathogenicity island carried by Staph Aureas
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Trepanema can cause what other afflictions other than Syphillis?
answer
Yaws and Pinta
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What is the difference between Microbicidal vs microbistatic?
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Microbicidal kills microbes. Microbistatic stops proliferation.
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  1. What are some characteristic features of Mycoplasma?
  2. What are some disease associated with Mycoplasma?
  3. What are some of its Virulence factors?
answer
  1. It has only 500 genes. It has a thick 3 layer cholesterol membrane wall, it's pleomorphic
  2. Primary Atypical Pneumonia, NGU (Nongonnococcal urethritis)
  3. NAP area, VSA proteins, adhesins
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  1. What are some freatures of Chlamydia?
  2. What disease can it cause?
  3. What is a virulence factor?
answer
  1. Lacks Peptidoglycan, lacks Kreb Cycle - drives ATP from its host. It reprodces by fission - has elementary and reticular bodies
  2. Can cause NGU
  3. LPS toxin
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What are the SUB bacteria?
answer
Mycoplasma, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia
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Chlorination of water is what process?
answer
Disinfection
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The the ability for antimicrobials to be effective depends upon what 4 factors?
answer
  1. Population size
  2. Presence of Spores or cysts
  3. Matrix material that microbes are in 
  4. Wheter antimicrobial microbicidal vs microbistatic
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TDT on average for most organisms is what?
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15 mins at 65 Celsius
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  1. How does Heat act as an antimicrobial?
  2. What are the most heat resistant organisms?
answer
  1. It coagulates proteins, denatures
  2. Bacterial spores and fungal spores
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  1. How does Radiation act as an antimicrobial?
  2. What is it used to sterilize mainly?
answer
  1. It breaks down DNA
  2. Surfaces, foods, thin films of liquid
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  1. How is microfiltration an antimicrobial?
  2. What are two types of microfilters commonly used?
answer
  1. It screens out microbes
  2. HELP filters, and ULPA
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Freezing and ultrasonication can reduce numbers of microbes but are not ____________ _________. 
answer
sterilization techniques
question
  1. The effectiveness of a chemical agant is deteremined by what?
  2. What is that compared to?
answer
  1. Phenol Coefficient
  2. It compares killing power of phenal as it relates to time required to kill a certain population of either Staph or Salmonella. 
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What are the 4 general targets of Antibiotics?
answer
  • Inhibits cell wall formation
  • distrupts cell membranes
  • stops protein production
  • inhibits nucleic acid formation
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Which drugs inhibit cell wall formation?
answer
Penicillin, and Cephalosporin
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What drug disrupts cell membranes?
answer
Polymixin
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What drugs stop protein production?
answer
aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, and erythromycin
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What drugs inhibit nucleic acid formation?
answer
Actinomycin, rifampin, and quinolones
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Which drugs inhibit folic acid formation in pathway to nucleic acid synthesis?
answer
Sulfanilomides
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Resistance to antibiotics may be due to what?
answer
  • Production of enzymes that break them down
  • Changes in membrane permeability
  • Pumping out by secretion apparatus
  • Changes in ribosome structure
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What are 3 well known drug resistant organisms?
answer

MRSA (Multi Resistant Staphylococcs Aureus)

XMD (Mycobacterium)

VRE (Enterococcus)

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Antiviral agents include?
answer
  1. inhibiting viral polymerases (nucleotide analogs)
  2. Protease inhibitors 
  3. Inhibitors of attachment and penetration of the virus into the host cell
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in AIDS treatment... HAART is what?
answer
Two nucleotides with one or two proteases and combinations are changed every 3 months due to hypermutation of the virus.
question

What is EIEC?

What is EPEC?

answer

Enteroinvasive E. Coli

Enteropathogenic E. Coli

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